General Biology I Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
General Biology I provides a foundational overview of the principles of biology, introducing students to the study of life at the molecular, cellular, and organismal levels.
Topics include the chemical basis of life, cell structure and function, energy transformation through metabolism, genetics and heredity, as well as basic evolutionary concepts. The course emphasizes scientific inquiry, experimental design, and problem-solving skills, preparing students for advanced studies in the biological sciences and related health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman
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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Current understanding of the evolutionary relationships among organisms _____.
A)are always based only on molecular data
B)may change,as more species are discovered and studied
C)represent a complete and unchanging data set
D)tell us nothing about the history of life on Earth
Answer: B
Q2) Why did the five-kingdom system of classification fall out of favor?
A)It was too complex the original two-kingdom system of Linnaeus was more useful.
B)It was too difficult to distinguish plants from fungi and animals from protistans.
C)There were too few monerans to justify their classification at the kingdom level.
D)It did not reflect the actual evolutionary relationships among organisms very well.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) If delta G is greater than zero,_____.
A)you have decreased the amount of free energy in the system
B)you have decreased the amount of entropy in the system
C)you have decreased the total amount of energy in the system
D)you have increased the total amount of energy in the system
Answer: B
Q2) You isolate a molecule and determine it is nonpolar.Based on this property,the molecule is largely composed of the elements _____.
A)carbon and oxygen
B)carbon and hydrogen
C)carbon and nitrogen
D)nitrogen and hydrogen
Answer: B
Q3) How many electrons are involved in a double covalent bond?
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the first living entity?
A)It was a monomer.
B)It was large and extremely complex.
C)It could make a copy of itself.
Answer: C
Q2) You've discovered an enzyme that can catalyze two different chemical reactions.Which of the following is most likely to be correct?
A)The enzyme contains both -helices and -pleated sheets.
B)The enzyme is subject to both competitive inhibition and allosteric regulation.
C)Two types of allosteric regulation occur: The binding of one molecule activates the enzyme,while the binding of a different molecule inhibits it.
D)Either the enzyme has two distinct active sites,or the reactants involved in the two reactions are very similar in size and shape.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) Which of the following is a difference between RNA and DNA?
A)One is typically single stranded and the other is typically triple stranded.
B)One contains uracil and the other does not.
C)One contains ribose sugar and the other contains a deoxyribose sugar.
D)One is made from nucleotide monomers and the other one is not.
Q2) Bartel's research group showed that an RNA replicase ribozyme could be created by
A)carefully synthesizing a novel ribozyme monomer by monomer based on the sequence of known ribozymes
B)creating large numbers of random RNA segments and testing each one to see if any replicase activity was present
C)starting with random components and allowing selection to result in molecules that were better and better at replicating
D)examining protein replicases and reverse-engineering an RNA molecule capable of doing the same job
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) Which of the following can vary among monosaccharides?
A)the number of carbon atoms
B)the presence of a carbonyl group
C)the presence of hydroxyl groups
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following structural features is common to cellulose,chitin,and peptidoglycan?
A)They are all composed of glucose in either the or form.
B)They all contain peptide bonds.
C)They can all form bonds between polymer chains that create parallel strands.
D)They are all composed of highly branched fibers.
Q3) Glucose (C H O )has a single carbonyl group (-C=O)in its linear form.Based on the number of oxygen atoms in glucose,how many hydroxyl groups (-OH)would you expect glucose to have?
A)6
B)5
C)3
D)1
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) Which of the following crosses lipid bilayers the fastest?
A)a sodium ion
B)a small,polar molecule like water
C)a large,polar molecule like glucose
D)a small,nonpolar molecule like oxygen (O )
Q2) Where would you most likely find an integral membrane protein?
A)on the inside surface of the cell membrane
B)on the outside surface of the cell membrane
C)floating freely in the cytoplasm
D)spanning the cell membrane,with parts of the protein visible from both the inside and the outside of the cell
Q3) In an experiment involving planar bilayers,a solution of table salt (sodium and chloride ions in water)is added on the left side of the membrane while pure water is added on the right side.After 30 minutes the researchers test for the presence of ions on each side of the membrane.The right side tests negative for ions.What can you conclude?
A)The experiment failed.
B)The water somehow blocked the movement of ions across the membrane.
C)The left side would probably also test negative for ions.
D)Ions cannot cross planar bilayers.
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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following statements represents a major difference between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells?
A)Prokaryotes have cells while eukaryotes do not.
B)Eukaryotic cells tend to have much more extensive inner membrane systems and larger numbers of intracellular organelles than do prokaryotes.
C)Prokaryotes are not able to carry out aerobic respiration,a process that requires a complex inner-membrane system.
D)Prokaryotes are generally larger in size than eukaryotes.
Q2) You have a distant cousin,age 4,who is always tired and fatigued and is not able to play games and sports like other healthy children.He most likely has an enzyme deficiency or defect associated with which intracellular organelle?
A)lysosomes
B)Golgi apparatus
C)ribosomes
D)mitochondria
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9
Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) All of the following proteins may be found in the extracellular matrix of animal cells except _____.
A)collagen
B)fibronectin
C)actin
D)fibrillin
Q2) Intercalated discs are cell-cell junctions found between cardiac muscle cells.One feature of these intercalated discs is that they contain a large number of gap junctions,which means that _____.
A)an extension of smooth endoplasmic reticulum goes through the gap junction,making it continuous from one cardiac muscle cell to the next
B)water ions and small molecules can readily pass from one cardiac muscle cell to the next
C)cardiac cells can function independently when necessary
D)RNA from one cardiac muscle cell can be transported into an adjacent cell through the gap junction
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Following glycolysis and the Krebs cycle,but before the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation,the carbon skeleton of glucose has been broken down to CO with some net gain of ATP.Most of the energy from the original glucose molecule at that point in the process,however,is in the form of _____.
A)acetyl-CoA
B)glucose
C)pyruvate
D)NADH
Q2) Why might adding inorganic phosphate to a reaction mixture where glycolysis is rapidly proceeding help sustain the metabolic pathway?
A)It would increase the amount of glucose available for catabolism.
B)It would increase the oxygen supply available for aerobic respiration because each phosphate group contains four oxygen atoms as constituents.
C)The metabolic intermediates of glycolysis are phosphorylated.
D)It increases the energy level of the electrons that are transferred to the electron transport chain where ATP is produced.
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning chloroplasts is false?
A)They are unrelated to plastids.
B)They have both outer and inner membranes.
C)They have their own DNA.
D)They have an internal membrane system known as the thylakoid.
Q2) The process of photosynthesis probably originated _____.
A)in plants
B)in prokaryotes
C)in fungi
D)three separate times during evolution
Q3) What is the difference between NAD and NADP?
A)NAD functions as an electron transporter,whereas NADP does not.
B)NAD functions as a free-energy source for cells,whereas NADP does not.
C)Both function as electron carriers,but NADP has a phosphate group and NAD does not.
D)Both transport electrons to the electron transport chain (ETC)found on the inner mitochondrial membrane,but NADP transfers its electrons to the ETC at a higher energy level.
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on structures present in Figure 11.1,this cell is in which substage of interphase?
A)S phase
B)G phase
C)G phase
D)G phase
Q2) Once researchers understood that chromosomes are moved by the spindle microtubules,the next question they wanted to answer is how the microtubules function to bring about this process.They used fluorescent labels to make the chromosomes and the microtubular structures fluoresce.When anaphase began (centromeres split),they photobleached a section of microtubules.As chromosomes moved toward the poles of the daughter cells,the photobleached sections of the microtubules remained stationary.This result suggests that _____.
A)the microtubules elongate and shorten at the centrosome end
B)the microtubules overlap,and slide with respect to one another,effectively shortening the microtubules without depolymerizing the actual fiber
C)the microtubules elongate and shorten at their kinetochore end
D)the microtubules are of constant length;centrosomes move farther apart to separate chromosomes
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Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The variation among offspring,and the fact that they are genetically different from their parents,is not due to which of the following?
A)random alignment of homologues during prophase I
B)crossing over
C)fertilization
D)random alignment of sister chromatids in metaphase II
Q2) For the duration of meiosis I,each chromosome is _____.
A)in the form of a tetrad
B)two sister chromatids joined by a centromere
C)a chromosome and its homologue
D)undergoing synapsis
Q3) Male grasshoppers (such as the karyotype type shown here),have a single X chromosome.How many chromosomes would be in a sperm cell from this grasshopper?
A)11
B)12
C)22
D)23
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) Different ratios occur in crosses with single gene pairs or two gene pairs.What types of ratios are likely to occur in crosses dealing with a single gene pair?
A)9:3:3:1,1:2:1
B)1:1:1:1,1:4:6:4:1
C)3:1,1:1,1:2:1
D)4:1,1:1,1:4:1
Q2) A black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced 12 black offspring.When the albino was crossed with a second black animal,6 blacks and 6 albinos were obtained.What is the best explanation for this genetic situation?
A)Albino is recessive;black is dominant.
B)Albino is dominant;black is incompletely dominant.
C)Albino and black are codominant.
D)Albino is recessive;black is codominant.
Q3) A man who carries an allele of an X-linked gene will pass it on to _____.
A)all of his daughters
B)half of his daughters
C)all of his sons
D)half of his sons
E)all of his children
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which structure is responsible for stabilizing DNA in its single-stranded form?
Q2) What are pyrimidine dimers?
A)pyrimidines (C and T)that have gained an extra nitrogen-containing ring structure
B)pyrimidines on antiparallel DNA strands that form complementary base pairs
C)adjacent pyrimidines on the same DNA strand that join by covalent bonding
D)pyrimidines formed by demethylation of purines
Q3) Who performed the classic experiments that proved DNA was copied by semiconservative replication?
A)Watson and Crick
B)Meselson and Stahl
C)Hershey and Chase
D)Franklin and Wilkins
Q4) Which of the following cells do not have active telomerase activity?
A)most normal somatic cells
B)most normal germ cells
C)most cancer cells
Q5) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which of the structures in the figure breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases?
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) Beadle discovered that metabolic pathways are studied most effectively using which of the following techniques?
A)creating multiple gene mutations resulting in nonfunctional enzymes specific to a metabolic pathway
B)adding additional intermediates of the metabolic pathway
C)removing all intermediates of the metabolic pathway
D)creating single gene mutations resulting in nonfunctional enzymes specific to a metabolic pathway
Q2) Which of the following contradicts the "one-gene,one-enzyme hypothesis"?
A)A mutation in a single gene can result in a defective protein.
B)Alkaptonuria results when individuals lack a single enzyme involved in the catalysis of homogentisic acid.
C)Sickle-cell anemia results in defective hemoglobin.
D)A single antibody gene can code for different related proteins,depending on the splicing that takes place post-transcriptionally.
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17
Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does termination of translation take place?
A)The end of the mRNA molecule is reached.
B)A stop codon is reached.
C)The 5' cap is reached.
D)The poly A tail is reached.
Q2) The enzyme complex associated with DNA in the figure is _____.
A)helicase
B)DNA polymerase
C)RNA polymerase
D)topoisomerase
Q3) Which of the following is part of a DNA molecule?
A)sigma
B)the holoenzyme
C)initiation factors
D)promoters
Q4) Which of the following occurs in prokaryotes,but not eukaryotes?
A)post-transcriptional splicing
B)concurrent transcription and translation
C)translation in the absence of a ribosome
D)gene regulation
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) An E.coli cell without a functional lacI gene is expected to _____.
A)never produce -galactosidase
B)always produce -galactosidase
C)be unable to transport lactose into the cell
D)be unable to metabolize lactose within the cell
Q2) In negative control of transcription,a gene is activated when _____.
A)a kinase adds a phosphate to DNA
B)lactose is transported into the cell
C)a regulatory protein binds to DNA
D)a regulatory protein is removed from DNA
Q3) Suppose several genes are grouped together in a genome and the group results in a single enzyme.If one of these genes is mutated and the enzyme is no longer produced,this gene must be part of _____.
A)an intron
B)an operon
C)a repressor
D)an activator
E)an inducer
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19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) A gene is a _____.
A)protein-coding sequence of DNA
B)sequence of DNA capable of directing the synthesis of a polypeptide
C)sequence of DNA capable of directing the synthesis of one or more related polypeptides or RNAs
D)sequence of DNA capable of directing the synthesis of one or more related biological molecules of any type
Q2) Regulatory transcription factors _____.
A)influence the binding of sigma factor to DNA
B)influence the assembly of the basal transcription complex
C)influence the degree of unwinding of DNA at the promoter
D)open the two strands of DNA so RNA polymerase can begin transcription
Q3) If a pharmaceutical company wishes to make a protein-based drug from yeast with a particular carbohydrate tag to ensure correct tissue delivery,which stage of gene expression would be altered to change the tag on the protein?
A)transcription
B)translation
C)post-translation
D)alternative splicing
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) Which of the following is a correct difference between a gene library and a gene clone?
A)A gene library contains many different cloned DNA sequences;a gene clone contains one type of DNA sequence.
B)A gene library contains one type of cloned DNA sequence;a gene clone contains many different DNA sequences.
C)A gene library is a much longer DNA sequence than a gene clone.
D)A gene library is a much shorter DNA sequence than a gene clone.
E)A gene library is sequence information stored in a computerized database;a gene clone is an actual sequence of DNA.
Q2) One predicted aspect of climate change is that climates,including precipitation and temperature,over most of the Earth will become more variable.Which of the following is a good crop genetic engineering strategy if this is true?
A)only plant crops that are genetically engineered
B)genetically engineer most crops to withstand very long droughts
C)genetically engineer several genotypes within single crop types
D)genetically engineer the fastest growing crops possible
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Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) If one wished to test the hypothesis that humans and chimps differ due to differences in the expression of a large set of shared genes,the technique to use would be _____.
A)Southern blotting
B)PCR
C)DNA sequencing
D)protein-protein interaction assays
E)DNA microarray analysis
Q2) If the sequence of a cDNA matches a DNA sequence in the genome,then this genomic DNA is likely to _____.
A)code for a protein
B)code for a ribozyme
C)code for an rRNA
D)be part of an intron
E)be a regulatory sequence
Q3) An early step in shotgun sequencing is to _____.
A)break genomic DNA at random sites
B)map the position of cloned DNA fragments
C)randomly select DNA primers and hybridize these to random positions of chromosomes in preparation for sequencing
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Scientists have found that the lifetimes of mRNAs coding for pair-rule regulatory elements in Drosophila embryos may be measured in minutes.What does this suggest about the overall developmental plan of an animal body?
A)mRNAs in general have short lifetimes;this is not a surprising finding.
B)Each segment specified by pair-rule mRNAs is completely determined in the embryo in a very short time.
C)Building an animal body requires a sequence of steps;each of these steps is precisely timed.
D)Timing of pair-rule sequence determination is not as important as spatial signaling.
Q2) During Drosophila development,there is a regulatory cascade of gene activation.The proper sequence for this cascade is _____.
A)bicoid,gap genes,pair-rule genes,and segment polarity genes
B)bicoid,pair-rule genes,gap genes,and segment polarity genes
C)bicoid,segment-polarity genes,gap genes,and pair-rule genes
D)bicoid,gap genes,segment polarity genes,and pair-rule genes
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) The function of the acrosomal complex during fertilization is _____.
A)to block polyspermy
B)to dissolve the coating of the egg
C)to nourish the sperm mitochondria
D)to permit maximum sperm motility
Q2) Which of the following is the most basic process in the developing embryo because all of the other processes listed can occur only after it,or in conjunction with it?
A)organogenesis
B)cell differentiation
C)mitosis
D)morphogenesis
E)germ layer formation
Q3) Gastrulation is an important event in early embryonic development.Which of the following is Not a result of this process?
A)formation of three embryonic cell layers
B)movement and alignment of many embryonic cells
C)determination of cell types as a result of cell-cell interactions
D)formation of specialized plant tissues
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) One unique feature of fertilization in flowering plants compared with animals is that
A)plant sperm are motile
B)multiple ovules exist in the ovary
C)the process involves double fertilization
D)nuclear fusion does not take place
E)the gametes are diploid,not haploid
Q2) The auxin produced in Arabidopsis embryos and Bicoid protein produced in Drosophila embryos have what similar function?
A)Both are regulatory transcription factors that serve as cell-to-cell signals.
B)Both are cytoplasmic determinants they are loaded into eggs by cells in the mother or by female reproductive tissues.
C)Both trigger the transcription of homeotic loci genes that specify the types of structures produced at a certain position.
D)Both establish a concentration gradient that demarcates the anterior-posterior axis.
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) If two organisms show a developmental homology,you would also definitely expect them to _____.
A)share structural homologies
B)share genetic homologies
C)share genetic and structural homologies
D)be evolutionarily closely related
E)be evolutionarily distantly related
Q2) The same basic internal organs (kidneys,stomach,heart,lungs)are found in frogs,birds,snakes,and rodents.This is primarily an example of _____.
A)structural homology
B)developmental homology
C)genetic correlation
D)inheritance of acquired characteristics
Q3) Gill pouches in chick,human,and house-cat embryos are an example of _____.
A)structural homology
B)developmental homology
C)genetic homology
D)the inheritance of acquired characters
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) Why doesn't inbreeding depression,by itself,cause evolution?
A)It decreases the population's average fitness.
B)It limits gene flow.
C)It does not change the population's allele frequencies.
D)It increases homozygosity.
E)It violates the Hardy-Weinberg assumptions.
Q2) Mutation is the only evolutionary mechanism that _____.
A)does little to change allele frequencies
B)decreases fitness
C)is more important in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes
D)happens in all populations
E)has no effect on genetic variation
Q3) In a small population of alpine foxes,you observe increased ear length over a 10-year period.Can you conclude that increase in ear length is advantageous in this population?
A)Yes
B)No
Q4) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) House finches were found only in western North America until 1939,when a few individuals were released in New York City.These individuals established a breeding population and gradually expanded their range.The western population also expanded its range somewhat eastward,and the two populations have recently come in contact.If the two forms were unable to interbreed when their expanding ranges meet,what would this situation definitely illustrate?
A)prezygotic isolation
B)reinforcement
C)autopolyploidy
D)allopatric speciation
E)sympatric speciation
Q2) What keeps the two populations separate?
A)temporal reproductive isolation
B)lack of hybrid viability
C)They are already separate species.
D)spatial reproductive isolation
E)behavioral reproductive isolation
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) What is thought to be the significance of the duplication of homeotic genes?
A)Compared to fish,the increased number of genes made evolution of the tetrapod foot possible.
B)Compared to jellyfish,the increased number of genes made evolution of more complex body forms possible.
Q2) Which statement best describes why the Cambrian explosion was important?
A)because good fossils from this period are available to study
B)because there was an explosion in animal abundance
C)because there was an explosion in ecological diversity among animals
D)because plant and animal fossils were found together for the first time
Q3) Which of the following key adaptations is found in many animals from the Burgess Shale fauna but not found in the Doushantuo and Ediacaran faunas?
A)mouthparts
B)segmentation
C)burrow formation
D)multicellularity
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) What is the major goal of cellular respiration?
A)reduce an electron acceptor molecule
B)supply cell with fixed carbon
C)produce ATP
D)generate O
E)utilize glucose
Q2) Which are evolutionarily more closely related?
A)Bacteria and Archaea
B)Archaea and Eukarya
C)Bacteria and Eukarya
D)Bacteria,Eukarya,and Archaea are equally related to each other.
Q3) Which of the following describe all existing bacteria?
A)pathogenic,omnipresent,morphologically diverse
B)extremophiles,tiny,abundant
C)small,harmful,fast-growing
D)tiny,ubiquitous,metabolically diverse
E)morphologically diverse,metabolically diverse,extremophiles
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Consider the following data:
(a)Most ancient eukaryotes are unicellular.(b)All eukaryotes alive today have a nucleus and cytoskeleton.(c)Most ancient eukaryotes lack a cell wall.Which of the following conclusions could reasonably follow the data presented?
A)The first eukaryote may have been very similar to a plant cell.
B)The first eukaryote may have been anaerobic.
C)The first eukaryote may have been capable of phagocytosis.
D)The first eukaryote may have been photosynthetic.
Q2) Which of the following might be a result of adding a secondary consumer (a species that feeds on primary consumers)to the aquatic ecosystem illustrated above?
A)a decrease in the number of primary consumers
B)a decrease in the population of decomposers
C)an increase in atmospheric CO
D)an increase in the population of scavengers
E)a decrease in the carbon sink
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31
Chapter 30: Green Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of seedless vascular plants was the first to develop roots?
A)club mosses
B)horsetails
C)ferns
D)whisk ferns
Q2) The vast number and variety of flower species is probably related to various kinds of _____.
A)seed dispersal agents
B)pollinators
C)herbivores
D)climatic conditions
Q3) According to the fossil record,plants colonized terrestrial habitats _____.
A)in conjunction with insects that pollinated them
B)in conjunction with fungi that helped provide them with nutrients from the soil
C)from marine habitats
D)only about 150 million years ago
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which fungal class is not matched with its most common habitat?
A)EMF northern coniferous forests
B)EMF warm climate forests
C)AMF tropics
D)AMF grasslands
Q2) Referring to Simard et al.(1997),what is the result that would most strongly refute their hypothesis?
A)No movement: Carbon-14 is found in the birch seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the Douglas fir.
B)Reciprocal exchange: Carbon-14 is found in the Douglas fir seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the birch.
C)Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the fungal tissues.
D)Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the cedar seedling's tissues.
Q3) Which of these fungal features supports the phylogenetic conclusion that fungi are more closely related to animals than plants?
A)Fungi are able to change their body shape continuously throughout their life.
B)Zygomycetes have flagellated gametes.
C)Fungi store polysaccharides as starch.
D)The cell walls of fungi are made of chitin.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) While looking at some seawater through your microscope,you spot the egg of an unknown animal.Which of the following tests could you not use to determine whether the developing organism is a protostome or a deuterostome?
A)See whether the ectoderm forms the mature animal's skin/exoskeleton or nervous system.
B)See whether the animal exhibits spiral cleavage or radial cleavage during early development.
C)See whether the coelom is formed from a split in the mesoderm or from mesodermal pockets pinched off the gut.
D)See whether the pore formed during gastrulation becomes the mature animal's mouth or its anus.
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of the tube-within-a-tube body plan in most animals?
A)The outer tube consists of a hard exoskeleton.
B)The outer tube consists of digestive organs.
C)The mouth and anus form the ends of the inner tube.
D)The two "tubes" are separated by endoderm tissue.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) How would a terrestrial centipede most likely benefit from the ability to close its spiracles?
A)Closing spiracles would allow the centipede to move more quickly.
B)Closing spiracles would allow the centipede to retain more moisture in its tissues.
C)Closing spiracles would allow the centipede to stay warmer.
D)Closing spiracles would allow more oxygen from the environment to reach the centipede's tissues.
E)The centipede would not benefit at all.
Q2) If you wanted to identify an unfamiliar protostome with a limbless,wormlike body,which characteristic would not be helpful in differentiating one species from another?
A)what kind of mouthparts the organism had
B)whether the organism metamorphosed into a different form
C)whether the organism moved using a hydrostatic skeleton
D)whether the organism's body was divided into segments
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Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics evolved independently in mammals and birds?
A)bilateral symmetry
B)amniotic eggs
C)jaws
D)bone
E)endothermy
Q2) How did the development of the jaw contribute to evolutionary diversification of early vertebrate lineages?
A)It allowed for larger body size.
B)It was the first stage in the development of a bony skull.
C)It paved the way for the evolution of the pharyngeal jaw.
D)It made additional food sources available.
E)It increased the surface area for respiration and feeding.
Q3) Which of the following groups is classified as Homo sapiens?
A)Neanderthals
B)Cro-Magnons
C)Paranthropus
D)Australopithecus
E)none of the above
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following human diseases is caused by a virus that requires reverse transcriptase to transcribe its genome inside the host cell?
A)herpes
B)AIDS
C)smallpox
D)influenza
E)common cold
Q2) Why do scientists consider HIV to be an emerging virus?
A)HIV infected humans long before AIDS first become a problem in the early 1980s,but it has now mutated to a more deadly form.
B)HIV mutates so rapidly that the virus of today has very little similarity to the virus in the first AIDS patients from the early 1980s.
C)HIV used to infect only chimps,but it has mutated in such a way that it now infects humans.
D)HIV is now starting to cause diseases other than AIDS,such as rare types of cancers and pneumonias.
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Girdling is a procedure to kill unwanted tress by cutting a groove into the bark of the tree.The groove must completely encircle the trunk and should penetrate into the wood to a depth of at least 1/2 inch on small trees,and 1 to 1-1/2 inches on larger trees.Why does this procedure cause tree death?
A)No water can be transported from the roots to the leaves.
B)No water can be transported from the leaves to the roots.
C)No sugars can be transported from the leaves to the roots.
D)Both water and sugars are prevented from being transported.
Q2) In 2005,a spot 1 centimeter from the center of a woody stem is in the bark.In what tissue will the same spot (1 cm from the center)be in 2050?
A)bark
B)secondary phloem
C)vascular cambium
D)secondary xylem
E)impossible to tell
Q3) Leaf thickness represents a trade-off between _____.
A)light collection and CO absorption
B)water retention and CO absorption
C)water retention and O absorption
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Which of the following is a similarity between xylem and phloem transport?
A)Many cells in both tissues have sieve plates.
B)Expenditure of energy from ATP is required.
C)Transpiration is required for both processes.
D)Bulk flow of water is involved.
Q2) Which of the following is not a net sink for products of photosynthesis in a deciduous angiosperm tree?
A)leaves in early spring
B)flowers in summer
C)fruits in summer
D)roots in early spring
E)roots in early autumn
Q3) Water potential in plants consists mainly of _____.
A)solute potential and osmotic potential
B)solute potential and membrane potential
C)pressure potential and solute potential
D)pressure potential and membrane potential
E)solute potential only
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) To understand the role of zinc in plant growth and development,you are growing a tomato plant using hydroponics.Which plant organs do you expect to have developmental defects if you provide the plant with a solution devoid of zinc?
A)leaf development only
B)stem development only
C)above ground development
D)below ground development
E)all organs will be affected
Q2) After mutagenesis and screening take place,you have found a mutant that is able to grow in soil with high copper content.Protein analysis shows that the concentration of metallothioneins in the mutant is different from that in normal plants.How does the concentration of metallothioneins likely differ in the mutant relative to the normal plant?
A)Metallothioneins are absent in the mutant.
B)The concentration of metallothioneins is greater in the mutant.
C)The concentration of metallothioneins is lower in the mutant.
D)Metallothioneins are the most abundant proteins in the mutant.
Q3) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) The data in Figure 39.1 were taken from a study on the effects of far-red light on stem elongation.The data indicate that plants from shady habitats do not respond to far-red light by growing taller.Which of the following would be a logical hypothesis for why these plants do not respond to far-red light?
A)The shade plants do not have phototropin.
B)The shade plants do not have protein kinases.
C)The shade plants do not have cryptochromes.
D)The shade plants do not have phytochrome.
E)All of these are reasonable hypotheses.
Q2) _____ in concentration of auxin in shoot cells and _____ in concentration of auxin in root cells lead to cell elongation.
A)Increase;increase
B)Increase;decrease
C)Decrease;increase
D)Decrease;no change
Q3) Refer to Table 39.1.Plant C is a long-day plant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the similarity between spores and gametes?
A)They are produced by meiosis.
B)They are haploid.
C)They divide by mitosis.
D)They can fuse with another cell to form a new organism.
E)They are made by a sporophyte.
Q2) What is not true about the carpel of a flower?
A)The stigma receives the pollen.
B)The style provides the pathway for the growth of the pollen tube.
C)Meiosis of the megaspore forms the eight nuclei of the embryo sac.
D)The ovary encloses one or more ovules,which contain the embryo sac.
Q3) During self-fertilization,which of the following is absent?
A)pollination
B)transfer of pollen from one plant to the other
C)presence of a gametophyte
D)all of the above
Q4) Plants in crop fields such as corn are genetically very similar.What are benefits of this phenomenon? What are pitfalls of this phenomenon?
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of negative feedback?
A)During contractions,oxytocin (a hormone)is released and acts to stimulate further contractions.
B)When a baby is nursing,suckling leads to the production of more milk and a following increase in the secretion of prolactin (a hormone that stimulates lactation).
C)After a blood vessel is damaged,signals are released by the damaged tissues that activate platelets in the blood.These activated platelets release chemicals that activate more platelets.
D)When the level of glucose in the blood increases,the pancreas produces and releases the hormone insulin.Insulin acts to decrease blood glucose.As blood glucose decreases,the rate of production and release of insulin decreases as blood glucose decreases.
Q2) Which of the following structural features of epithelial tissues are related to the function of these cells?
A)They have polarity.
B)They have a long life span.
C)low rates of mitosis and cytokinesis
D)The cells are loosely packed.
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Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) What role do chloride cells play in osmoregulation of marine fish with bony skeletons?
A)They actively transport chloride into the gills.
B)They mediate the movement of salt from seawater through their gills.
C)They are involved in excretion of excess salt.
D)They actively transport salt across the basolateral membrane of the rectal gland.
Q2) Hagfish (Eptatretus cirrhauts)are a jawless marine vertebrate that are isotonic with their environment and are considered to be osmoconformers.How might this interesting adaptation limit the habitat that the hagfish can tolerate?
A)Hagfish are not limited by salinity.
B)Osmoconformers do not face the same osmoregulators pressures as osmoregulators and can live in any marine environment.
C)Individual hagfish will adapt to different salinities over their lifetime and therefore can inhabit any marine environment.
D)Hagfish habitat is limited by the salinity of the environment.
Q3) Figure 42.1 shows a nephron.Where does filtration take place in the nephron?
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you found a skull in the woods and the teeth were fang-like,what type of food would you expect this animal to eat?
A)grass
B)flesh of another animal
C)nectar
D)blood
Q2) If the person consumes 2500 calories daily to maintain body weight,what percentage of the RDA for iron would this person receive from a serving of apple juice?
A)20%
B)less than 20%
C)more than 20%
Q3) The chemical digestion of proteins begins where?
A)in the mouth
B)in the stomach
C)in the small intestine
D)in the bloodstream
Q4) The electron micrograms in Figure 43.2 are images of mouthparts of different animals.Which of the mouthparts are specialized for crushing and grinding?
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the sea lamprey (Petromyzon marinus),a marine jawless fish,was moved in the ballast of ships from the Atlantic to the Great Lakes (a freshwater environment)the fish could more easily obtain oxygen from freshwater than it could in its native marine habitat.Why is this the case?
A)Freshwater has more oxygen than seawater.
B)Oxygen is more soluble in freshwater than in seawater.
C)Freshwater is colder than seawater.
D)Partial pressure of freshwater is higher than the partial pressure of seawater.
E)None of the above apply.
Q2) Fick's law of diffusion describes the factors that influence the diffusion of respiratory gases across biological membranes like gills and lungs.Diffusion rate = k × A × (PP )/D.Natural selection is least likely to act upon which variable in Fick's law?
A)A
B)k
C)P - P
D)D
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) If you experimentally increase the concentration of Na outside a cell while maintaining other ion concentrations as they were,what would happen to the cell's membrane potential?
A)The membrane potential would decrease.
B)The membrane potential would increase.
C)The membrane potential would be unaffected.
D)The answer depends on the thermodynamic potential.
Q2) If a patient has an injury in the brain stem,which of the following would be observed?
A)auditory hallucinations
B)visual hallucinations
C)an inability to regulate body temperature
D)an inability to regulate heart function
Q3) Which letter on Figure 45.1 corresponds to the action of the sodium-potassium pump and potassium leak channels?
A)A
B)B
C)C D)D E)E
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the effect on muscle contraction if troponin were experimentally altered to no longer interact with tropomyosin,so the complex could no longer bind to actin?
A)Muscle contraction could no longer occur.
B)Muscles could not relax after contraction.
C)Muscle contraction would be weakened but would still occur as long as tropomyosin is functional.
D)ATP could not be hydrolyzed by enzymes in the muscle.
Q2) Deafness caused by loud sounds often results from damage to which receptor cells?
A)thermoreceptors
B)mechanoreceptors
C)chemoreceptors
D)electroreceptors
E)nociceptors
Q3) Compared to human eyes,the eyes of cephalopods (squid and octopus)_____.
A)are extremely similar,with no significant differences
B)are not camera eyes and do not have a single lens
C)are inferior because they have few photoreceptors
D)do not have a blind spot
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are small amounts of hormones amplified?
A)One cAMP molecule stimulates one cAMP-dependent protein kinase A molecule,which activates many molecules of phosphorylase kinase.
B)One cAMP molecule triggers the production of more hormone.
C)One cAMP molecule stimulates several cAMP-dependent protein kinase A molecules,which activates many molecules of phosphorylase kinase.
D)Signal transduction cascades are dependent upon second messenger signaling only in rare cases and only when the hormone in question is a steroid.
Q2) Polypeptides can have which of the following types of effects?
A)autocrine
B)paracrine
C)endocrine
D)all of the above
Q3) Glucocorticoids do which of the following?
A)promote the immune response
B)promote the release of fatty acids
C)increase blood glucose levels
D)increase insulin production
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) During the menstrual cycle,_____ peaks first,_____ peak next,and finally _____ surges.
A)estradiol;LH and progesterone;FSH
B)progesterone;LH and FSH;estradiol
C)estradiol;LH and FSH;progesterone
D)estradiol;LH and FSH;testosterone
E)testosterone;estradiol and FSH;progesterone
Q2) Why does external fertilization typically occur much more often in aquatic animals than in terrestrial animals?
A)The gametes are hydrophobic,so they must be suspended in water to avoid clumping.
B)The gametes must be produced in large numbers,which can occur only in aquatic environments.
C)The gametes must be kept wet to avoid desiccation.
D)All of the above answers apply.
E)None of the above answers apply.
Q3) During oogenesis meiosis results in four equally sized cells that stop dividing in meiosis I.
A)True
B)False
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not fundamental to the clonal-selection theory of how the adaptive immune system functions?
A)Each lymphocyte has a unique membrane receptor that recognizes one antigen.
B)When the lymphocyte binds an antigen,it is activated and begins dividing to form many identical copies of itself.
C)Cloned lymphocytes have slight differences and are selected by the spleen for removal if they do not bind an antigen.
D)Cloned cells descend from an activated lymphocyte and persist even after the pathogen is eliminated.
Q2) Which of the following would put you at increased risk of pathogens entering your body?
A)a mutation that increases the amount of lysozyme you can produce
B)a mutation that increases the amount of wax your ears produce on a daily basis
C)a mutation that causes your mucus secretions to be extremely watery
D)a mutation that decreases the number of cilia present in the respiratory tract
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main difference between climate and weather?
A)Weather typically describes a larger area than climate.
B)Climate typically describes longer-term conditions.
C)Climate typically describes shorter-term conditions.
D)Weather includes temperature and climate does not.
E)Climate is primarily a term used by ecologists;weather is primarily a term used by the general public.
Q2) Using the Bhatla et al.(2004)reference and your knowledge about the Hadley cell,would you expect a difference in thermodynamic parameters with monsoon magnitude and variability with latitude?
A)Yes
B)No
C)From the information given,it is impossible to tell if there will be a difference in thermodynamic parameters with monsoon magnitude and variability with latitude.
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding temperate grasslands is false?
A)Prairie fires can result from lightning strikes.
B)Grassland soils are not very fertile.
C)Grasslands are lower in productivity than tropical forest communities.
D)Grasslands have too little precipitation to support abundant tree growth.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) You observe that by flashing a small light in a particular sequence,you can attract male fireflies of a certain species.You begin to think how this signal may be used against these males.Which of the hypotheses seems to be the most logical?
A)This particular signal will be used commonly by other firefly species as a way to lure males and prey on them.
B)This particular signal will be used only by this species of firefly.
C)This particular signal will be used widely by males of this species in territorial disputes.
D)This particular signal will be used by females of other species to lure males and mate with them in an effort to pass on more of their genes.
Q2) Homing pigeons' ability to always return to their home,no matter where they are released,is an excellent example of _____.
A)piloting
B)compass orientation
C)an innate behavior
D)true navigation
E)all of the above
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) What conclusion can you draw from Figure 52.12?
A)Hares control lynx population size.
B)Lynx control hare population size.
C)Lynx and hare populations are independent of each other.
D)The relationship between the populations cannot be determined from this graph.
Q2) In Figure 52.1,which of the following survivorship curves implies that an animal may lay thousands of eggs,of which a regular number die each year on a logarithmic scale?
A)curve A
B)curve B
C)curve C
D)none of the above
Q3) The definition of a generation is _____.
A)20 years
B)the average time between a mother's first offspring and her daughter's first offspring
C)the average time between a father's first offspring and his son's first offspring
D)the average time between parents' first offspring and their child's first offspring
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Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) In Figure 53.9,which community has the highest species richness?
A)Community 1
B)Community 2
C)Community 3
D)Community 4
E)Communities 2 and 4
Q2) Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics.As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates,birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants.This is an example of what kind of species interaction?
A)cooperation
B)consumption
C)commensalism
D)parasitism
E)mutualism
Q3) In Figure 53.9,which community has the highest species diversity?
A)Community 1
B)Community 2
C)Community 1 and community 3 have the highest species diversity.
D)Community 4
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When primary producers expend energy to build new tissue,this is _____.
A)net primary productivity
B)the amount of energy available to consumers
C)maintenance costs
D)net primary productivity and the amount of energy available to consumers
E)maintenance costs and the amount of energy available to consumers
Q2) Considering the global nitrogen cycle depicted in Figure 54.9,what is the limiting portion of the cycle for plants?
A)industrial nitrogen fixation
B)nitrogen lost to the atmosphere
C)internal nitrogen cycling in the oceans
D)nitrogen fixation by bacteria
Q3) What is the leading hypothesis as to why terrestrial productivity is higher in equatorial climates?
A)Productivity increases with temperature.
B)Productivity increases with water availability.
C)Productivity increases with available sunlight.
D)The hypothesis is most likely a combination of the other answers.
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the species-area plot in Figure 55.7,if habitable area on an island were reduced from 10,000 km² to 1000 km²,roughly what percentage of the species would disappear?
A)0)3 percent
B)3 percent
C)30 percent
D)60 percent
Q2) According to Figure 55.5,what is the least likely explanation for the data after 1985?
A)emigration
B)immigration
C)introduction of new individuals to the population
D)increased resources in the area
Q3) Based on Figure 55.2,what snake antivenom would you administer to a person bitten by a king brown snake?
A)taipan
B)common brown snake
C)red-bellied black snake
D)death adder
E)tiger snake
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Page 57