Course Introduction
General Biology
Final Test Solutions
General Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of life science, covering the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. The course examines the principles underlying biological processes, including the molecular basis of life, energy transformations, and the mechanisms of heredity and adaptation. Through lectures, laboratory investigations, and discussions, students will develop an understanding of how living systems interact with each other and their environments, laying a strong foundation for advanced studies in biology and related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology 6th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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1538 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Biology Today
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Q1) Which domain(s)consist(s)of prokaryotic cells?
A)Bacteria only
B)Eukarya only
C)Archaea and Eukarya
D)Bacteria and Archaea
Answer: D
Q2) Which of these would be a valid scientific hypothesis?
A)Human history is determined by a series of supernatural events.
B)Humans should help in the conservation of other animal species.
C)Humans are controlled by forces beyond our understanding.
D)Humans and bacteria share a common genetic code.
Answer: D
Q3) How do hypotheses differ from theories?
A)Theories are more comprehensive than hypotheses.
B)Theories must be testable; hypotheses do not need to be testable.
C)Hypotheses are educated guesses,and theories are tentative explanations.
D)Hypotheses are derived from experimentation,whereas theories are derived from observation.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Essential Chemistry for Biology
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Q1) Why is water considered a polar molecule?
A)The oxygen atom is found between the two hydrogen atoms.
B)The oxygen atom attracts the hydrogen atoms.
C)The oxygen end of the molecule has a slight negative charge,and the hydrogen end has a slight positive charge.
D)Both hydrogen atoms are at one end of the molecule,and the oxygen atom is at the other end.
Answer: C
Q2) An atom with an electrical charge is a(n)________.
A)isotope
B)molecule
C)ion
D)compound
Answer: C
Q3) ________ is an example of an element.
A)Water
B)Carbon
C)Glucose
D)Salt
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What name is given to the following reaction? sucrose + water glucose + fructose
A)hydrogenation
B)hydrolysis
C)glycolysis
D)dehydration
Answer: B
Q2) How does RNA differ from DNA?
A)RNA is double-stranded; DNA is single-stranded.
B)RNA is a polymer of amino acids; DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.
C)RNA contains uracil; DNA contains thymine.
D)In RNA G pairs with T; in DNA G pairs with C.
Answer: C
Q3) By definition,what type of fatty acid has double bonds?
A)steroid
B)triglyceride
C)unsaturated
D)saturated
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of mitochondria that suggests that they might have evolved from free-living bacteria?
A)Mitochondria have cell walls.
B)The plasma membrane of a mitochondrion,forming the surface of this organelle,is the site of many important steps of cellular respiration.
C)Mitochondria have their own DNA.
D)Mitochondria rely upon proteins as their source of energy.
Q2) Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?
A)digestion of organic matter inside the cell
B)protein modification
C)drug detoxification
D)cell respiration
Q3) Functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum include ________.
A)steroid synthesis,protein synthesis,and drug detoxification
B)lipid synthesis,protein synthesis,and drug detoxification
C)lipid synthesis,steroid synthesis,and drug detoxification
D)lipid synthesis,steroid synthesis,and storage of genetic information
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Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Q1) An enzyme's function is most dependent on its ________.
A)pH
B)temperature
C)shape
D)size
Q2) Which component of the following reaction is the enzyme? sucrose + sucrase + water sucrase + glucose + fructose
A)sucrose
B)sucrase
C)glucose
D)fructose
Q3) Substances that plug up an enzyme's active site are ________.
A)enzyme substrates
B)enzyme inhibitors
C)enzyme catalysts
D)enzyme products
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Chapter 6: Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy From Food
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Q1) What compound directly provides energy for cellular work?
A)C H O
B)glucose
C)ATP
D)fat
Q2) Plant cells ________.
A)do not need chloroplasts because their mitochondria meet their energy needs
B)have chloroplasts and mitochondria
C)use carbon dioxide but do not use oxygen
D)do not need mitochondria because their chloroplasts meet their energy needs
Q3) A process is referred to as aerobic if it requires ________.
A)oxygen
B)carbon dioxide
C)ATP
D)carbohydrates
Q4) Photosynthetic organisms like grass are able to ________.
A)make all of their organic matter from organic molecules in the soil.
B)use water they take in through their leaves as a final electron acceptor.
C)change the light energy from sunlight into sugars
D)use substances in the air as a major source of carbon.
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Q1) If the interior of the thylakoid were not a sealed compartment ________.
A)There would be no location for the electron transport chain
B)Light would not be able to reach the photosystems
C)Water could not be split
D)The proton gradient could not be maintained
Q2) The Calvin cycle is sometimes called the "dark reactions." Could it take place if a plant were grown in the dark continuously?
A)No,because plants cannot take in CO without sunlight.
B)No,because sunlight is needed to split water to provide NADH.
C)Yes,because taking in carbon dioxide,the only outside input to the Calvin cycle,does not need sunlight.
D)Yes,because plants have stored materials in their roots which can provide what the Calvin cycle needs.
Q3) The products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are ________.
A)ATP and NADH
B)ATP and NADPH
C)RuBP and O
D)ATP and NADP
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9
Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells From Cells
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Q1) The mitotic cell cycle results in the production of ________.
A)four cells,each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
B)two cells,each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
C)two cells,each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
D)four cells,each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
Q2) This diagram of the human life cycle shows that ________.
A)meiosis produces a diploid zygote
B)meiosis produces haploid sperm and egg cells
C)fertilization produces a haploid zygote
D)a diploid zygote undergoes meiosis to produce an adult human
Q3) Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ________.
A)independent assortment of chromosomes
B)crossing over
C)nondisjunction
D)random fertilization
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) In humans,the inheritance of ________ is best explained as being polygenic.
A)cystic fibrosis
B)height
C)blood type
D)sickle-cell disease
Q2) What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?
A)locus
B)phenotype
C)genotype
D)allele
Q3) What is the key to the recognition of codominance?
A)The phenotype of the heterozygote is intermediate between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.
B)The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.
C)The alleles affect more than one trait.
D)The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.
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Chapter 10: The Structure and Function of Dna
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Q1) The shared genetic code of all life on Earth is evidence that ________.
A)the genetic code arose relatively late in the history of life on Earth
B)DNA replication is error-free
C)all life shares a common ancestry
D)bacterial cells arose earlier than eukaryotic cells
Q2) A(n)________ is to bacteria as a ________ is to animal cells.
A)retrovirus...virus
B)phage...prophage
C)prophage...provirus
D)RNA virus...DNA virus
Q3) What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism?
A)genome
B)genotype
C)phenotype
D)genetic code
Q4) DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ________ monomers.
A)nucleotide
B)carbohydrate
C)fatty acid
D)amino acid
12
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Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Q1) What is a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells?
A)The use of embryonic stem cells raises fewer ethical issues than the use of adult stem cells.
B)Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated; adult stem cells are partially differentiated.
C)It is easier to obtain embryonic stem cells.
D)Adult stem cells are easier to grow in culture.
Q2) What would be the best experiment to do next to determine if complete hexokinase gene expression is temperature dependent?
A)Measure the amount of hexokinase mRNA in cells at different temperatures.
B)Measure the rate of transcription of the hexokinase gene in cells at different temperatures.
C)Measure the amount of mRNA that is broken down in cells at different temperatures.
D)Measure the amount of hexokinase protein in cells at different temperatures.
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13
Chapter 12: DNA Technology
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Q1) In human gene therapy ________.
A)normal versions of genes are transferred to patients who carry a mutated allele
B)harmless bacteria make important proteins for humans that cannot produce these proteins on their own
C)bacterial plasmids are used to transfer genes to human patients
D)genetically engineered alleles,usually from other species,replace mutated alleles
Q2) Cutting DNA with a particular restriction enzyme produces DNA fragments that can be separated by ________.
A)gel electrophoresis
B)enzymes
C)recombinant DNA
D)plasmids
Q3) "Sticky ends" are produced as a result of the action of ________.
A)PCR
B)DNA ligase
C)restriction enzymes
D)bacterial plasmids
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Page 14
Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Q1) Some biologists urge the collection of the few remaining individuals of some of the most threatened amphibian species in order to preserve them if they become extinct in the wild.If such captive-breeding programs could produce thousands of individuals from just a few of the remaining survivors,the species will still be threatened because of
A)a bottleneck effect
B)directional selection
C)mutations
D)artificial selection
Q2) After surviving a bottleneck,a population recovers to the point where it consists of as many individuals as it did prior to the bottleneck.Which of the following statements is most likely to apply to this population?
A)The postbottleneck population exhibits less genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.
B)The bottleneck subjected the population to stabilizing selection.
C)The postbottleneck population has less of a chance of going extinct than did the prebottleneck population.
D)The postbottleneck population exhibits more genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: How Biological Diversity Evolves
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Q1) Analogous structures are evidence of ________.
A)common ancestry
B)divergent evolution
C)stabilizing selection
D)convergent evolution
Q2) Based on the independent and dependent variables represented in the figure and the information you have about common geographic habitats as well as anatomical and gametic compatibility of the four frog species,you initially conclude that reproductive barriers may be due to ________.
A)habitat isolation
B)mechanical isolation
C)temporal isolation
D)gametic isolation
Q3) When brought together in a zoo,two species are capable of mating and producing fertile offspring.Why may they still be considered two distinct species?
A)Wild populations of the two species have different geographic distributions.
B)In the wild,members of one species prey upon members of the other species.
C)Zoos are not natural environments.
D)The two species look very different.
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Chapter 15: The Evolution of Microbial Life
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Q1) What addition to methodology would be most beneficial to the study?
A)pre-flood data to compare to post-flood data in order to better compare endotoxin levels
B)a greater number of scientists conducting tests so that different testing methods can be used at each site
C)tests conducted on soil endotoxins to compare to air endotoxin levels
D)tests conducted on bacterial exotoxins in New York City
Q2) If you were to view this organism with the right microscope you could see that the entire stalk is covered with smaller hairs than the ones on the opening.What might be the function of these smaller hairs on the stalk?
A)camouflage
B)movement
C)aerobic respiration
D)spore production
Q3) Which of the following is a colonial form of green algae?
A)Volvox
B)Giardia
C)Paramecium
D)Plasmodium
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Evolution of Plants and Fungi
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Q1) Suppose that,while on a forest hike,you notice a blue fungus and a pink plant growing along the hiking trail.As you continue walking,you observe that if a blue fungus and a pink plant are growing side by side,they are both much larger than if the fungus and the plant are farther apart.What can you hypothesize about the relationship between the fungus and the plant?
A)The fungus and the plant have a symbiotic relationship that allows them to have more significant growth when they are near each other than when farther apart.
B)The fungus and the plant have a parasitic relationship that allows them to have more significant growth when they are near each other than when farther apart.
C)The roots of the plant are choking off nutrient flow to the fungal hyphae.
D)The plant is helping the fungus decompose leaf litter on the forest floor.
Q2) Why are gymnosperms considered to be "naked seed" plants?
A)Their seeds have a thin layer of endosperm.
B)They do not produce seeds; they produce only spores.
C)Their seeds are not enclosed within ovaries.
D)Their seeds develop on the surface of sporophytes.
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Chapter 17: The Evolution of Animals
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Q1) Humans are chordates.Which animal group is most closely related to chordates?
A)molluscs
B)echinoderms
C)annelids
D)arthropods
Q2) Which of these is a defining characteristic of animals that distinguishes them from other eukaryotes?
A)Animals are multicellular.
B)Animals ingest food.
C)Animals are heterotrophs.
D)Animals use photosynthesis.
Q3) What is the greatest threat to birds today?
A)pollution
B)poaching
C)habitat loss
D)the illegal pet trade
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Chapter 18: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Which of these is a community?
A)all of the Staphylococcus aureus (a species of bacteria living on your skin
B)all of the organisms living in your home
C)all of the people living in your neighborhood
D)all of the nut grass (considered a weed)in your backyard
Q2) In an aquatic ecosystem,what name is given to the region where photosynthesis can occur?
A)pelagic zone
B)aphotic zone
C)benthic realm
D)photic zone
Q3) Temperature increases due to global warming have been greatest ________.
A)close to the poles
B)in the sea
C)in the tropics
D)in deserts
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Chapter 19: Population Ecology
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Q1) Kudzu,an Asian vine introduced to the United States in the 1930s as a means to control erosion,is referred to as "the plant that ate the South" because it grows so fast and overtakes most plant species in its path.A recent and unusual way that some people are using to control kudzu growth is to allow goats to graze their land and eat the kudzu,roots and all.This is considered by some to be the most environment-friendly way to eliminate this invasive vine.How can we best describe the goats in this situation?
A)a threatened species
B)an invasive species
C)a biological control agent
D)an integrated pest management agent
Q2) What will be the approximate shape of the age-structure diagram of a rapidly increasing population?
A)a rectangle
B)a pyramid
C)an inverted pyramid
D)an hourglass
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Chapter 20: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) The present rate of species loss ________.
A)suggests that about 25% of all plant and animal species may be extinct by the end of the century
B)is about the same as it has been during the last 100,000 years
C)is as much as 100 times higher than at any time in the last 100,000 years
D)is slower than in recent years because of conservation efforts
Q2) Besides the atmosphere,abiotic reservoirs of carbon dioxide include ________.
A)fossil fuels and dissolved carbon compounds in the oceans
B)rocks and dissolved carbon compounds in the oceans
C)fossil fuels only
D)rocks only
Q3) Which of these convert organic matter to inorganic matter by breaking down dead organisms?
A)producers
B)detritivores
C)decomposers
D)primary consumers
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22
Chapter 21: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Q1) If a person is suffering from heat stroke,which organ system is failing?
A)skeletal system
B)digestive system
C)nervous system
D)circulatory system
Q2) Which type of tissue forms an electrical communication system within the body?
A)nervous
B)blood
C)connective
D)muscle
Q3) Bone is a type of ________.
A)connective tissue
B)epithelial tissue
C)extracellular matrix
D)adipose tissue
Q4) Which of the following is TRUE of a typical skeletal muscle?
A)It is found in the walls of organs such as the digestive tract.
B)Its fibers do not have a striped appearance under the microscope.
C)It can be enlarged by exercise.
D)It is only found in heart tissue.
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) Your metabolic rate depends on ________. I)your age
II)your activity levels
III)genetics
A)I only
B)I and II,but not III
C)II only
D)I,II,and III
Q2) What is the main digestive function of the pancreas?
A)It produces digestive enzymes and bile.
B)It produces bile.
C)It produces digestive enzymes and neutralizes stomach acids.
D)It secretes mucus into the small intestine.
Q3) Humans need food in order to obtain ________. I)essential nutrients
II)fuel to power all body activities
III)organic raw materials to make their own molecules
A)I only
B)I and II,but not III
C)II only
D)I,II,and III
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Circulation and Respiration
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Q1) Which one of the following is a characteristic of open circulatory systems but NOT closed circulatory systems?
A)a heart
B)a vascular system
C)blood
D)open-ended blood vessels
Q2) Cigarette smoking ________.
A)is responsible for about one in five deaths of Americans every year
B)accounts for 80-90% of all cases of lung cancer
C)can affect the health of nonsmokers through secondhand smoke
D)all of the above
Q3) If you separated the components of blood and looked closely at only the plasma,you might find ________.
A)white blood cells
B)red blood cells
C)hormones
D)platelets
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Chapter 24: The Bodys Defenses
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Q1) The primary immune response ________.
A)results in the production of short-lived effector cells via clonal selection
B)results in the production of short-lived memory cells via clonal selection
C)peaks about 2 days after first exposure
D)triggers the secondary immune response
Q2) One function of antibodies is to ________.
A)deactivate defensive proteins
B)stimulate the production of antigens
C)phagocytose invading bacteria
D)clump invader cells
Q3) Which of the following cell types initiates a secondary immune response?
A)natural killer cells
B)memory cells
C)effector cells
D)plasma cells
Q4) Which of the following is a response of our innate defense system?
A)adaptive immunity
B)inflammation
C)cytotoxic T cell response
D)helper T cell response
26
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Chapter 25: Hormones
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Q1) What is the metabolic abnormality that underlies the characteristic symptoms of diabetes mellitus,such as frequent urination?
A)a failure of the kidney tubules to reabsorb enough glucose from the urine
B)a failure of the gastrointestinal epithelium to absorb enough glucose from food
C)an inability of the body's cells to retain glucose they have absorbed from the blood
D)an inability of the body's cells to absorb enough glucose from the blood
Q2) Which of the following glands secretes hormones that enable the body to respond to stress?
A)pancreas
B)adrenal
C)pineal
D)parathyroid
Q3) Which of the following hormones affects the greatest variety of cell types?
A)prolactin
B)insulin
C)growth hormone
D)calcitonin
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Hermaphrodites ________.
A)possess both male and female reproductive systems
B)have the gonads of one sex but the external appearance of the other
C)usually fertilize themselves
D)have abnormal reproductive systems
Q2) Which of these describes the best experimental design to test the idea that scrotal temperature is less with boxers than with briefs?
A)Take an equal number of men wearing boxers and men wearing briefs and have them go into a clinic and have their scrotal temperatures measured.
B)Recruit a number of men of approximately the same age and have some put on boxers and some put on briefs and then measure their scrotal temperatures.
C)Recruit a number of men of approximately the same age with half wearing boxers and half wearing briefs.Have them spend time in a room of the same constant temperature and then measure their scrotal temperatures.
D)Take the first 100 men who come into a fertility clinic,record who are wearing boxers and who are wearing briefs,and then measure their scrotal temperatures.
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28
Chapter 27: Nervous,Sensory,and Locomotor Systems
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Q1) Where would we expect to find electrical synapses?
A)within the brain
B)within the heart
C)within the spinal cord
D)between interneurons and motor neurons
Q2) The two major divisions of the nervous system are the ________.
A)sympathetic and parasympathetic
B)central nervous system (CNS)and peripheral nervous system (PNS)
C)sensory and motor
D)voluntary and involuntary
Q3) If you lay your forearm along the table,you can rotate it so that your hand changes from a palm-down to a palm-up position.This is possible because your radius and ulna join at a ________ joint.
A)ball-and-socket
B)hinge
C)pivot
D)twist
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Chapter 28: The Life of a Flowering Plant
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the condition in which the terminal bud of many plants produces hormones that inhibit growth of axillary buds?
A)biennial
B)secondary growth
C)apical dominance
D)germination
Q2) In which structure do pollen grains develop?
A)stamen
B)sepal
C)filament
D)anther
Q3) Which of the following products used by humans sometimes comes from plants?
A)fuel,only
B)clothing,only
C)food,only
D)fuel,clothing,and food
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Chapter 29: The Working Plant
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Q1) Which of the following best describe(s)the dependencies of most flowering plants?
I)Many depend on insects or other animals for pollination.
II)Many depend on insects or other animals for seed dispersal.
III)Many depend on fungi to help them acquire nutrients.
A)I
B)II
C)I and III
D)I,II,and III
Q2) Which of the following hormones promotes seed germination?
A)auxin
B)ethylene
C)gibberellin
D)abscisic acid
Q3) Which of the following hormones promotes cell elongation in stems?
A)auxin
B)cytokinin
C)ethylene
D)gibberellin
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