General Biology Exam Solutions
Course
Introduction
General Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of biological science. The course covers topics such as the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Students explore essential biological processes, including metabolism, reproduction, and homeostasis, while developing an understanding of how living systems interact with each other and their environments. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, experimental design, and real-world applications of biological knowledge, laying a foundation for further study in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Now 1st Edition by Anne Houtman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following questions could NOT be used to develop a testable hypothesis?
A)Does exposure to secondhand smoke affect the probability of developing lung cancer?
B)Do organic vegetables contain harmful substances?
C)Should everyone drink bottled water only?
D)Does a can of vegetable juice contain more salt than the same size can of iced tea?
Answer: C
Q2) Whenever we ________, we are proceeding scientifically.
A)invoke a supernatural power as an explanation for how a natural phenomenon occurred
B)stop questioning our observations
C)try to solve a problem by systematically evaluating the plausibility of various solutions
D)develop an unchangeable and definitive explanation
Answer: C
Q3) The genetic material used for reproduction by those organisms conventionally considered to be living is ________.
Answer: DNA
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3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is a monomer that can be commonly made from components in Earth's atmosphere?
A)nucleotides
B)amino acids
C)triglycerides
D)monosaccharides
Answer: B
Q2) A group of astronauts returning from outer space studied samples taken from their lunar landing. They found that one of their samples was coated with organic compounds. Which of the following statements must be correct about their samples?
A)The compounds must be covered with ammonia (NH3) and water vapor.
B)The samples must lack water, but contain DNA.
C)The samples must contain carbon atoms.
D)The specimen must lack water, pesticides, and added hormones.
Answer: C
Q3) Molecules with an uneven distribution of charge are described as ________.
Answer: polar
Q4) ________ molecules are nonpolar molecules that are repelled by water.
Answer: Hydrophobic
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Chapter 3: Life Is Cellular
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Sample Questions
Q1) mitochondrion
A)photosynthesis
B)regulate what moves in and out of cell
C)structure and support for cell
D)lipid synthesis
E)tags proteins for movement
F)enzymatic breakdown of large molecules
G)protein synthesis
H)cellular respiration
I)water and solute storage
J)location of DNA
K)internal organization and structural support
Answer: H
Q2) A cell containing a nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, both smooth and rough ER, ribosomes, cytoskeleton, a large vacuole, and chloroplasts would be an example of a typical ________ cell.
Answer: plant
Q3) All cells have a ________ that acts as a barrier separating the cellular components from the external environment.
Answer: plasma membrane
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Chapter 4: How Cells Work
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Q1) Humans store sugars in the form of glycogen. Glycogen is made by linking many glucose molecules together. This process is ________.
Q2) The ________ of an enzyme is an area with a specialized shape and/or set of chemical properties that allows the enzyme to bind with a particular substrate.
Q3) In many organelles, groups of different enzymes are located on membranes in close proximity to each other because
A)attaching enzymes to the membrane prevents the cell from losing them to the surrounding environment.
B)when enzymes are in close proximity, each one can catalyze more than one type of reaction.
C)these enzymes are involved in the same metabolic pathway and keeping them closer together increases the efficiency of the pathway.
D)all enzymes must act in groups to position substrates in the proper orientation to produce the product.
Q4) used by animal cells
Q5) produces light energy
Q6) used by plant cells
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher is recording the process of bacteria cell division using time-lapse microscopy. Which of the following processes would she be observing?
A)meiosis
B)mitosis
C)binary fission
D)She may be observing either A or B depending on the growth conditions.
Q2) A cell has completed S phase and is preparing to divide via mitosis. How is the genetic material arranged in G phase?
Q3) When examining the rapidly dividing cells of a fish embryo, you notice a cell that seems to contain two nuclei. The middle of the cell is pinched inward. This cell must be in ________ of mitosis.
A)prophase
B)telophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
Q4) Consider mitosis, meiosis, and binary fission. Which one of these three processes is the simplest for a cell to complete? Explain.
Q5) Cells spend the bulk of their time in the ________ phase of the cell cycle.
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Chapter 6: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding genes is NOT true?
A)Genes are located on chromosomes.
B)Genes consist of a long sequence of DNA.
C)Genes are the basic unit of information affecting a genetic trait.
D)In sexually reproducing species, each cell contains a single copy of every gene.
Q2) A parent with curly hair and a parent with straight hair produce a child with wavy hair.
A)incomplete dominance
B)epistasis
C)polygenic
D)pleiotropy
E)codominance
F)Mendelian trait
Q3) Most human genetic characters are
A)controlled by one gene.
B)not inherited according to Mendel's laws.
C)controlled by more than one gene.
D)not heritable.
Q4) The genetic makeup of an organism, such as Gg, is its ________.
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Chapter 7: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements would indicate a pedigree that shows the inheritance pattern of a recessive X-linked disease?
A)Most affected individuals are females.
B)Most affected individuals are males.
C)Males and females are affected equally.
D)The disease is seen in every generation.
Q2) Because an individual with an XX genotype is a female, is an individual with an XO (no second sex chromosome) a male?
A)No, because the X always overrides the Y and makes that embryo female.
B)No, because the Y chromosome contains the gene that makes an embryo male.
C)Yes, because if there is only one X, the embryo cannot become female.
D)Yes, because all embryos start off as males.
Q3) Which of the following statements about homologous chromosomes is true?
A)There are 46 pairs in humans.
B)They contain the same genes in the same locations.
C)They contain identical alleles in the same location.
D)They are also known as sex chromosomes.
Q4) Explain how two brothers might have different X chromosomes, but they must share identical Y chromosomes.
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Chapter 8: What Genes Are
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adenine bases in a DNA molecule are radioactively labeled. The DNA is then placed in a solution containing unlabeled nucleotides and the enzymes needed for DNA replication. The DNA molecule is allowed to replicate twice, forming four new DNA molecules. You would find the radioactively labeled adenine in A)each of the eight strands.
B)two of the eight strands.
C)all but one strand.
D)six of the eight strands.
Q2) A mutation is due to the addition of two bases in a strand of DNA. This is called a(n) ________.
Q3) A chemical is found that binds to a replicating strand of DNA but does not allow the next nucleotide to bind to the growing chain. Explain how this chemical would affect cell division.
Q4) Animal genes are not turned on and off as one unit because they are not ________.
Q5) The enzyme that copies DNA is called ________.
Q6) A strand of DNA has the sequence GCAATTCG. The sequence of the complementary strand is ________.
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Chapter 9: How Genes Work
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Q1) A gene in a region of DNA that is wound more tightly around proteins in the nucleus will be
A)transcribed more often than other genes.
B)transcribed less often than other genes.
C)transcribed equally often as any other gene.
D)digested and recycled to produce new DNA.
Q2) In bacteria, the antibiotic erythromycin prevents ribosomes from functioning. The most likely reason that bacteria die from treatment with erythromycin is because the antibiotic
A)inhibits transcription.
B)inhibits translation.
C)causes the wrong bases to be added to the growing mRNA strand.
D)causes the wrong amino acids to be bound to the tRNA strands.
Q3) During transcription,
A)the DNA strands replicate, producing four mRNA molecules.
B)each strand in the DNA molecule directs the production of an mRNA molecule.
C)a template strand of DNA directs the production of an mRNA molecule.
D)a template strand of DNA directs the production of all of the tRNA molecules needed for producing the gene's protein product.
Q4) The process of using an RNA template to make proteins is called ________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Evidence for Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Breeding programs for farm-raised chickens result in a variety of unusual colors and feathers. Is this an example of evolution?
A)No. Domesticated animals do not undergo evolution.
B)No. Evolution occurs over long periods of time and cannot be observed.
C)Yes. Chickens that are better adapted to the environment will survive and breed.
D)Yes. The change in chicken coloration is a genetic change in the population over time.
Q2) Tails are found
A)in all embryos.
B)only in adults and begin forming late in development.
C)only in embryos of organisms that will have a tail as adults.
D)in embryos of a wide variety of organisms, some of which have a tail as adults and others do not.
Q3) Natural selection
A)is the principle cause of extinctions.
B)is the principle cause of evolutionary change.
C)occurs only in gametes.
D)cannot occur without genetic drift.
Q4) Continental drift is the ________ of Earth's landmasses through geologic time.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) UV light causes mutations within skin cells. Is UV light a major driving force in the evolution of animals?
A)Yes. UV light is always present outside and can produce both favorable and harmful mutations in skin cells. Only the favorable mutations will be passed on to the next generation.
B)Yes. A mutation in the skin cell will result in an organism that is better protected from the sun. This individual will be more likely to survive and pass on this mutation to the next generation.
C)No. Only mutations in gametes will be passed on to the next generation. Only mutations that are passed on to offspring contribute to evolution.
D)No. Only mutations that have a favorable adaptive quality will be passed on to the next generation. UV light produces only harmful mutations.
Q2) Two different species may have similar features because of
A)genetic drift.
B)the founder effect.
C)a bottleneck.
D)descent from a common ancestor.
Q3) The original source of genetic variation within a population is ________.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Adaptation and Species
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Q1) Sympatric speciation
A)occurs only in plants.
B)is impossible, because the populations of a species must be isolated from one another for speciation to occur.
C)is always a result of polyploidy.
D)occurs when a new species emerges from a population in the absence of a geographical barrier.
Q2) The rough-skinned newt produces one of the most potent toxins on the planet. Scientists in Oregon have found that as newts evolve to produce a more deadly toxin, their primary predator, the garter snake, evolves ways to resist the toxin. This is an example of
A)ecological trade-offs in the evolution of the newt.
B)an adaptation of the newt to living in aquatic environments.
C)reproductive isolation in a population of garter snakes.
D)coevolution of predator and prey.
Q3) Individuals of the same species generally
A)experience prezygotic barriers to reproduction.
B)do not interbreed extensively.
C)share many common physical and behavioral characteristics.
D)vary only very slightly in appearance.
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Chapter 13: The History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mass extinction at the end of the Cretaceous period about 65 mya is believed to have been caused by a massive comet or asteroid smashing into what is now known as the Yucatan peninsula in the Gulf of Mexico. The debris arising from this impact would have blocked the Sun's rays from reaching the Earth. How would this cause a mass extinction?
A)With no sunlight, the plants would not be able to photosynthesize food for themselves, and they would die. Any animals that fed on those plants would also die, and any animals that would have eaten those animals would also now starve to death. This chain reaction would continue up the food chain.
B)A giant fireball would have spontaneously incinerated every living thing, and the evolution of life on Earth would have started completely fresh.
C)A massive wave spread out from the epicenter of the impact and drowned all of the terrestrial life on Earth. Evolution of all life on land started over after that event.
D)All of the terrestrial plants and animals choked to death on the debris cloud.
Q2) Briefly explain how new scientific findings may change the arrangement of an evolutionary tree while enhancing our understanding of evolution.
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Chapter 14: Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are on an archaeological dig in Africa when you find a collection of stone tools along with several skeletons in a cave. These bipedal skeletons date to about 3.5 million years ago and show no evidence of a partially opposable toe. Measurements indicate the brains would have been a little less than a third of the volume of modern humans. The teeth found on these skeletons look more like those of an ape than those of a human. Your skeletal discovery is most likely which of the following?
A)Sahelanthropus tchadensis
B)Ardipithecus ramidus
C)Homo erectus
D)Australopithecus afarensis
Q2) Genus
A)Homo
B)Primates
C)Chordata
D)Homo sapiens
E)Mammalia
F)Animalia
G)Hominidae
Q3) Briefly explain the difference between hominids and hominins.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: General Principles of Ecology
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Q1) Greenhouse gases warm the planet by
A)absorbing and dispersing solar radiation.
B)magnifying the energy of solar radiation.
C)producing and emitting infrared radiation.
D)absorbing and reemitting infrared radiation.
Q2) The term biotic includes
A)all living organisms.
B)all nonliving components of the biosphere.
C)both living and nonliving components of the biosphere.
D)only those living and nonliving factors that interact with each other.
Q3) The hydrologic cycle includes
A)biotic factors only.
B)abiotic factors only.
C)both biotic and abiotic factors.
D)neither biotic nor abiotic factors.
Q4) The biosphere is defined as all the living organisms on Earth along with the ________ in which they live.
Q5) Describe how burning fossil fuels can warm the planet.
Q6) Nonliving factors in the biosphere are called ________ factors.
Q7) Describe how a decrease in plant populations can affect the water cycle.
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Chapter 16: Growth of Populations
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Q1) By imposing the one-child policy, China's government is attempting to manipulate which of the following factors?
A)death rate
B)birth rate
C)carrying capacity
D)food supply
Q2) In November 2013, the one-child policy was officially relaxed to allow a second birth to some couples. Which of the following couples are now allowed a second birth?
A)couples in which one parent is an only child
B)couples in which both parents are only children
C)couples in which one parent is an orphan
D)couples in which both parents are orphans
Q3) Predation increases are responsible for density-________ changes in population size.
Q4) If there are 100 people living in a 2-square-kilometer area, the population density is ________ people per square kilometer.
Q5) Use a specific example to explain how population density may change for people living in one country without any change in population size.
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Chapter 17: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) A(n) ________ is a single sequence of who eats whom in a community.
Q2) Can a human being be considered an ecological community?
A)Yes, for example, a community of microorganisms lives within the human digestive system.
B)Yes, human beings live with other humans, own pets, and grow domesticated crops.
C)No, a community is formed from many populations, and it takes more than one individual to make up a population.
D)No, human populations are artificial rather than natural and are considered to fall outside of ecology.
Q3) In ________ competition, species compete indirectly for a shared resource, each reducing the amount available to the other competitor.
A)exploitative
B)restrictive
C)interference
D)advantageous
Q4) ________ consumers feed on primary consumers as part or all of their diet.
Q5) An ecological ________ is an association of populations of different species that live in the same area.
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Chapter 18: Ecosystems
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Q1) The primary contribution of decomposers to an ecosystem occurs when they
A)capture solar energy.
B)recycle nutrients sequestered in organisms back to the physical environment.
C)regulate the number of producers.
D)prevent consumer overpopulation.
Q2) You are studying a grassland ecosystem with 400,000 kcal of energy stored in the primary producer level. Grasshoppers eat the grass, meadowlarks eat the grasshoppers, and a hawk eats the meadowlarks. How many kcals are now stored, and available, in the hawk?
A)40,000
B)4,000
C)400
D)40
Q3) Other than the polar tundra, the LEAST productive terrestrial biomes tend to be A)deserts.
B)the temperate forests.
C)the tropical forests.
D)estuaries.
Q4) Explain why ecosystems do not always have sharply defined physical boundaries.
Q5) Describe how chemical nutrients enter and are recycled through an ecosystem.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Homeostasis, Reproduction, and Development
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Q1) Which of the following is a type of epithelial tissue?
A)skin
B)tendons
C)bone
D)neurons
Q2) When certain hormones are added to the uterus, they induce thickening in the cells lining its walls. Which of the following hormones is likely to be responsible for this change?
A)estrodiol
B)testosterone
C)progesterone
D)follicle-stimulating hormone
Q3) When is fetal development initiated?
A)at the establishment of organ systems
B)at the beginning of a heartbeat
C)when the baby's sex is determined
D)when hair begins to grow on the baby's body
Q4) In homeostatic regulation, cells seek to ensure relatively constant conditions by maintaining a normal state called the ________.
Q5) Explain how the hormone oxytocin plays a role in the progression of labor.
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Chapter 20: Digestive, Muscular, and Skeletal Systems
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Q1) Which of the following organs plays a role in producing vitamin D?
A)the skin
B)the small intestine
C)the stomach
D)the large intestine
Q2) The advantage of chewing food is that this process
A)provides mechanical digestion and increases the surface area of the food for further digestion.
B)makes food immediately ready for nutrient absorption in the stomach.
C)increases the amount of vitamins in the food.
D)decreases the surface area of the food to speed digestion.
Q3) A college student tracks his diet for several weeks as part of a nutrition project. During the tracking period, he realizes that his diet is rich in yellow and orange fruits and vegetables, citrus fruits, nuts, and fish, but that he tends to avoid most leafy green vegetables. Which of the following vitamins is most likely deficient in his diet?
A)vitamin B12
B)vitamin K
C)vitamin A
D)vitamin C
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Circulatory, Respiratory, Urinary, and Nervous Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of an organ used for gas exchange?
A)limited surface area
B)waterproofing layers
C)dry surfaces
D)very thin tissues
Q2) Capillaries and alveoli both have similar walls. How is the structure of each related to a common function?
Q3) Another name for the "pacemaker" of the heart is the
A)atrioventricular (AV) node.
B)sinoatrial (SA) node.
C)atrium.
D)ventricle.
Q4) thermoreceptors
A)You get into the bathtub and realize the water is moderately cold.
B)You are cleaning your bathroom with undiluted bleach, which causes a burning sensation in your nose.
C)You are eating dinner and enjoying both the taste and smell of your meal.
D)You wake up in the morning and enjoy the sight of a beautiful sunrise.e.You hear thunder during a storm.
Page 23
Q5) Describe two ways in which the structure of capillaries allows gas exchange.
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Chapter 22: Endocrine and Immune Systems
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Q1) When a doctor performs a Mantaux skin test to determine whether a patient has tuberculosis (TB), she exposes the patient to small amounts of protein from the microorganism that causes TB. The doctor reads the reaction to these proteins a few days later. If the patient has had previous TB antigen exposure (and infection), he or she will develop localized swelling at the site where the proteins were injected. The presence of swelling and the amount of swelling are observed and measured to determine whether the test is positive. Explain why this test measures a secondary (versus primary) exposure to antigens. Which aspects of this test demonstrate secondary exposure?
Q2) sites where trapped pathogens initiate adaptive immune responses
A)macrophages
B)mucous membranes
C)cytokines
D)B cells
E)lymph nodes
F)platelets
Q3) ________ cells remain in our body after the initial exposure to a disease-causing organism, and they help the immune system recognize that particular organism during a second exposure.
Q4) The hormone-producing tissues of animals make up the ________ system.
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Chapter 23: Plant Physiology
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Q1) The gene-for-gene recognition immune response involves
A)plant alleles that attack matching alleles in pathogens.
B)crossing-over between plant alleles and pathogen alleles.
C)production of antibodies by plants in response to antigens produced by pathogens.
D)production of proteins by plants that protect against pathogens with a particular genetic makeup.
Q2) A typical fertilizer contains no carbon, because carbon is
A)not a plant nutrient.
B)plentiful in all soils.
C)obtained from the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.
D)produced when the plant metabolizes nitrogen.
Q3) Spores undergo mitosis to form the haploid ________, one of the two stages in the life cycle of plants.
Q4) A plant's physiological response to day length is called ________.
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a function of stems?
A)positioning the leaves for photosynthesis
B)supporting the overall shape of the plant
C)water and mineral absorption
D)vertical growth
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Chapter 24: Applying the Science
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Q1) An individual claims to be able to detect the presence of graves in an old cemetery by using a "dowsing" or "divining" rod. The rod is a forked twig held out in front of the individual as he walks across the cemetery. The "dowser" claims that depending on which way the twig moves (up and down or side to side) he can determine if there is a grave there, and the gender and age of the individual buried at that spot. Which of the following would NOT help you to evaluate if the dowser is a charlatan?
A)It would help to know if the dowser had any previous knowledge of the cemetery.
B)It would help to actually dig up the site to determine if the dowser's predictions were accurate.
C)It would help to at least use X-rays or some other means to examine what might, or might not, be buried in the ground.
D)It would help to know the dowser's age and affiliation with other dowsers.
Q2) National Geographic, a popular magazine about science and the world
A)primary
B)secondary
Q3) A statement about how the world works that can be supported, or not, by using the scientific method is a(n) ________ claim.
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