General Biology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
General Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of biology, including the structure and function of cells, genetics and heredity, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Students explore the molecular basis of life, energy flow, and the interactions among organisms and their environments. Through lectures, laboratory work, and critical analysis, this course fosters an understanding of the processes governing life and prepares students for advanced study in biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Inquiry into Life 14th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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Chapter 1: The Study of Life
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Q1) Organs are composed of tissues,which are composed of cells.This is an example of which characteristic of life?
A) Living things grow and develop.
B) Living things respond to stimuli.
C) Living things maintain themselves by homeostasis.
D) Living things have levels of hierarchical organization.
E) Living things are adapted to the environment.
Answer: D
Q2) What is the correct format for the binomial name of human beings?
A) Homo Sapiens
B) homo Sapiens
C) homo sapiens
D) Homo sapiens
E) Sapiens homo
Answer: D
Q3) If the human population faces potential extinction,cloning of humans is the only technology that will save us.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Molecules of Cells
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Q1) Which type of bond formation is responsible for the properties of water?
A) hydrogen
B) polar covalent
C) ionic
D) nonpolar covalent
E) None of these bonds play a role in the properties of water.
Answer: A
Q2) The _____ structure of a protein consists of the sequence of the amino acids joined together by peptide bonds.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) molecular
Answer: A
Q3) Briefly describe how ATP is broken down and turned into ADP.
Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following: The last two phosphate bonds in ATP are unstable and easily broken.The terminal phosphate bond is hydrolyzed leaving ADP and an inorganic phosphate.Energy is released when the phosphate is broken off.
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) The body of a slime mold that flows over a rotten log appears to lack any partitioning into distinct cells; however it does become cellular when it changes form and produces spores.The surfaces of parasitic flatworms and some insect tissues are "syncytial" layers of living material that have many nuclei but lack partitioning by cell membranes.These tissues actively consume food and produce wastes.Considering that the cell theory states that "all living things are composed of cells," then
A) these tissues are not living because they violate the cell theory.
B) this proves some vital force is involved beyond normal cell structures in order to give life to living organisms.
C) these tissues are obviously a bridge between nonliving and primitive living cells.
D) the general concept of life-is-cellular still holds since sometime in their life these organisms still utilize cells, but this shows cell membranes can be abandoned.
E) this demonstrates that cell membranes are a necessity to be classified as a living cell.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) In certain cancerous cells,the cell divides continuously even in the absence of a growth factor (signaling molecule)that indicates the cell should divide.Which of the following could NOT explain this?
A) a receptor molecule that is always turned off
B) a receptor molecule that is always activated
C) a transduction pathway that is always turned on
D) a target protein that is always activated
E) a gene for cell division that is expressed when it should not be
Q2) The pressure that is generated when water flows through a differentially permeable membrane is termed
A) osmotic pressure.
B) turgor pressure.
C) plasmolysis.
D) crenation.
E) tonicity.
Q3) List the three types of intercelluar junctions found in animal cells and indicate their function.
Q4) Exocytosis and endocytosis are carried out by proteins in the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Q1) A basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that in oogenesis
A) four functional eggs are produced.
B) mitosis instead of meiosis occurs.
C) both sperm and egg are produced.
D) one functional egg is produced.
E) the chromosome number is not divided in half.
Q2) The chromatids are held together at a region called the centromere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Centrioles are absolutely necessary to the process of mitosis in all organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Following a cut or scrape,which process repairs your skin?
A) meiosis
B) meiosis and mitosis
C) mitosis
D) mitosis and apoptosis
E) apoptosis
Q5) List in order the stages of the cell cycle.
Q6) Describe the checkpoints for the cell cycle.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes
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Q1) In feedback inhibition of a metabolic pathway,where does the inhibitor bind?
A) to the substrate of the first reaction
B) to the product of the first reaction
C) to the enzyme of the first reaction
D) to the enzyme of the last reaction
E) to a substrate or the product of the last reaction
Q2) ATP contains
A) an adenine base and one phosphate group.
B) an adenine base and two phosphate groups.
C) an adenine base and three phosphate groups.
D) an adenine base, a ribose sugar, and two phosphate groups.
E) an adenine base, a ribose sugar, and 3 phosphate groups.
Q3) Explain the difference between an endergonic and an exergonic reaction?
Q4) Less energy is needed to bring about a reaction when an enzyme is present.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the factors that will cause a protein to become denatured and what will occur structurally to the protein when it is denatured.
Q6) Define the first law of thermodynamics.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Cellular Respiration
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Q1) List,in order,the stages of aerobic cellular respiration and indicate where they occur in the cell.
Q2) Which pathway in cellular respiration will produce ATP,NADH<sub>2</sub>,and carbon dioxide?
A) glycolysis
B) preparation reaction
C) citric acid cycle
D) electron transport chain
E) photosynthesis
Q3) If we developed a molecule that blocked the ATP channel protein,what would be the first immediate effect?
A) accumulation of ATP in the mitochondrial matrix
B) accumulation of NADH in the mitochondrial matrix
C) no energy to pump hydrogen ions into the intermembrane space of a mitochondrion
D) reversal of the hydrogen ion gradient
E) immediate blockage of the cytochrome molecules
Q4) Write out the overall equation for cellular respiration.
Q5) List the inputs and outputs of glycolysis.
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Chapter 8: Photosynthesis
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Q1) How many total carbons are involved in carbon dioxide fixation with 3 molecules of carbon dioxide and 3 molecules of RuBP?
A) 6
B) 12
C) 18
D) 24
E) 30
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A) During cellular respiration, carbohydrate energy is converted into ATP.
B) During cellular respiration, mitochondria release carbon dioxide.
C) During photosynthesis, energy from the sun is used to form carbohydrates.
D) During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is used.
E) During photosynthesis, oxygen is used.
Q3) Photosystem I comes before Photosystem II in the noncyclic electron pathway.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the process of photosynthesis,the light reactions follow the Calvin cycle reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Plant Organization
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Q1) Girdling a tree involves cutting a deep groove all the way around a tree trunk; it would have the effect of
A) triggering additional auxin production and increasing leaf growth.
B) increasing the input of carbon dioxide and increasing photosynthesis.
C) interrupting the flow of minerals and stunting the growth of the tree.
D) interrupting the passage of phloem sap and killing the tree.
E) interrupting the passage of water and killing the tree.
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the arrangement of tissue in the eudicot root?
A) The epidermis of the root consists of a single layer of cells.
B) The specialized root tissues can be seen at the zone of maturation.
C) The pericycle is the outer layer of cells in the vascular cylinder and has the ability to form secondary or branch roots.
D) The Casparian strip is a waxy lining on four sides of the cells of the endodermis that regulates the movement of materials into and out of the vascular cylinder.
E) The star-shaped phloem is located in the center of the vascular cylinder, with xylem arranged between the arms of the phloem.
Q3) Explain the difference between stolons and rhizomes.
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Chapter 10: Plant Reproduction and Responses
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Q1) You are examining a seed with tiny white plumes attached to it.How is this type of seed most likely dispersed?
A) by animals who eat it
B) by floating on water
C) by the wind
D) by attaching to the fur of animals
E) by bursting forth from the seed pod
Q2) A pea is actually a seed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true concerning plant tissue culture?
A) New plants can be cultivated from any existing plant cell.
B) Most plant cells are totipotent, meaning an entire plant can be produced from one cell.
C) Hormones can be used to cause the production of shoots from tissue.
D) Plants can be produced from shoot tips, leaves, and anthers.
E) Foreign genes such as those from other plants or even animals can be inserted into plant cells.
Q4) Describe the function of the following plant structures: petals,stamens,and carpel.
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Chapter 11: Human Organization
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Q1) The disruption of homeostaisis can lead to what type of disease that can be life-threatening,but usually occurs and is resolved quickly?
A) chronic
B) systemic
C) acute
D) localized
E) simple
Q2) What is the name of the cavity that contains the bone cells themselves?
A) osteons
B) fibrocartilage
C) lacunae
D) central canals
E) adipose
Q3) Epithelial tissue can be modified to A) store fat.
B) perform absorption.
C) receive stimuli.
D) move body parts.
E) carry impulses.
Q4) List the four major tissue types found in the human body.
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Artery" and "vein" are defined by whether they leave or enter the heart.If they were defined by whether they carried oxygenated or deoxygenated blood,we would have to change the name(s)of
A) the hepatic portal vein to a hepatic portal artery.
B) the hepatic and renal systems (they would have to be switched).
C) the pulmonary artery and vein (they would have to be switched).
D) the coronary artery and vein (they would have to be switched).
E) the aorta and vena cava.
Q2) Which of these is NOT true of the heart?
A) The heart is a double pump.
B) The heart helps maintain blood pressure.
C) The heart helps make red blood cells.
D) The heart is composed primarily of muscle.
E) The heart has an inner lining of endothelium.
Q3) Which statement is NOT true about neutrophils?
A) They are phagocytic.
B) They have a multilobed nucleus.
C) They are agranular leukocytes.
D) They do not produce antibodies.
E) They are the most abundant white blood cell.
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Chapter 13: Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) Elephantiasis is a tropical disease where small nematode larvae block the lymphatic ducts.As a result,the legs become large like those of an elephant and the scrotum and arms may also swell.This problem would be a severe form of
A) hemorrhoids.
B) phlebitis.
C) anemia.
D) angina.
E) edema.
Q2) Inflammation does not involve
A) phagocytes.
B) neutrophils.
C) mast cells.
D) macrophages.
E) B cells.
Q3) Adaptive immunity depends upon the activity of what type of cells?
A) natural killer cells and B cells
B) natural killer cells and T cells
C) neutrophils and B cells
D) neutrophils and T cells
E) B cells and T cells
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Chapter 14: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following human digestive enzymes is incorrectly matched to its substrate?
A) pepsin-protein
B) trypsin-nucleic acid
C) salivary amylase-starch
D) lipase-fat
E) maltase-maltose
Q2) The pH of the stomach is usually about
A) 2.0.
B) 4.0.
C) 7.0.
D) 9.0.
E) 11.0.
Q3) In order for fats to be digested into fatty acids and glycerol efficiently
A) the pH must be around 2 and pepsin must be activated.
B) pancreatic juice must be secreted and pepsin must be activated.
C) bile must be present and the pH must be around 2.
D) the pH must be around 2 and pancreatic juice must be secreted.
E) pancreatic juice must be secreted and bile must be present.
Q4) List the seven functions of the liver.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Respiratory System
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Q1) Which portion of the respiratory tract is commonly referred to as the "throat"?
A) pharynx
B) larynx
C) glottis
D) trachea
E) epiglottis
Q2) The type of respiration in which gases are exchanged between the blood and tissue fluid is termed
A) breathing.
B) external respiration.
C) internal respiration.
D) cellular respiration.
E) inspiration.
Q3) After the trachea,what is the next structure the air passes through?
A) bronchi
B) alveolus
C) larynx
D) pharynx
E) bronchioles
Q4) List and describe the three major functions of the respiratory system.
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Chapter 16: Urinary System and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urinary tract infections that involve the bladder are called A) urethritis.
B) kidneyitis.
C) cystitis.
D) nephritis.
E) prostatitis.
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about ADH?
A) It increases the permeability of the collecting duct.
B) ADH increases water reabsorption.
C) ADH decreases urine volume.
D) It is secreted by the adrenal gland.
E) Hot sweaty days will cause more ADH release.
Q3) The overall effect of renin release will be to
A) lower blood pressure.
B) lower blood volume.
C) convert angiotensin II into angiotensin I.
D) inhibit aldosterone secretion.
E) increase blood pressure for homeostasis.
Q4) List,in order,the structures of the nephron that will be involved in the formation of urine.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is not part of the brain?
A) the cerebrum
B) the diencephalon
C) the cerebellum
D) the brain stem
E) the meninges
Q2) A stroke results from a disruption of the blood supply to the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One group of neurotransmitters retards heart rate,promotes digestion,contracts the eye pupil,etc.The other group has the opposite effect.These drugs are affecting the A) motor and sensory nerves.
B) cerebrum and cerebellum, respectively.
C) central and peripheral nervous systems.
D) neurostimulatory and neuroinhibitory synapses.
E) sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Q4) The brains of Alzheimer disease patients show no abnormalities post-mortem.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Senses
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Q1) You go to the doctor because you have been experiencing dizziness.Where does the doctor look first?
A) in your ears
B) in your mouth
C) in your eyes
D) in your nose
E) at your skin
Q2) What is the greatest benefit of having three semicircular canals involved in detecting rotational equilibrium?
A) It allows for one to be in each dimension of space.
B) It increases the surface area for detection of direction.
C) It provides backups in case one gets damaged.
D) It can process information faster.
E) It produces larger volumes of calcium carbonate.
Q3) If you did not have hair within your inner ear,you would not be able to hear.
A)True B)False
Q4) The tongue contains approximately a million taste buds. A)True B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Which of the following criteria is not used in the naming of muscles?
A) size
B) shape
C) location
D) name(s) of the bone(s) it attaches to
E) number of attachments
Q2) The radius bone in Figure 19.1 is the bone labeled
A) b.
B) a.
C) c.
D) d.
E) e.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a correct association?
A) fibrocartilage-thick collagen fibers
B) elastic cartilage-flexible ear flaps
C) hyaline cartilage-larynx and trachea
D) articular cartilage-a type of elastic cartilage
E) hyaline cartilage-appears uniform and glassy
Q4) Describe the six characteristics used to name skeletal muscles.
Q5) List the three types of cartilage and give a location of each type.
21
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Chapter 20: Endocrine System
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Q1) When Lauren reached the age of puberty,she did not undergo the expected changes.Today,at 17,she has still not undergone puberty.What endocrine gland could be the issue?
A) posterior pituitary
B) parathyroid
C) thymus
D) pancreas
E) adrenal cortex
Q2) Which of the following glands has both an endocrine and an exocrine function?
A) mammary gland
B) pancreas
C) pituitary
D) adrenal gland
E) thyroid gland
Q3) A hormone that acts on the hypothalamus to signal satiety is
A) melatonin.
B) thymosin.
C) leptin.
D) growth hormone.
E) prostaglandins.
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Chapter 21: Reproductive System
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Q1) If a person believes that they have contracted a STD taking antibiotics may or may not cure them.Antibiotics would be useless against which of the following STDs?
A) genital herpes
B) chlamydia
C) gonorrhea
D) syphilis
E) all of these can be cured with antibiotics
Q2) After ovulation,the ruptured follicle
A) disappears and all of its cells disintegrate.
B) passes on as waste material down the oviduct with the egg.
C) mends itself and begins the maturation of another egg.
D) becomes a part of the epithelial covering of the ovary.
E) differentiates into the corpus luteum.
Q3) Another name for the oviduct is the
A) uterus.
B) urethra.
C) cervix.
D) fallopian tube.
E) ureter.
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Chapter 22: Development and Aging
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Q1) The placenta develops from
A) fetal membranes only.
B) maternal tissue only.
C) both fetal and maternal tissue.
D) separate polar bodies that develop just the placental tissues.
E) from the yolk sac.
Q2) The neural tube of vertebrates develops during morphogenesis of the nervous system by the
A) folding of ectoderm tissue.
B) migration of mesoderm cells.
C) fusion of ectoderm and mesoderm.
D) contraction of the endoderm away from the mesoderm.
E) extension of endoderm into a thin spinal column.
Q3) Another term for programmed cell death is
A) morphogenesis.
B) apoptosis.
C) pattern formation.
D) cellular differentiation.
E) mitosis.
Q4) List and describe the major events during the 3 stages of birth.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Patterns of Gene Inheritance
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Q1) In guinea pigs,B = black,b = brown,S = short hair,s = long hair.A heterozygous black,shorthaired animal reproduces with a brown,longhaired animal.What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
A) 1 black short hair, 1 black long hair, 1 brown short hair, 1 brown long hair
B) 3 black short hair, 1 brown long hair, 3 black long hair, 1 brown short hair
C) 9 black short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 brown short hair
D) 9 black short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown short hair, 1 brown long hair
E) 9 black short hair, 6 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 brown short hair.
Q2) The four o'clock flower is an example of incomplete dominance: R = red,r = white,and Rr = pink.If two hybrids are crossed,what are the chances that an offspring will have pink flowers?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q3) In the human population short fingers are dominant over long fingers.Indicate the genotypic and phenotypic ratios if a heterozygous short fingered female reproduces with a long fingered male.
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Chapter 24: Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) The ____ gene causes mental retardation by increasing the levels of purines in the blood.
A) Gart
B) Dart
C) RFLP
D) SRY
E) Barr
Q2) If an individual has a XYY genotype,they are classified as having
A) Down syndrome.
B) cri du chat syndrome.
C) Turner syndrome.
D) Klinefelter syndrome.
E) Jacobs syndrome.
Q3) When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis,this is termed A) linked genes.
B) disjunction.
C) nondisjunction.
D) crossover.
E) monosomy.
Q4) List the four X-linked recessive disorders.
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Chapter 25: DNA Structure and Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the classes of RNA molecules is linked with proteins in forming the large and small subunits of a cytoplasmic structure?
A) ribosomal RNA
B) transfer RNA
C) messenger RNA
D) primary mRNA transcript
E) ribozymes
Q2) Segments of DNA that are NOT part of the gene are called A) exons.
B) introns.
C) transposons.
D) inducers.
E) promoters.
Q3) Which is NOT associated with cancer?
A) It can establish new tumors distant from the site of the primary tumor.
B) It forms new blood vessels and brings nutrients and oxygen to the tumor.
C) Cancer cells can undergo cell division repeatedly and indefinitely.
D) Tumors invade surrounding tissues and are filtered by lymph nodes.
E) A malignant mass of cells is encapsulated and does not invade adjacent tissue.
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Chapter 26: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Q1) Genetic markers show the presence of a predisposition to a disease or condition by
A) showing if the person produces the proteins associated with the disease or condition.
B) showing changes in the DNA that will cause the disease or condition.
C) stimulating the DNA to cause the symptoms of the disease or condition.
D) showing the specific number of DNA fragments associated with the disease or condition after cutting by restriction enzymes.
E) causing the affected area on the patient to fluoresce.
Q2) Transposons are transposable elements in the DNA because
A) they transport genetic information.
B) they transfer organelles inside a cell.
C) they transmit signals in the cell indicating the genes to be copied.
D) they move from one location to another in the DNA.
E) they cause the DNA to take on a specific shape or pose.
Q3) The genome of Homo sapiens and Mus musculus are approximately the same size and composed of the same number of genes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Evolution of Life
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Q1) Movement of alleles between populations such as by the migration of breeding individuals is called
A) mutations.
B) genetic drift.
C) gene flow.
D) nonrandom mating.
E) natural selection.
Q2) Disruptive selection is described in the text with the case of British land snails.In the grassy fields,the light-banded snails escape bird predators.In the darker forest,the dark snails survive and the light-banded snails are eaten.As long as the snails continue to cruise across the British landscape mating at the same season,why doesn't this "disruptive selection" eventually lead to two separate species?
A) There is no reproductive isolation to prevent gene flow.
B) They are already two separate species and the intermediate forms are hybrids.
C) The color forms are probably not genetically determined.
D) There must be some unknown factor producing an equal stabilizing selection "to hold the species together."
E) This will result in the formation of two species if given long enough time.
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Chapter 28: Microbiology
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Q1) The organic soup in which the first cell is believed to have arisen probably contained
A) isolated atoms.
B) bubbling hot gases only.
C) algae and other microscopic organisms.
D) amino and organic acids.
E) nucleic acids and proteins.
Q2) What feature enables the Archaea to survive in harsh environments?
A) Their cell walls.
B) Their nucleus.
C) Their metabolism.
D) The ability to form multicellular organisms.
E) Their reproductive capabilities.
Q3) Which statement is true about bacteria?
A) They contain a nucleus.
B) They lack ribosomes.
C) They usually lack a cell wall.
D) They divide sexually.
E) They contain a single, circular DNA molecule as the genetic material.
Q4) Describe the steps in viral replication.
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Chapter 29: Protists and Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
A) Bacteria, fungi, and protozoans sometimes cause disease.
B) Dinoflagellates, diatoms, and trypanosomes are unicellular algae.
C) Cyanobacteria, diatoms, and euglenoids carry on photosynthesis.
D) Protozoans include amoebas, paramecia, and flagellates.
E) Amoeboids, zooflagellates, and sporozoans can cause human diseases.
Q2) The most important human parasite among the sporozoa is ____,the causative agent of malaria.
A) Plasmodium vivax
B) trypanosome
C) Amoeba proteus
D) Chlamydomonas
E) Paramecium caudatum
Q3) Which of the following are NOT grouped with the Protista?
A) protozoans
B) algae
C) slime molds
D) water molds
E) black bread mold
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Chapter 30: Plants
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Q1) Swimming sperm are produced in the ____ of the moss gametophyte stage.
A) antheridia
B) archegonia
C) rhizoids
D) protonema
E) sori
Q2) Both charophytes and land plants share which of these characteristics?
A) Both have true roots, and leaves.
B) Both have chlorophyll a and store carbohydrates as starch.
C) Both have vascular tissue and protect the zygote.
D) Both protect the embryo and have cell walls with cellulose.
E) Both cell walls that contain cellulose and produce seeds.
Q3) If a tree has flower petals that are small and the same color as its leaves,it is likely to be pollinated by A) bats.
B) bees.
C) the wind.
D) butterflies.
E) moths.
Q4) List the five major events in the evolutionary history of plants.
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Chapter 31: Animals: the Invertebrates
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Q1) Animals that have no particular symmetry exhibit
A) asymmetry.
B) radial symmetry.
C) bilateral symmetry.
D) trilateral symmetry.
E) spherical symmetry.
Q2) An arachnid differs from a crustacean because
A) arachnids have book gills.
B) arachnids are mostly aquatic and crustaceans are mostly terrestrial.
C) only arachnids shed their exoskeletons.
D) only arachnids have two major body segments of cephalothorax and abdomen.
E) arachnids have four pairs of walking legs.
Q3) Sea stars and sea urchins operate their tube feet by
A) a hydraulic system that regulates water pressure.
B) cilia transporting hemolymph from chamber to chamber.
C) sticky threads leading from the mouth.
D) actin and myosin fibers that slide and give muscle actions to the five arms or "rays".
E) an extensive net of nerve and muscle cells.
Q4) Identify the features unique to the molluscs.
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Chapter 32: Animals: Chordates and Vertebrates
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Q1) Which feature distinguishes birds from the rest of the reptiles?
A) endothermic
B) scales
C) egg laying
D) lungs
E) four appendages
Q2) The fossil called Lucy is a member of the species ___,which lived about 3.18 million years ago.
A) Australopithecus afarensis
B) Australopithecus africanus
C) Proconsul
D) Homo habilis
E) Homo erectus
Q3) The duckbill platypus is an exception to many mammals because it
A) lacks hair.
B) is ectothermic or "cold-blooded."
C) doesn't secrete milk.
D) doesn't give birth but lays eggs.
E) is found in Australia.
Q4) Identify the four morphological traits unique to the chordates.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) What is a change in behavior that involves associating two separate events?
A) a fixed action pattern
B) innate behavior
C) associative learning
D) imprinting
E) altruistic behavior
Q2) Which two organ systems are most involved in producing physiological changes leading to appropriate behavior patterns?
A) nervous and digestive
B) digestive and urinary
C) nervous and reproductive
D) nervous and endocrine
E) reproductive and digestive
Q3) A male and female crane perform a series of moves in concert that lead up to mating.This is a form of
A) Operant conditioning
B) Altruism
C) Imprinting
D) Communication
E) Learning
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Chapter 34: Population and Community Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following does not impact an organism's biotic potential?
A) usual number of offspring per reproduction
B) chances of survival until age of reproduction
C) age at which reproduction begins
D) how often each individual reproduces
E) the rate of immigration into an area
Q2) In a population of 150 organisms over a six month period there are 75 births and 30 deaths.Calculate the growth rate for those six months
A) 0.7
B) 0.5
C) 0.2
D) 0.3
E) 0.75
Q3) Which of the following statements accurately describes the less developed countries?
A) high birthrate, large pre-reproductive portion of the population
B) high birthrate, different age groups of equal size
C) high growth rate, reproductive portion of the population is the largest
D) low growth rate, different age groups of equal size
E) high growth rate, different age groups of equal size
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Chapter 35: Nature of Ecosystems
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Q1) In the carbon cycle,carbon is returned to the atmosphere by
A) respiration of animals and plants.
B) photosynthesis.
C) evaporation of water.
D) glycolysis.
E) denitrification.
Q2) What happens to the amount of energy while going up the food pyramid?
A) The amount of energy decreases.
B) The amount of energy increases.
C) The amount of energy stays the same.
D) The amount of energy first decreases and then finally increases.
E) Energy does not move from one trophic level to the next.
Q3) The ultimate source of energy in ecosystems,even for humans,is
A) heat from burning fuels.
B) heat from muscle contraction.
C) sunlight.
D) electric light.
E) ultraviolet light.
Q4) Explain the steps in the hydrological cycle.
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Chapter 36: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) The ocean
A) lacks life below the first several hundred feet.
B) has zooplankton but not phytoplankton.
C) covers little of the earth's surface.
D) is not affected by freshwater pollution.
E) covers three fourths of the planet.
Q2) Which region of the open ocean is brightly lit?
A) epipelagic
B) mesopelagic
C) bathypelagic
D) abyssal
E) benthic
Q3) When moist air from over an ocean moves inland and up a mountain slope,it causes heavy precipitation on the windward side.On the leeward side of the mountain,the region receives far less rain.This is referred to as
A) lake effect.
B) eutrophication.
C) a montane successional gradient.
D) a monsoon climate.
E) rain shadow.
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Chapter 37: Conservation Biology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage to the use of fossil fuels?
A) contribution to the greenhouse gases
B) excessive pollution
C) nonrenewable resource
D) transference of fossil fuel energy into food energy
E) increased methane production
Q2) Oftentimes around the world,famine causes severe loss of life in LDCs.In many cases what is the initial step that would eventually lead to a famine situation?
A) deforestation
B) desertification
C) coastal pollution
D) no access to drinking water
E) increase in human habitation
Q3) Which of the following countries is the world's leading producer of hydropower?
A) United States
B) Brazil
C) Canada
D) Switzerland
E) Germany
Q4) Explain the four ethical principles embodied by conservation biology.
Page 39
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