General Biology Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
General Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of biology, exploring the structure, function, and diversity of living organisms. This course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the biological systems that support life. Emphasis is placed on understanding scientific methods, critical thinking, and the interconnections between biological processes and the environment. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, and interactive activities, students gain a foundational knowledge of biology that prepares them for further study in life sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Homeostasis provides what kind of internal environment?
A) positive
B) tolerable
C) limiting
D) changing
E) chemical and physical
Answer: B
Q2) The most inclusive level of organization listed here is a(n) A) heart.
B) carbon atom.
C) DNA.
D) zebra.
E) red blood cell.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis
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Q1) Blood pH is kept near a value of 7.3 - 7.5 because of ____.
A) salts
B) buffers
C) acids
D) bases
E) water
Answer: B
Q2) Substance that accepts, but does not release, H<sup>+</sup>
A)pH
B)acid
C)base
D)buffer
Answer: C
Q3) The predictable rate of ____________________ allows tracers to be used in research studies.
Answer: decay radioactive decay
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The figure above illustrates a ____ reaction that produces one ____ and a ____.
A) condensation; hydroxyl; polymer
B) condensation; water molecule; polymer
C) cleavage; water molecule; monomer
D) rearrangement; water molecule; polymer
E) rearrangement; hydrogen ion; polymer
Answer: B
Q2) Polysaccharides ____.
A) are composed of three linked monosaccharides
B) contain only straight monomer chains
C) are always made of glucose molecules
D) may be insoluble and difficult to break down
E) are formed by cleavage reactions
Answer: D
Q3) Write the empirical formula for a carbohydrate.
Answer: (CH O)n
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) chloroplasts
A)contain enzymes for intracellular digestion
B)primary cellular organelles where proteins are assembled
C)package cellular secretions for export
D)extract energy stored in carbohydrates; synthesize ATP; produce water and carbon dioxide
E)synthesize subunits that will be assembled into two-part ribosomes in the cytoplasm
F)molecules that participate in protein synthesis
G)store substances
H)encode hereditary information
I)help distribute chromosomes to the new cells during cell division
J)convert light energy to chemical energy stored in the chemical bonds of glucose or starch
Q2) Which item below is unique to eukaryotic cells?
A) cell wall
B) plasma membrane
C) nucleoid
D) ribosomes
E) vacuole
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Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism
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Q1) Allosteric inhibition generally results from ____.
A) excess substrates
B) binding of regulatory molecules at sites other than the active sites
C) a change in the temperature of the system
D) a lack of coenzymes
E) changes in pH
Q2) Energy is commonly defined as ____.
A) a form of heat
B) thermodynamics
C) the capacity to change
D) the capacity to do work
E) the ability to do work
Q3) pressure from a fluid against a boundary
A)diffusion
B)hypertonic
C)hypotonic
D)isotonic
E)osmosis
F)osmotic pressure
G)turgor
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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis
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Q1) The ____ a photon's wavelength, the ____ its energy.
A) shorter; greater
B) longer; greater
C) shorter; less
D) longer; more variable
E) shorter; more variable
Q2) In plant cells, chloroplasts are found ____.
A) on the cell membrane
B) in the cytoplasm of the cell
C) in the stroma
D) in the thylakoids
E) in the central vacuole
Q3) the PGA to PGAL conversion
A)incorporation of CO<sub>2</sub> into an organic molecule
B)uses ATP and NADPH
C)uses two PGAL
D)produces ATP and NADPH
E)uses an electron transfer chain to produce ATP, but does not produce NADPH or O<sub>2</sub>
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Page 8
Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy
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Q1) How many net ATP molecules are produced per molecule of glucose broken down during glycolysis?
A) one
B) two
C) four
D) 36
E) 38
Q2) Electron transfer phosphorylation yields____ ATPs.
A) four
B) two
C) three
D) 32
E) zero
Q3) In this one-step process, the final product is lactate.
A)glycolysis
B)aerobic respiration
C)electron transfer phosphorylation
D)alcoholic fermentation
E)lactate fermentation
Q4) What is the most important product of stage 2 of aerobic respiration?
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Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function
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Q1) Which statement is false with regard to mutations?
A) They are always dangerous.
B) They can occur as DNA replication errors.
C) They cannot be repaired after replication.
D) They may become cancerous.
E) They can be passed on to the next generation.
Q2) How many pairs of autosomes are in a typical human karyotype?
A) 8
B) 22
C) 23
D) 46
E) 92
Q3) DNA is replicated by a process called ____________________.
Q4) James Watson and Francis Crick ____.
A) were both English researchers working at Cambridge University
B) performed elegant experiments in DNA chemistry
C) constructed an accurate model of DNA's double helix structure
D) performed experiments that convinced scientists that DNA is a double-stranded molecule
E) used x-ray diffraction in all of their experiments
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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein
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Q1) ____ carries protein-assembly instructions from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
A) Template DNA
B) Messenger RNA
C) Transfer RNA
D) Ribosomal RNA
E) Total RNA
Q2) There are how many different kinds of RNA codons?
A) 3
B) 72
C) 28
D) 64
E) 120
Q3) A frameshift mutation results in
A) a normal protein due to the redundancy of the genetic code.
B) errors in DNA replication
C) errors in DNA splicing
D) a change in all mRNA codons downstream from the mutation
E) a change in the third position of one codon
Q4) In transcription, RNA polymerase binds to a(n) _____________________ sequence near a gene, and then assembles a strand of RNA.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Gene Control
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Q1) Differentiation is the process by which cells
A) mature into larger cells.
B) change from one type of muscle to another.
C) change to repair injuries.
D) turn on all the genomic genes.
E) express different subsets of their genes during development..
Q2) transport control
A)influences the amount and kinds of mRNA assembled from structural gene
B)splicing, capping, and adding a poly-A tail
C)nuclear envelope selectively regulates passage of transcripts
D)phosphorylation of translated protein
E)dosage compensation
Q3) Transcription factors bind directly to
A) new polypeptide chains.
B) DNA.
C) RNA .
D) final proteins.
E) enhancers.
Q4) Explain why grandsons of boys who survived a famine lived longer than grandsons of boys who did not experience a famine?
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Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce
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Q1) Cytokinesis occurs after this phase of mitosis.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase
Q2) microtubules
A)cytoplasmic division
B)final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form
C)two sister chromatids are joined here
D)chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to form
E)chromosomes line up at spindle equator
F)sister chromatids separate and move to opposite spindle poles
G)form the mitotic spindle
H)half of a chromosome in prophase
I)in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during spindle formation
Q3) How could telomerase inhibitors be used to treat cancer?
Q4) The most common type of skin cancer is __________.
Q5) The __________ that facilitates cytokinesis in animal cells cannot work with plant cells because a stiff cell wall surrounds their __________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occur in telophase I of meiosis?
A) nuclear envelope formation
B) pairing of homologues
C) formation of a bipolar spindle
D) crossing over
E) condensation of chromosomes
Q2) Anaphase
A) involves the lining up of the chromosomes across the equatorial plate.
B) is the same in mitosis and meiosis I and II.
C) is initiated when the chromosomes begin to move apart.
D) results in an unequal distribution of chromosomes to the resulting cells.
E) occurs after telophase.
Q3) Gamete formation is
A) the result of mitosis.
B) the pairing of homologous chromosomes.
C) the formation of sex cells.
D) the fusion of gametes.
E) a process that occurs only in asexually reproducing forms.
Q4) At __________, the fusion of two gametes produces a(n) __________.
Q5) Discuss the unique reproductive capacity of the bdelloid rotifer.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits
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Q1) In humans, normal skin pigmentation is influenced by a dominant gene (C), which allows pigmentation to develop. All individuals who are homozygous for the recessive allele (c) are unable to produce an enzyme needed for melanin formation and are therefore referred to as albino. Two normal parents produce an albino child. What are the chances that the next child will be an albino?
Q2) In garden peas, one pair of alleles controls the height of the plant, and a second pair of alleles controls flower color. The allele for tall (D) is dominant to the allele for dwarf (d), and the allele for purple (P) is dominant to the allele for white (p). A tall plant with white flowers crossed with a dwarf plant with purple flowers produces all tall offspring with purple flowers. What is the genotype of the parents?
Q3) Tall (D) is dominant to dwarf (d). If a true-breeding tall plant is crossed with a true-breeding dwarf plant, give the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of the F2generation.
Q4) An individual that has two dominant alleles for a trait (AA) is __________.
Q5) A(n) __________ is a hybrid, with two nonidentical alleles (Aa).
Q6) Consider the work Mendel did with his pea plants. Why is the study of human genetics much more difficult?
Q7) Explain how incomplete dominance can result in an apparent "blend."
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Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance
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Q1) How did the cessation of crossing-over contribute to the disparity between the X and Y chromosomes?
Q2) What can be said about sex-determination in humans?
A) All human sperm carry a Y chromosome.
B) 25% of human zygotes are XY.
C) All zygotes carry a Y chromosome.
D) Sex depends upon which type of sperm fertilizes the egg.
E) All human eggs carry a Y chromosome.
Q3) galactosemia
A)autosomal recessive inheritance; lactose metabolism is blocked
B)nondisjunction of the twenty-first chromosomal pair
C)X-linked recessive inheritance
D)nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes
Q4) This disorder is an X-linked recessive trait.
A)galactosemia
B)Turner syndrome
C)progeria
D)hemophilia A
E)Down syndrome
Q5) The human has __________ sets of autosomal chromosomes.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes
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Q1) Why are cDNA libraries desirable for the expression of eukaryotic genes in prokaryotes?
Q2) Small circular molecules of "extra" DNA in bacteria ____.
A) are plasmids
B) are DNA fragments from their main chromosome
C) result from the activity of restriction enzymes
D) are eventually degraded
E) cannot survive outside of the cell
Q3) The combination of a foreign piece of DNA with the DNA of another organism.
A)restriction enzymes
B)recombinant DNA
C)plasmids
D)clones
E)restriction sites
Q4) What is used to cut the DNA in panels 1 and 2?
A) restriction enzymes
B) reverse transcriptase
C) DNA polymerases
D) RNA polymerases
E) DNA ligases
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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) Darwin
A)wrote Principles of Geology
B)developed the theory of catastrophism
C)believed that giraffes have long necks because their short-necked ancestors stretched their necks and passed this change onto their offspring
D)was a naturalist who sailed on the Beagle and studied finches
E)wrote an essay relating population size to competition for limited resources
F)natural historian and author; formed early ideas of the great chain of being
Q2) How old was the world thought to be when Darwin began his voyage? How old is it thought to be now?
Q3) An asteroid that impacted Earth about 66 million years ago is believed to be responsible for ____.
A) the creation of life on Earth
B) a global catastrophe that may have wiped out the dinosaurs
C) the splitting of one land mass into continents
D) a mass extinction of land plants
E) the evolution of Earth's oceans
Q4) ____________________ are evidence of life in the distant past.
Q5) Why are fossils older than 60 000 years hard to date using C14?
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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution
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Q1) Consider the sources of variation in traits among individuals of a species. Which of these can be controlled and which cannot be controlled?
Q2) Stabilizing selection occurs when
A) the environment controls which organisms will survive.
B) humans determine which organisms will survive.
C) the extremes of the population have a lesser chance to survive.
D) the extremes of the population have a better chance to survive.
E) the organisms on one extreme of the population have a better chance to survive than those on the other extreme.
Q3) In __________ speciation, a geographic barrier interrupts gene flow between populations.
Q4) Four of the following maintain genetic equilibrium and allele frequencies. Which one is the exception?
A) lack of gene flow
B) large population interbreeding freely
C) differential survival and reproduction
D) random mating
E) absence of mutations
Q5) __________ is rapid diversification into new species that occupy novel niches.
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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species
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Q1) Similar body parts are not always homologous. They may have evolved independently in separate lineages as adaptations to the same ____.
A) reproductive isolation of these groups
B) environmental pressures
C) reduced genetic variability in these groups
D) identical genes in all three groups
E) genetic bottleneck
Q2) Finches have lived in Hawaii for
A) 1000 years.
B) 100 000 years.
C) 4 million years.
D) 5 million years.
E) 63 million years.
Q3) Which group is the sister group to humans?
A) earthworm
B) lizard
C) tuna
D) mouse
E) duck
Q4) __________ is a set of methods that allow us to reconstruct phylogeny.
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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution
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Q1) The endomembrane system did not start developing until the atmosphere was
A) high in oxygen, high in carbon dioxide
B) high in hydrogen, low in oxygen
C) changing from low oxygen to high oxygen levels
D) firmly in the age of aerobes
E) low in hydrogen, low in oxygen
Q2) Which process is NOT associated with structures that are formed from the extensive infolding of eukaryotic membranes?
A) concentration of nutrients
B) cell division
C) transport of proteins
D) protection of metabolic machinery
E) greater surface area for metabolism
Q3) Chloroplasts ____.
A) resemble photosynthetic bacteria
B) utilize the same pigments regardless of what organism they are in
C) apparently evolved from mitochondria
D) utilize DNA derived from the nucleus
E) are found in prokaryotes
Q4) What can RNA do that DNA cannot that makes RNA a good starting point for life?
21
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Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea
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Q1) The only bacteria that uses the noncyclic photosynthetic pathway.
A)halophiles
B)cyanobacteria
C)thermophiles
D)proteobacteria
E)methanogens
Q2) What feature is LEAST characteristic of a virus?
A) contains DNA or RNA genetic material
B) contains cytoplasm and ribosomes
C) has a protein coat
D) can only replicate inside a living host cell
E) is very small
Q3) Four of the following are characteristics of viruses. Which one is the exception?
A) The outer coats of all viruses are alike.
B) The virus contains either DNA or RNA at its core, but not both.
C) Viruses infect organisms in all three domains of life.
D) Most viruses have a protein coat or covering.
E) Some viruses benefit us indirectly.
Q4) How do archaea differ from bacteria?
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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes
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Q1) The organism in the accompanying figure belongs to which group?
A) excavates
B) alveolates
C) stramenopiles
D) green algae
E) rhizarians
Q2) The organism shown in the accompanying figure belongs to the ____ group.
A) kinetoplastids
B) diplomonads
C) green algae
D) red algae
E) brown algae
Q3) __________ are single-celled and mostly or entirely heterotrophic.
Q4) __________ and __________ are single-celled heterotrophs with a secreted shell.
Q5) What type of cells do the apicomplexan parasite Plasmodium infect?
A) blood only
B) liver only
C) brain only
D) both blood and liver
E) blood, liver, and brain
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Chapter 22: The Land Plants
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Q1) Which of the following is made from tree bark?
A) cinnamon
B) cocaine
C) maple syrup
D) hemp
E) saffron
Q2) Four of the following statements are true of xylem. Which one is the exception?
A) conducts water up the plant
B) conducts mineral ions up the plant
C) connects with roots
D) connects with leaves
E) transports sugars
Q3) Why is it important to maintain a collection of wild relatives of crop plants?
A) Humans have a natural urge to collect things.
B) It allows future generations to see plants that are gone.
C) Seeds are not stable.
D) Crop plants do not produce their own seeds.
E) It provides insurance in the form of genetic diversity.
Q4) Land plants, or embryophytes, are close relatives of __________, a kind of green algae.
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Chapter 23: Fungi
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Q1) Aspergillus and Penicillium are similar in that both ____.
A) produce antibiotics
B) reproduce sexually using an ascus
C) are club fungi
D) parasitize human mucous membranes
E) lack known sexual stages
Q2) Mycorrhizae are ____.
A) the small roots in the root systems of trees
B) endosymbiotic bacteria associated with plant roots
C) fungus and root mutualistic associations
D) parasitic fungal infections of tree roots
E) endosymbiotic fungal cells associated with leaves
Q3) A ____ is formed as the direct result of cytoplasmic fusion in basidiomycetes and ascomycetes.
A) dikaryotic cell
B) Zygote
C) Gamete
D) Spore
E) Mushroom
Q4) __________ fungi include common molds.
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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates
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Q1) In the accompanying figure, a cell type that distributes breakdown products of digestion to other cells in the sponge body is identified by the number ____.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q2) Trilobites were members of this phylum.
A)Porifera
B)Cnidaria
C)Platyhelminthes
D)Nematoda
E)Annelida
Q3) "Tardigrada" means ____.
A) tough exoskeleton
B) many proglottids
C) slow walker
D) short digestive system
E) Coelom
Q4) Why might tardigrades make good organisms for space flight?
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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates
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Q1) Sharks differ from most other fish in that they lack ____.
A) gill slits
B) scales
C) bone
D) paired appendages
E) teeth
Q2) Consider the accompanying figure. Four of the following are true statements about the structure indicated by "D." Which statement is false?
A) It first evolved in arthropods.
B) It extends anteriorly into the head region.
C) It provides support for muscle contraction.
D) It is replaced in most adult vertebrates by the vertebral column.
E) It is one of the four exclusive features of chordates.
Q3) Members of this class have cartilaginous skeletons but also possess jaws.
A)cartilaginous fishes
B)bony fishes
C)amphibians
D)reptilians
Q4) __________, or four-legged walkers, evolved from lobe-finned bony fishes.
Q5) What are the bird-like and reptile-like features of Archaeopteryx?
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Human Evolution
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Q1) Four of the following are gorilla features. Which one is the exception?
A) spinal cord attached at rear of skull
B) C-shaped spine
C) legs longer than arms
D) flat foot
E) opposable big toe
Q2) Four of the following are advantages that led to an evolutionary shift towards bipedalism. Which one is the exception?
A) It allows for more efficient movement across open ground.
B) It made upright walking more energy efficient.
C) It keeps the body cooler
D) It allows the organism to reach higher food.
E) It is easier to scan the horizon for predators.
Q3) The great adaptive radiation of hominoids in the Miocene is attributable to ____.
A) the proliferation of complex forests
B) an extended heating and drying trend
C) the advent of bipedalism
D) the evolution of a large brain
E) changes in tooth structure
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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues
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Q1) phloem
A)tissue that supports rapidly growing pant parts
B)cells that die when mature, but their thick cell walls remain to lend sturdiness to the plant
C)replaces the epidermis on the surfaces of older stems and roots
D)ground tissue located inside the ring of vascular bundles in a eudicot stem
E)cells that regulate the diffusion of water vapor and other gases into and out of the plant
F)outermost layer of a young plant
G)comprised of sieve elements and their associated companion cells
H)ground tissue is primarily composed of this type of cell
I)gives rise to xylem and phloem during secondary growth
J)layer of cells that form the outer boundary of the vascular cylinder
K)gives rise to vascular tissue during primary growth
L)consists of two types of cells: vessel elements and tracheids
M)parenchyma cells that contain chloroplasts
Q2) ____________________ covers and protects the outer surfaces of primary plant parts.
Q3) Cells rich in chlorophyll and thus the main sites of photosynthesis are in layers labeled ____.
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Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) companion cells
A)responsible for opening and closing of stomata
B)region of a plant where sugars are being used
C)pipelines of the xylem
D)a mutually beneficial association between a fungus and a root
E)structures on roots that house nitrogen-fixing bacteria
F)pipelines of the phloem
G)evaporation of water from stems and leaves
H)provide metabolic functions necessary to sustain its paired sieve element
I)control the uptake of mineral ions into the vascular cylinder
J)transport of organic molecules from source region to sink
K)a waxy band that prevents water from diffusing through endodermal cell walls
Q2) Describe how clay can enhance the quality of soils. How can too much clay negatively affect soils?
Q3) What are guard cells and how are they able to control the opening and closing of stomata.
Q4) __________ are soils that have roughly equal proportions of sand, silt, and clay.
Q5) Root nodules are swellings on some plants that contain mutualistic __________ bacteria.
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Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants
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Q1) "Double fertilization" produces nutrient tissue by the union of ____.
A) two egg nuclei and one sperm nucleus
B) two sperm nuclei and one egg nucleus
C) two sperm nuclei and two egg nuclei
D) one sperm nucleus and endosperm mother cell nuclei
E) two sperm nuclei and one endosperm mother cell nucleus
Q2) Almost all houseplants are clones that have been grown from ____ of a parent plant.
A) Seeds
B) cuttings
C) suckers
D) grafts
E) fruits
Q3) Adventitious shoots that sprout from shallow lateral roots are called ____.
A) grafts
B) pericyle extensions
C) stem fragments
D) cuttings
E) suckers
Q4) __________ is the arrival of pollen grains on a receptive stigma.
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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants
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Q1) The effect of directional growth shown in the accompanying figure is known to be caused by ____.
A) thigmotropism
B) gravitropism
C) abscisic acid
D) salicylic acid
E) vernalization
Q2) The flowers of plants pollinated by night-flying bats open, secrete nectar, and release fragrance only at night. The mechanism that controls this is called ____.
A) thigmotropism
B) heliotropism
C) phototropism
D) photoperiodism
E) circadian rhythm
Q3) __________ refers to an organism's response to changes in the length of day relative to night.
Q4) When a shoot is lengthening at the tip, its lateral buds are usually dormant, an effect called __________.
Q5) Explain what occurs when a plant exhibits heliotropism.
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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The accompanying figure is a micrograph of what kind of tissue?
A) cardiac muscle
B) skeletal muscle
C) smooth muscle
D) cartilage
E) dense connective
Q2) What is the term for similar cells that are organized together with a common function?
A) organ
B) interstitial organization
C) tissue
D) organism
E) extracellular matrix
Q3) Exocrine glands secrete all of the following EXCEPT ____.
A) mucus
B) hormones
C) earwax
D) milk
E) digestive enzymes
Q4) duct of sweat gland
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Neural Control
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Q1) A region where neurotransmitter molecules stimulate a neuron is indicated by the letter _____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) C and D
Q2) inhibits urination
A)parasympathetic
B)sympathetic
Q3) Radially symmetrical animals have a nerve __________.
Q4) Nerve impulses coming into the spinal cord enter via ____.
A) intervertebral disks
B) neuroglia
C) the dorsal roots
D) Broca's area
E) ventral roots
Q5) Explain why playing on sports teams in high school is presently being debated as possibly unsafe.
Q6) A neuron's __________ receive signals, and its __________ transmits signals.
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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception
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Q1) An individual reports to the doctor that they are experiencing pain in their left arm. What would the doctor think may be wrong?
Q2) oval window
A)relays action potentials from the ear to the brain
B)contains the organ of Corti
C)separates the outer and middle ears
D)membrane-covered gateway to inner ear
E)consists of tissue containing rods and cones
F)bone in middle ear
G)defined by peak height and valley depth of sound waves
H)helps maintain balance and position; detects acceleration
I)depends on the number of wave cycles per second
J)a substance that elicits a response in members of the same species
K)regulates size of pupil and amount of incoming light
Q3) Receptors on the tongue detect variations in this kind of signal.
A)chemical
B)mechanical
C)thermal
D)nociceptor
Q4) The __________ is a system of fluid-filled sacs and canals in the inner ear.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control
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Q1) hypothalamus
Q2) This gland produces a hormone that directly controls development and helps control metabolic rate.
A)pituitary
B)adrenal
C)pancreas
D)thyroid
E)thymus
Q3) Insulin and glucagon work together to maintain optimum levels of ____ in the blood.
A) glycogen
B) glucose
C) alpha cells
D) thyroxine
E) digestive enzymes
Q4) adrenal glands
Q5) Four __________ glands make a hormone that acts on bone and kidney cells and raises blood calcium level.
Q6) pituitary gland
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Q7) Darkness increases secretion of __________ by the pineal gland in the brain.
Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement
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Q1) this protein repeatedly binds, moves, and releases an adjacent thin filament causing a muscle to contract
A)Z line
B)ATP
C)mitochondria
D)actin
E)sarcomeres
F)phosphate group
G)myofibrils
H)smooth muscle
I)thick filaments
J)myosin
K)skeletal muscle
Q2) The knee is an example of a ____.
A) cartilaginous joint
B) ligament
C) meniscus
D) synovial joint
E) fibrous joint
Q3) Why is back pain so common in humans?
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Chapter 36: Circulation
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Q1) An individual has an issue with their red blood cells. Are they most likely to have an issue with their immunity, oxygen transport, or hemostasis? Explain your answer.
Q2) Blood pressure is highest in the _____.
A) arterioles
B) capillaries
C) arteries
D) venules
E) veins
Q3) The anatomical structure identified with the letter "R" in the figure above is the ____.
A) pericardium
B) cardiac muscle
C) inferior vena cava
D) right atrium
E) heart apex
Q4) Do arteries always carry highly oxygenated blood? Explain your answer.
Q5) Red blood cells, also known as __________, contain the hemoglobin that functions in rapid transport of oxygen.
Q6) Chart the path of blood through the heart, including the valves passed.
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Chapter 37: Immunity
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Q1) Antigen receptors give __________ the collective potential to recognize billions of different antigens.
Q2) Branches of a bronchus are known as ____.
A) larynx
B) bronchi
C) bronchioles
D) trachea
E) pharynx
Q3) Air is continuously forced through tubes that thread through vascularized tissue in a pair of inelastic lungs in _____.
A) some fish
B) amphibians
C) birds
D) reptiles
E) some small mammals
Q4) __________ are proteins, Y-shaped antigen receptors made only by __________ cells.
Q5) __________ fights infection by increasing the metabolic rate.
Q6) __________ refers to processes designed to induce immunity.
Q7) Ig stands for __________.
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Chapter 38: Respiration
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Q1) bronchiole
Q2) bronchus
Q3) diaphragm
Q4) Most CO reacts with water inside red blood cells to form bicarbonate, due to the activity of __________.
Q5) What is characteristic of adult frogs?
A) gills
B) sucking air into their lungs
C) countercurrent exchange
D) pushing air into their lungs
E) drawing water by inhalation across their gills
Q6) Air moves from the nasal cavity into this passageway.
A)pharynx
B)larynx
C)trachea
D)bronchiole
E)alveolus
Q7) If a person is choking, the __________ maneuver can be used to expel food from their trachea.
Q8) Invertebrates on land use __________ or __________ systems for gas exchange. Page 40
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Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) Body mass index (BMI) is an indirect measurement of ____.
A) caloric intake
B) energy utilization
C) basal metabolic weight
D) age
E) body fat
Q2) Which of the following is an accessory organ of the human digestive system?
A) salivary gland
B) esophagus
C) stomach
D) small intestine
E) large intestine
Q3) This vitamin is a component of the coenzyme NAD.
A)Vitamin B
B)Vitamin B
C)Niacin
D)Vitamin B
E)Vitamin B
Q4) pancreas
Q5) __________ in the stomach contains protein-digesting enzymes and acid.
Page 42
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Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Long-term exposure to cold can alter metabolism and encourage __________ in which brown adipose tissue produces heat.
Q2) In the above illustration of fluid regulation in an earthworm, the letter "B" represents which of the following?
A) the excretory pore
B) the nephridium
C) the storage bladder
D) the ureter
E) funnel to collect fluid
Q3) The descending arm of the loop of Henle is permeable to ____ but impermeable to ____.
A) water; potassium ions
B) water; sodium ions
C) sodium ions; water
D) potassium ions; water
E) all choices are incorrect
Q4) Marine bony fish __________ water by osmosis, while freshwater bony fish __________ water by osmosis.
Q5) Why is high blood pressure damaging to the kidneys?
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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems
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Q1) urethra
Q2) This cell contains a full haploid set of chromosomes but will never be fertilized.
A)oogonium
B)primary oocyte
C)secondary oocyte
D)polar body
E)corpus luteum
Q3) The male sex cell is fully formed at this stage of development.
A)spermatogonium
B)secondary spermatocyte
C)primary spermatocyte
D)spermatid
E)sperm
Q4) One of the problems associated with assisted reproduction is that ____.
A) technology for effective gamete freezing has not been developed
B) the techniques for intrauterine implantation have not been fully explored
C) deleterious recessive alleles can be passed on to offspring
D) sperm cannot live outside the human body
E) the potential harm to the mother is largely unknown
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) This is the first primary tissue layer to form.
A)somites
B)blastomeres
C)ectoderm
D)mesoderm
E)endoderm
Q2) Which of the following is the first stage in reproduction and development?
A) cleavage
B) gamete formation
C) gastrula formation
D) zygote formation
E) blastula formation
Q3) Four of the following can cause birth defects. Which one is the exception?
A) tobacco
B) alcohol
C) poor nutrition
D) rubella
E) folic acid
Q4) What unusual features would be found on the newborn if human embryos did not experience apoptosis?
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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain pheromones and theorize why they are not significantly employed by humans.
Q2) instinctive behavior
A)studied nest decorating behavior in birds
B)imprinting in goslings
C)capacity of an animal to complete complex, stereotyped responses to first-time encounters with key stimuli
D)problem solving without trial-and-error
E)behavior is modified by experience
F)voluntary behavior is modified in response to consequences of that behavior
G)communal display ground
H)occurs during a sensitive period in which a following response or social attachment becomes fixed on a particular moving object
I)self-sacrificing behavior
Q3) A classic example of imprinting is _____.
A) Pavlov's dog
B) a sparrow singing a song
C) Lorenz and his geese
D) a cuckoo bird being a "brood parasite"
E) watching television
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