General Biology I Exam Bank
Course Introduction
General Biology I provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of biology, emphasizing the molecular and cellular basis of life. Topics include the chemical foundation of life, cell structure and function, genetics and heredity, molecular biology, and basic principles of evolution and ecology. The course integrates laboratory activities and critical thinking exercises to develop analytical and practical skills, preparing students for more advanced studies in the biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Biology 1st Edition by Robert Brooker
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2312 Verified Questions
2312 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What feature of genetic mutations can eventually lead to the evolution of new species?
A)Mutations always produce harmful effects.
B)Mutations never affect protein structure or function.
C)Mutations are not a mechanism through which biological evolution occurs.
D)Mutations always produce beneficial effects.
E)Mutations produce changes in the DNA sequence of a genE.
Answer: E
Q2) The grouping or classification of species is termed A)genus.
B)kingdom.
C)taxonomy.
Answer: C
Q3) All genetic mutations are harmful to an organism.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) 1 mole = 1000 millimoles (mmol);1millimole = 1000 micromoles (µmol).If a solution contains 38231 µmol,what is that amount in mmol?
A)382.31 mmol
B)38.231 mmol
C)3.8231 mmol
D)3823.1 mmol
Answer: B
Q2) For water to vaporize
A)energy must be supplied.
B)energy must be released.
C)hydrogen bonds are broken.
D)both energy must be supplied and hydrogen bonds broken.
E)both energy must be released and hydrogen bonds broken.
Answer: D
Q3) If lithium has an atomic number of 3 then it will have 1 valence electron.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
4
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Chapter 3: The Chemical Basis of Life II: Organic Molecules
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Q1) If sucrose is composed of both glucose and fructose,then sucrose must be a monosaccharide.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Glycogen is to animal cells as ________ is to plant cells.
A)lipid
B)cellulose
C)starch
D)protein
E)sugar
Answer: C
Q3) Since carbon and hydrogen share similar electronegativities,they will form nonpolar covalent bonds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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5
Chapter 4: General Features of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organelle and function pair can best explain their ability to divide?
A)Chloroplasts and peroxisomes because they both have their own DNA.
B)Mitochondria and chloroplasts due to their association with endosymbiosis theory.
C)Ribosomes and mitochondria as each is a result of regression theory.
D)Peroxisomes and lysosomes are both derived from engulfed bacteria.
Q2) In order to gain the highest resolution when looking at a cell the best type of microscopy is
A)phase-contrast light microscopy.
B)scanning electron microscopy.
C)differential-interference light microscopy.
D)confocal microscopy.
E)fluorescence microscopy.
Q3) If organelles are able to divide and reproduce themselves like a cell those most likely to have this ability would be
A)mitochondria only.
B)chloroplasts only.
C)peroxisomes only.
D)both mitochondria and chloroplasts.
E)mitochondria,chloroplasts,and lysosomes.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Membrane Structure, Transport, and Cell
Junctions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best descriptive comparison between hemidesmosomes and desmosomes is A)hemidesmosomes are anchorage junctions but desmosomes are not.
B)hemidesmosomes are found in plant cells while desmosomes are found in animal cells.
C)both hemidesmosomes and desmosomes associate with integrin,but not cadherin molecules.
D)hemidesmosomes interact with actin filaments while desmosomes interact with intermediate filaments.
E)hemidesmosomes anchor cells to the ECM while desmosomes anchor cells to other cells.
Q2) Signals can be sent from the ECM to the cell through _______.
A)claudins
B)connexins
C)fibronectins
D)cadherins
E)integrins
Q3) The presence of integral proteins allows membranes to be selectively permeable to certain molecules.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Energy, Enzymes, and Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many ATP and NADH molecules are produced from each molecule of glucose in the citric acid cycle only?
A)1 ATP,2 NADH
B)2 ATP,6 NADH
C)3 ATP,4 NADH
D)0 ATP,6 NADH
E)4 ATP,2 NADH
Q2) If one were to double the amount of enzyme in a reaction with an initial \(\Delta\)G of -5 kcal/mole,what would the \(\Delta\)G be?
A)+5 kcal/mole
B)-5 kcal/mole
C)-20 kcal/mole
D)-10 kcal/mole
E)+10 kcal/mole
Q3) The charge on amino acids in the active site of an enzyme would be affected by A)substrate concentration.
B)antibiotics.
C)salt concentration.
D)temperature.
E)pH.
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The Calvin cycle is only capable of fixing carbon dioxide in the dark.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The molecules that directly convert NADP<sup>+</sup> to NADPH is/are
A)RUBISCO.
B)plastocyanin.
C)cytochrome complex.
D)NADP reductase.
E)ferrodoxin.
Q3) What is the main role of the pigment molecules within the antenna or light-harvesting complex?
A)Pass electrons to the electron transport chain and then to NADPH.
B)Synthesize NADPH.
C)Increase H+ concentration in the stroma.
D)Oxidize water and release oxygen to the reaction center chlorophyll.
E)Absorb photons and transfer light energy to the reaction center chlorophyll.
Q4) Photons from light can boost an electron to a higher energy state.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Cell Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) During exposure to elevated glucose,a yeast cell will increase its uptake of glucose.Describe the mechanism by which the yeast sense the extracellular glucose.
A)By glucose diffusing into the nucleus and binding to transcription factors.
B)By the increase in energy outside the cell when the glucose is metabolized.
C)By glucose binding to glucose receptors.
D)By the increase in energy inside the cell when the glucose is metabolizeD.
E)By glucose uptake through glucose transporters.
Q2) A substrate binding to an enzyme is most similar to a signal molecule binding to a A)G-protein.
B)receptor.
C)kinase.
D)second messenger.
E)transcriptional factor.
Q3) One common feature with G-protein coupled,enzyme-linked,and growth factor receptors is that their activation leads to activation of protein kinases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acid Structure, DNA Replication, and
Chromosome Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which purine base forms 3 hydrogen bonds when binding its complementary nucleotide base?
A)guanine
B)cytosine
C)thymine
D)uracil
E)adenine
Q2) What is the highest (or most complex)level of structure for genetic material?
A)nucleotide
B)double helix
C)DNA
D)gene
E)chromosome
Q3) A DNA specimen that contains 30% guanine contains how much thymine?
A)15%
B)20%
C)30%
D)60%
E)The amount of thymine cannot be determined.
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Chapter 10: Gene Expression at the Molecular Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase charges a tRNA it results in the release of which molecule?
A)mRNA
B)ATP
C)AMP
D)pyrophosphate
E)AMP and pryophosphate
Q2) More than one codon can specify the same amino acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement about tRNA is FALSE?
A)tRNAs of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes share common features
B)the two-dimensional structure of tRNAs exhibits a cloverleaf pattern
C)tRNAs are produced in the nucleus
D)functional tRNAs have been spliced by splicesomes
E)tRNAs possess an anticodon complementary to the codon
Q4) A single gene always encodes for an enzyme.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Gene Regulation
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Q1) Small effector molecules directly bind the DNA they regulate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why would bacteria evolve so that the presence of tryptophan inhibits its own production?
A)Producing the enzymes that synthesize tryptophan is metabolically expensive,so it is wasteful to make them when tryptophan levels are high and its synthesis is not necessary.
B)Producing high levels of tryptophan inhibits the production of other amino acids,so inhibiting its production allows all amino acids to be synthesized at equal concentrations.
C)High levels of tryptophan causes cells to become unresponsive to external stimuli,so its production must be regulated.
D)High levels of tryptophan inhibit cellular respiration and the synthesis of ATP,so its production must be regulateD.
E)All of these choices are TRUE.
Q3) MicroRNAs increase the rate of mRNA translation.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Mutation, DNA Repair, and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ionizing radiation can produce which of the following?
A)cytosine
B)free radicals
C)stop codons
D)thymine dimers
E)hypoxanthine
Q2) Which protein directs apoptosis?
A)growth factor
B)oncogene
C)chimeric gene
D)caspase
E)transposase
Q3) You are a brilliant graduate student and you are skeptical of the results found by the Lederbergs.You decide to repeat their experiment,but you do not have ready access to T1 bacteriophage.What might you use instead?
A)HIV virus
B)HPV virus
C)X-gal - the substrate of the enzyme \(\beta\)-galactosidase
D)Ampicillin - an antibiotic
E)Salmonella bacteria
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Chapter 13: The Eukaryotic Cell Cycle, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most human embryos that are aneuploid
A)result in Down's syndrome.
B)result in sterility.
C)are spontaneously aborted in the first trimester.
D)can develop and survive to adulthooD.
E)are usually the result of increased nondisjunction in the gametes of older men.
Q2) Synaptonemal complexes form during
A)prophase of meiosis I.
B)prophase of meiosis II.
C)prophase of meiosis I and meiosis II.
D)prometaphase of meiosis I.
E)prometaphase of meiosis II.
Q3) Sexual life cycles include both haploid and diploid stages.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One major difference between metaphase I and metaphase II is the presence or absence of bivalents.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assume that in watermelon plants the genes for flower color (Y = yellow;y = orange flowers)and fruit shape (R = round;r = oval)are on the same chromosome.You cross two true-breeding plants,one with yellow flowers and round fruit and the other with orange flowers and oval fruit.You take one of the F<sub>1</sub> individuals and cross it with a plant that is homozygous recessive for both traits.You get the following in the F<sub>2</sub>: 300 yellow flowers,round fruit;300 orange flowers,oval fruit;100 yellow flowers,oval fruit,100 orange flowers,round fruit.
The recombination frequency observed in experimental crosses can be used to indicate distances between genes on a chromosome.More specifically,the map distance between two genes is equal to the frequency of recombinant offspring.What is the map distance between the genes for flower color and fruit shape?
A)25.0
B)4.0
C)40.0
D)33.0
E)100.0
Q2) A locus encodes different genes in different individuals of the same species.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Genetics of Viruses and Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a part of the general viral reproductive cycle?
A)viral recognition of host surface proteins
B)genome entry into the cell and immediate expression of some viral genes
C)viral proteins are synthesized
D)reverse transcriptase converts RNA to DNA
E)fully assembled viruses are released
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of bacterial chromosomes?
A)they are single stranded
B)they are around 10* smaller than eukaryotic chromosomes
C)they contain gene coding regions and regulatory regions
D)they can be present in more than one copy
E)they have only one origin of replication
Q3) Plasmids replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bacterial cells always contain one copy of a circular chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Genetic Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shown below are steps in making a transgenic plant.
1)Expose plant cells to Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2)Place plant cells on selective medium
3)Transform the recombinant plasmid into Agrobacterium tumefaciens
4)Insert gene of interest into Ti plasmid
5)Place plant cells on growth medium with plant hormones
What is the correct order of these steps?
A)5 - 1 - 4 - 3 - 2
B)4 - 3 - 1 - 2 - 5
C)4 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 2
D)2 - 4 - 1 - 3 - 5
E)None of the choices shows the correct order
Q2) The main purpose of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is to generate many copies of a region of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To study the promoter of a gene,a researcher should use a cDNA library.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Genomes, Repetitive Sequences, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) You overhear colleagues discussing their current research.They mention that they need to purchase a large quantity of dideoxynucleoside triphosphates and that they will be using sonic technology.You also hear them discussing the pros and cons of several computer programs that can align large amounts of overlapping data.What technique do you think your colleagues are preparing for?
A)transposition
B)Gel electrophoresis
C)shotgun sequencing
D)data mining
Q2) A nerve cell and a brain cell taken from the same individual would have two different sets of genes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The current genome databases are biased towards species that are important from a research,medical,or agricultural perspective.
A)True
B)False
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Origin and History of Life
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Q1) What is the most accurate description of the consequence(s)of the increased oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)in the atmosphere during and after the Silurian Period?
A)Conquest of land by arthropods.
B)Conquest of land by arthropods and vertebrates.
C)Increases in animal body sizes and appearance of shelled organisms.
D)Conquest of land by arthropods and vertebrates,and plants.
E)Conquest of land by arthropods and vertebrates and an increase in animal body sizes.
Q2) Changes that have occurred in living organisms over the past four billion years are due primarily to
A)extinction of species.
B)continental drift.
C)changes in atmospheric composition.
D)interaction of genetic and environmental changes.
E)floods and formation of glaciers.
Q3) The eukaryotic genome is comprised entirely of genes derived from Archean ancestors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: An Introduction to Evolution and Population Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In red-wing blackbirds,females tend to choose males with the most desirable territories and males compete with each other for territories.
True or false: Redwing blackbirds demonstrate both intersexual selection and intrasexual selection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In humans,structures that show developmental homology with other chordates are
A)the eyes and nostrils.
B)gill ridges and a bony tail.
C)fore and hindlimbs.
D)the lungs and vertebrae.
Q3) What are the two principal factors that lead to microevolution?
A)new genetic variation and genetic mutations
B)genetic mutations and evolutionary mechanisms
C)new genetic variation and evolutionary mechanisms
D)evolutionary mechanisms and migration
E)nonrandom mating and new genetic variation
Q4) A population undergoing microevolution would show Hardy-Weinberg disequilibrium.
Page 21
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Origin of Species and Macroevolution
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Q1) During spring time in Maine,male moose often enter a cow pasture and begin calling to the female cows.The moose may even try to mount the female but the male moose genitalia do not fit properly inside the female cow genitalia.This is an example of A)mechanical isolation.
B)temporal isolation.
C)habitat isolation.
D)behavioral isolation.
E)gametic isolation.
Q2) Frogs "croak" at night to lure females for mating.Females are attracted only to the song of their species.This is an example of A)hybrid sterility.
B)temporal isolation.
C)hybrid breakdown.
D)behavioral isolation.
E)gametic isolation.
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Chapter 21: Taxonomy and Systematics
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a principle used when constructing cladograms?
A)All species or higher taxa are placed on tips in a phylogenetic tree.
B)All species or higher taxa are placed on nodes in a phylogenetic tree.
C)Each cladogram branch point should have one or more shared derived characters that are common to all species above the branch point,unless the character is later modified.
D)All shared derived characters appear together only once in a cladogram unless they arose independently during evolution more than once.
Q2) A modern goal of systematics is to classify organisms based on similarity of form and function,regardless of their evolutionary relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An assumption for the use of molecular clocks is that neutral mutations accumulate at a rapidly increasing rate over time between two species.
A)True
B)False
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23
Chapter 22: Microorganisms: The Archaea, Bacteria, and Protists
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Q1) Phytophthora infestans is a pathogen that attacks a variety of plants.This pathogen is an example of what type of protist?
A)algae
B)fungus-like protists
C)protozoans
D)periphyton
E)plankton
Q2) The human microbiome is:
A)the collection of pathogenic microbes that attack humans and cause disease
B)the collection of symbiotic microbes living on or within the human body,often performing functions that humans do not possess
C)the collection of microbes that benefit human society,providing services such as bioremediation and assisting in food production
D)the collection of microbes that share the same environmental requirements as humans
E)the collection of microbes that are necessary for human survival,such as photoautotrophs and nitrogen fixing bacteria
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24
Chapter 23: Plants
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Q1) Among the mammals,only some primates (including most humans)have color vision.What was the likely advantage that probably drove the evolution of primate color vision?
A)The ability to identify plants with medicinal value
B)The ability to find ripe fruit
C)The ability to enjoy the aesthetic value of flowers
D)The ability to prepare for winter as portended by autumn colors of leaves
E)The ability to identify grains most appropriate for domestication
Q2) The perianth of a flower consists of:
A)the pistil and stamens
B)the petals and sepals
C)the pedicel and receptacle
D)the anthers and stigma
E)the style and ovary
Q3) The function of nectar is:
A)provision of carbohydrates for the plant
B)attraction of pollinators
C)preservation of delicate flower parts
D)a sticky trap for parasitic insects
E)prevention of desiccation
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Chapter 24: Fungi
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Q1) You are presented with an organism that has not been identified previously.Which feature would identify it as a fungus?
A)flagella
B)cell wall
C)nonparasitic
D)absorptive nutrition
E)mycelia
Q2) Reproduction by asexual spores in fungi allows dispersal to a new location but doesn't facilitate invasion of new KINDS of habitats.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Place these fungal groups in the order in which they would appear on a cladogram. Start with the most ancestral group for #1, and end with the most derived group.
A) Zygomycetes
B) Basidiomycetes
C) Chytrids
D) Cryptomycota
E) AM fungi
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Chapter 25: Animal Diversity: Invertebrates
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Q1) The protrusible rasping organ in a mollusk's mouth that is used to scrape food from the substrate is
A)a veliger.
B)a visceral mass.
C)composed of nacre.
D)a radula.
E)an ammonitE.
Q2) Despite your best attempts to convince her otherwise,your friend is very afraid of spiders and all "bugs," which to her means insects.When you note that spiders are not insects,she claims they are the same thing.You finally convince her that spiders are not insects because,for one thing,spiders
A)lack an exoskeleton.
B)have a calcium-carbonate layer outside the exoskeleton.
C)are segmented.
D)have two body segments joined by a pedicel.
Q3) Although a medusa and a polyp look different,they have similar body plans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Animal Diversity: Vertebrates
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Q1) An organism has inherited a mutation that causes a loss of epidermal outgrowths.What do you predict would be the effect in this individual?
A)The organism would lack feathers or hair.
B)The organism would lack the lateral line system.
C)The organism would lack mesoderm.
D)The organism would lack skin glands.
Q2) Marsupials are distinguished by A)a marsupium.
B)mammary glands.
C)opposable thumbs.
D)nails.
Q3) What is a defining characteristic of members of the Class Testudines?
A)They lack limbs.
B)They have a hard shell.
C)They have a kinetic skull.
D)They have a four-chambered heart.
Q4) Hagfish are classified as vertebrates,but they do not have a vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: An Introduction to Flowering Plant Form and Function
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Q1) What is the closest parallel in animal structural levels of complexity to the branches,buds,flowers,seeds,and fruits of flowering plants?
A)subcellular,specialized organelles
B)bone cells,muscle cells,skin cells,nerve cells
C)muscle tissue,connective tissue,nervous tissue,epithelial tissue
D)heart,lungs,stomach,kidney,reproductive organs
E)digestive system,reproductive system,skeletal system
Q2) The root zone of maturation is immediately above the root apical meristem (RAM).
A)True
B)False
Q3) You and your lab partners are studying a plant and find a way to inactivate the SAM.If the plant is to continue living,it will have to find an alternate way to accomplish what essential plant function?
A)biochemical pathways of photosynthesis
B)movement of nutrients and water
C)collection of water from the soil
D)physical support of the upper plant structure
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Flowering Plants: Plant Behavior
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Q1) You are studying a plant with mutant,non-functional PIN proteins.Assuming this plant could otherwise develop normally,predict how you might expect this plant to respond to directional light.
A)The plant will bend toward the light.
B)The plant will bend away from the light.
C)The plant will not move in response to light.
D)The plant will move randomly.
Q2) Short-day plants are those that flower only when the night period of a plant is:
A)longer than a defined period
B)shorter than 12 hours
C)followed by short periods of light interruptions
D)less than that in summer
E)longer than 12 hours
Q3) Plants have been shown to elicit defense responses upon recognition of part of the bacterial flagella,a structure important for bacterial locomotion.The flagella is likely to be sensed by:
A)hormones.
B)the product of a resistance gene.
C)jasmonic acid.
D)elicitors.
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Chapter 29: Flowering Plants: Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Which of the following would you expect to be happening if a plant is showing water stress?
A)Abscisic acid is being transported to the guard cells.
B)Xylem is no longer functioning to carry water up the plant.
C)The phloem is transporting abscisic acid upward.
D)Blue light is influencing the guard cells.
E)All of these are correct.
Q2) Bulk flow in the phloem tissue is mostly downward whereas bulk flow in xylem is mostly:
A)sideways.
B)also downward.
C)very little bulk flow occurs in xylem.
D)flow of sugars.
E)upward.
Q3) Which of the following is the best answer for why plants require nitrogen?
A)To make chlorophyll
B)To make amino acids and nucleotides
C)To make cell walls
D)To make membranes
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Chapter 30: Flowering Plants: Reproduction
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Q1) Endosperm tissue arises by the fusion of a sperm nucleus with two nuclei of the:
A)male gametophyte.
B)female style.
C)ovule wall.
D)female egg.
E)female gametophyte central cell.
Q2) Male gametophytes are produced by which of the following processes?
A)Meiosis
B)Mitosis
C)Neither mitosis nor meiosis
D)Gametogenesis
E)Microsporophyte generation
Q3) A basic difference between self-pollination and cross-pollination is:
A)the method of pollen delivery.
B)whether insects are involved in pollination.
C)where the pollen came from.
D)whether the pollen germinateD.
E)how often pollination occurs.
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32
Chapter 31: Animal Bodies and Homeostasis
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Q1) Skeletal muscle is under voluntary control.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Your friend has a dog Rex that she feeds every night immediately after she gets up from the dinner table.You are dog-sitting one weekend and you decide to keep Rex at your house rather than leave him alone in hers.After you eat dinner and get up to clear the table,Rex starts salivating profusely and runs to his food bowl.Rex's behavior is an example of:
A)an automatic reflex.
B)a conditioned response.
C)an irrelevant response.
D)the anticipatory response.
E)permanent conditioning.
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the four tissue types?
A)Muscle
B)Nervous
C)Epithelial
D)Connective
E)Squamal
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Chapter 32: Neuroscience I: Structure, Function, and
Evolution of Nervous Systems
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Q1) The portion of the brain that has shown the most dramatic changes in size in the evolution of birds and mammals is the A)hindbrain.
B)midbrain.
C)forebrain.
D)cerebellum.
E)medulla oblongata.
Q2) The class of neurotransmitters that most commonly acts as a modulator of postsynaptic cell response are the A)biogenic amines.
B)amino acids.
C)acetylcholine.
D)neuropeptides.
E)gases such as nitric oxidE.
Q3) Action potentials are typically also characterized as graded potentials. A)True
B)False
Q4) Categorize each example as involving a ligand-gated ion channel or a voltage-gated ion channel.
34
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Chapter 33: Neuroscience II: Sensory Systems
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Q1) Where does perception of sensory stimuli occur?
A)in all receptors
B)in highly specialized receptors like hair cells
C)at synapses in the peripheral nervous system
D)only in the central nervous system
Q2) Our sense of "fullness" after a big meal is due to A)stretch receptors.
B)chemoreceptors.
C)thermoreceptors.
D)electromagnetic receptors.
Q3) In the avian and mammalian eye,the lens remains stationary but changes shape in order to focus on objects at various distances.This is called "accommodation" and is accomplished through adjusting muscle control of the lens in order to
A)alter the sensitivity of the eye to varying light levels.
B)bend light rays to varying degrees according to the angle at which light enters the eye.
C)regulate the vitreous humor volume.
D)control the amount of light admitted to the eye through the pupil.
E)convert light energy into electrical signals by the retina.
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Chapter 34: Muscular-Skeletal Systems
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Q1) Muscle cells are stimulated by acetylcholine released from the terminals of A)transverse tubules.
B)motor neuron axons.
C)sensory cell axons.
D)motor neuron dendrites.
E)sensory cell dendrites.
Q2) Imagine you have extracted myosin molecules from both fast and slow twitch muscle fibers and are measuring the rate at which these proteins hydrolyze ATP.What would these relative rates of ATP hydrolysis be?
A)fast twitch fiber > slow twitch fiber
B)slow twitch fiber > fast twitch fiber
C)slow twitch fiber = fast twitch fiber
Q3) What are some of the disadvantages to having an exoskeleton?
A)Vulnerability during molting
B)Bulkiness reduces ability to move
C)Vulnerability to dessication
D)Bulkiness makes animal heavy
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Chapter 35: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Q1) The glandular secretions involved in digestion that would most likely be released as inactive precursors are
A)protein-digesting enzymes
B)fat-solubilizing bile salts
C)acid-neutralizing bicarbonate
D)carbohydrate-digesting enzymes
Q2) Triglycerides do not need to be chemically altered or broken down to cross the intestinal epithelium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the stomach,food processing continues and secretions from stomach glands aid the initial digestion of A)carbohydrates.
B)lipids.
C)nucleic acids.
D)proteins.
E)vitamins.
Q4) All sugars are absorbed via secondary active transport. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Circulatory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) These are the only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart.
A)Amphibians
B)Birds
C)Fishes
D)Mammals
E)Reptiles
Q2) Imagine a red blood cell leaving the right ventricle of your heart.To which chamber of the heart will that cell return first?
A)right atrium
B)right ventricle
C)left atrium
D)left ventricle
E)impossible to say from information given
Q3) The walls of veins tend to be thicker and more elastic than those of comparably sized arteries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory pigment you would find in a blue crab or octopus is
A)hemocyanin.
B)hemoglobin.
C)hemophilin.
D)ferritin.
E)calmodulin.
Q2) What is the correct sequence of structures through which air passes through on the way into the mammalian lung?
A)pharynx \(\rarr\) larynx \(\rarr\) trachea \(\rarr\) bronchi \(\rarr\) bronchioles
\(\rarr\) alveoli
B)larynx \(\rarr\) pharynx \(\rarr\) trachea \(\rarr\) bronchi \(\rarr\) bronchioles \(\rarr\) alveoli
C)pharynx \(\rarr\) trachea\(\rarr\) larynx \(\rarr\) bronchi \(\rarr\) bronchioles \(\rarr\) alveoli
D)bronchi\(\rarr\) bronchioles \(\rarr\) pharynx \(\rarr\) larynx \(\rarr\) trachea \(\rarr\) alveoli
E)alveoli \(\rarr\) bronchioles\(\rarr\) bronchi \(\rarr\) trachea \(\rarr\) larynx \(\rarr\) pharynx
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Chapter 38: Excretory Systems and the Homeostasis of Internal Fluids
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Q1) What is the path of fluid as it is filtered from the blood and flows through the nephron?
A)Bowman's capsule \(\rarr\) proximal convoluted tubule \(\rarr\) loop of Henle \(\rarr\) distal convoluted tubule \(\rarr\) collecting duct
B)collecting duct\(\rarr\) Bowman's capsule \(\rarr\) proximal convoluted tubule \(\rarr\) loop of Henle \(\rarr\) distal convoluted tubule
C)Bowman's capsule \(\rarr\) loop of Henle \(\rarr\) proximal convoluted tubule \(\rarr\) distal convoluted tubule \(\rarr\) collecting duct
D)Bowman's capsule\(\rarr\) distal convoluted tubule \(\rarr\) loop of Henle \(\rarr\) proximal convoluted tubule \(\rarr\) collecting duct
E)collecting duct\(\rarr\) distal convoluted tubule \(\rarr\) loop of Henle \(\rarr\) proximal convoluted tubule \(\rarr\) Bowman's capsule
Q2) If you measured the urine concentration of a freshwater fish,you would find that it was more concentrated than its blood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Systems
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Q1) What hormone regulates milk production in mammals?
A)growth hormone
B)prolactin
C)thyroid-stimulating hormone
D)adrenocorticotropic hormone
E)luteinizing hormone
Q2) This hormone does not play a role in the female reproductive system.
A)estradiol
B)progesterone
C)gonadotropin-releasing hormone
D)follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones
E)insulin
Q3) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone regulates
A)follicle-stimulating hormone.
B)luteinizing hormone.
C)steroid production by the gonads.
D)both follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones.
E)both follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones as well as steroid production by the gonads.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms would most likely produce asexually?
A)a bird in an urban environment
B)a lizard in an equatorial desert
C)a mammal in a temperate forest
D)a worker honeybee
Q2) Across the lifespan of a human female,the number of primary oocytes peaks at the onset of puberty.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Maintenance of the uterine lining during pregnancy in mammals requires A)testosterone.
B)FSH.
C)LH.
D)progesterone.
Q4) The outcome of cleavage during embryonic development is the production of a A)blastulA.
B)gastrula.
C)neurula.
D)substantially larger embryo.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Immune Systems
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Q1) Specific immunity in the extracellular fluid is provide by mainly
A)IgG and IgM
B)IgM and IgD
C)IgA and IgE
D)IgD and IgA
E)IgE and IgG
Q2) The clonal selection theory implies that
A)related people have similar immune responses.
B)antigens activate specific lymphocytes.
C)only certain cells can produce interferon.
D)memory cells are present at birth.
E)the body selects which antigens it will respond to.
Q3) The three major types of pathogens are bacteria,viruses,and cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Helper T cells activate both B cells and cytotoxic T cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digger wasps orient using A)pheromones.
B)sight.
C)magnetic fields.
D)smell.
E)sound waves.
Q2) The main advantage of a territory is that it provides exclusive access to some resource.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a population of hawks and doves,the winner of a contest between two individuals earns +20 and the loser earns 0.The cost of injury is -80,while the cost of a display is -10.What is the average outcome in a dove versus dove contest?
Q4) In honeybees,if food is closer than 50 m,scouts
A)perform a waggle dance about the food's location.
B)perform a round dance about the food's proximity.
C)perform a round dance about predation risk.
D)look for other fooD.
E)do not perform a dancE.
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Chapter 43: Ecology and the Physical Environment
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Q1) The number of aquatic species increases in acidic waters.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sea heats and cools
A)more quickly than the land.
B)more slowly than the land.
C)at the same rate as the land.
Q3) How do corals react when water temperatures are too high?
A)They migrate to areas with lower water temperatures.
B)They slow down their shell-building processes.
C)They expel their symbiotic algae.
D)They reproduce in large numbers.
E)They produce more pigment.
Q4) What is most likely to be a common adaptation of coastal plants that grow on sand dunes?
A)deep roots to extract moisture.
B)broad leaves for enhanced photosynthesis.
C)ability to use blue-green light for photosynthesis.
D)increased transpiration of water.
E)elevated growth rates.
45
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Chapter 44: Population Ecology
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Q1) What is an example of a +/- interaction?
A)competition
B)mutualism
C)commensalism
D)predation
E)amensalism
Q2) Worldwide human population growth has been exponential since the Industrial Revolution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In competition between P.caudatum and P.bursaria,neither species goes extinct because they utilize different resources.This can be considered as evidence for
A)the extinction theory.
B)Batesian mimicry.
C)the coexistence hypothesis.
D)the competitive exclusion principle.
E)resource partitioning.
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Chapter 45: Community Ecology
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Q1) You discover a subterranean river in the outback of Australia and estimate that it is at least 50 million years old.You gather a crew of scientists to perform traditional species sampling of the river as well as modern techniques to calculate microbial diversity.The results indicate that the river is extremely diverse - you even get to name a new species of shrimp after yourself! During one of your many interviews,you are asked to explain the high diversity of the subterranean river.What hypothesis would you most likely cite?
A)The time hypothesis.
B)The area hypothesis.
C)The productivity hypothesis.
D)The diversity-stability hypothesis.
Q2) The time hypothesis suggests communities diversify with age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The moraines left when glaciers retreat are characterized by A)year-round ice.
B)low nitrogen content and little organic matter.
C)rich,fertile soil.
D)high levels of nitrogen,phosphate and carbon.
E)dense thickets of alders.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) Ammonification is the conversion of ________ to NH<sub>3</sub> and NH<sub>4</sub>.
A)living plant matter
B)nitrate
C)inorganic nitrogen
D)nitrite
E)organic nitrogen
Q2) The process by which soil bacteria convert NH<sub>3</sub> or NH<sub>4</sub> to nitrate (NO<sub>3-</sub>)is called
A)assimilation.
B)denitrification.
C)fixation.
D)nitrification.
E)ammonification.
Q3) Most of the Earth's phosphorus is trapped in sedimentary rocks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Zooplankton are heterotrophs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Q1) SLOSS stands for single long or several short.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a series of field experiments,David Tilman and colleagues investigated biodiversity and ecosystem function.They found a relationship between
A)ecosystem diversity and species richness.
B)ecosystem diversity and genetic diversity.
C)species diversity and genetic diversity.
D)species diversity and ecosystem function.
Q3) The biodiversity crisis refers to
A)an area in the tropics where extinction rates are high.
B)the global elevated loss of species over the last several hundred years.
C)recent extinctions due to human-induced climate change.
D)the difficulty in restoring disturbed habitats.
Q4) Captive breeding could potentially save all rare species.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The United States contains at least one biodiversity hot spot.
A)True
B)False
49
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