General Biology Exam Review
Course Introduction
General Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts in biological science, including the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Students will explore key biological processes, such as metabolism, reproduction, and homeostasis, while gaining an understanding of the interrelationships between organisms and their environments. The course incorporates both theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory experiences to develop scientific reasoning and inquiry skills essential for further studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology Core Topics 4th Edition by Michael L. Cain LU;,SDK
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45 Chapters
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3022 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although it seems contradictory, science cannot prove a hypothesis to be true. This is because
A) all true hypotheses will be rejected by the scientific method because they can be proven false.
B) future experiments or discoveries may provide data that refutes the hypothesis.
C) science is a human endeavor, and like all human endeavors, is limited by human understanding.
D) the scientific method is limited to examination of the natural world.
Answer: B
Q2) Plants convert the energy in _______ into energy-rich substances using a process called photosynthesis.
Answer: sunlight
Q3) A _______ is a group of individuals belonging to the same species. Answer: population
Q4) A good hypothesis is easy to prove.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Organizing the Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following taxons in the Linnaean hierarchy has the greatest number of species?
A) family
B) class
C) phylum
D) order
Answer: C
Q2) There are currently three recognized domains; which of the following is not included within this taxon?
A) Archaea
B) Bacteria
C) Procarya
D) Eukarya
Answer: C
Q3) A set of shared derived features
A) will be unique to each Linnaean taxon.
B) marks a group of species as a set of close relatives.
C) most often indicates convergences.
D) can be found only in humans.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Major Groups of Living Organisms
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Q1) Bacteria can be distinguished from most other organisms because
A) bacterial cells have membrane-bound organelles.
B) bacterial DNA is not located within an organelle.
C) bacteria reproduce by splitting in two.
D) bacteria are generally single-celled.
Answer: B
Q2) Carbon and energy are among the most basic life resources and organisms have been classified with respect to how they are obtained. What term describes an organism that obtains these substances from rock?
A) chemoheterotroph
B) photoautotroph
C) photoheterotroph
D) chemoautotroph
Answer: D
Q3) Aerobic organisms can survive without oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The ______ of a eukaryotic cell contains its DNA.
Answer: nucleus
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Chemical Building Blocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many hydrogen atoms are in a molecule of C H N O ?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 24
D) 20
Q2) A _______ is a compound that maintains the pH of a solution by taking up or releasing hydrogen ions.
Q3) Individual water molecules are pulled toward each other by _______ bonds.
A) covalent
B) hydrogen
C) peptide
D) ionic
Q4) An atom that becomes charged due to the gain or loss of an electron is called an _______.
Q5) A solution with a pH of 7 is neither acidic nor basic.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Most lipids contain one or more _____ _____, long, hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains.
Q7) The sum of an atom's protons and neutrons is its ________ _______.
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is correctly matched?
A) cilia-microfilaments
B) flagella-tubulin
C) pseudopodia-intermediate filaments
D) microfilaments-keratin
Q2) At the most basic level of life, organic compounds are organized into energy-dependent, self-replicating units known as _____.
Q3) The _______ endoplasmic reticulum is covered with ribosomes.
Q4) Cilia are usually thicker and longer than flagella.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The part of the plasma membrane that is in contact with the external environment of the cell consists of
A) hydrophobic portions of the constituent molecules.
B) hydrophilic portions of the constituent molecules.
C) neutral (uncharged) molecules.
D) nonpolar ends of the constituent molecules.
Q6) The _______ is the place where the genetic material of a eukaryotic cell is stored.
Q7) The __________includes the entire contents of a cell except for the nucleus.
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Chapter 6: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) A cell that is gaining water from its surroundings is in
A) hypertonic solution.
B) hypotonic solution.
C) isotonic solution.
D) endotonic solution.
Q2) A white blood cell at the site of a puncture wound engulfs a large cluster of bacteria forming a large internal vesicle. This is an example of
A) exocytosis.
B) pinocytosis.
C) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
D) phagocytosis.
Q3) Which of the following are found in plants?
A) plasmodesmata
B) tight junctions
C) gap junctions
D) anchoring junctions
Q4) Channel proteins require energy for transporting molecules across the plasma membrane
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Energy and Enzymes
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Q1) The energy required for life processes must be extracted from an organism's A) nucleus.
B) environment.
C) predators.
D) biosynthesis.
Q2) When chemical energy is converted into kinetic energy in a biological systems, _____ [more than all, less than all, or all] of the available energy is converted.
Q3) You observe that a solution turns from red to green very slowly. If you place a small piece of platinum in the solution, the change occurs much more rapidly, yet the platinum remains unchanged. Which of the following best explains this experimental result?
A) The platinum provided activation energy.
B) The platinum is an enzyme.
C) The platinum is a catalyst.
D) The platinum is an oxidizing agent.
Q4) The energy input needed to start a chemical reaction is the _______ energy.
Q5) _______ blocks the activity of both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes.
Q6) The capture and use of energy by living organisms involves numerous chemical reactions. Together all of these processes are known as _______.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mitochondria of plants contain thylakoids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) NAD++ is an energy carrier in living organisms that couples
A) oxygen and carbon dioxide.
B) ATP and water.
C) photosynthesis and metabolism.
D) the Krebs cycle.
Q3) What is the importance of photosynthesis to organisms other than plants?
A) All other organisms require oxygen for life processes.
B) The sugars made during photosynthesis are building blocks of DNA.
C) All cells must have chloroplasts in order to survive.
D) Photosynthesis captures energy that other organisms access when they eat plants or organisms that eat plants.
Q4) In mitochondria, ATP is produced in conjunction with proteins in the membrane that surrounds a region in the mitochondrion known as the ____________.
Q5) Alcohol is a by-product of fermentation by yeast.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Cell Division
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Q1) Chromosomes are lined up at the middle of the cell during the _______ portion of cell division.
A) metaphase
B) anaphase
C) telophase
D) interphase
Q2) The process of mitosis is thought to have evolved from binary fission. What similarities exist between these processes?
A) The DNA being separated is attached to a membrane during both processes.
B) Both processes involve the separation of more than one piece of DNA.
C) Both processes include DNA segregation.
D) DNA must be tightly packaged into chromosomes before either process can begin.
Q3) Cytokinesis and mitosis are the same processes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most critical stage of interphase for a cell that needs to undergo cell division is ________ phase. If the cell does not complete this phase, it cannot undergo DNA segregation.
Q5) Microtubules attach to plaques of protein called ______________ on chromosomes.
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) The I and I alleles involved in human blood type differ in that they attach different ______ to the surface of red blood cells.
Q2) New alleles arise by _______ , which changes the DNA that makes up a gene.
Q3) A given gene can have only two alleles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Temperature can affect phenotype.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Feather color in a certain species of bird is controlled by a pair of alleles that exhibit incomplete dominance. If birds that are homozygous for one allele are black and birds that are homozygous for the other allele are white, then heterozygous birds must be
A) black
B) white
C) gray
D) black with white stripes
Q6) Most traits are under the control of more than one gene.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) The physical location of a gene on a chromosome is its _______.
Q2) Lethal recessive mutations are not eliminated from a population because they can be "hidden" in symptom-free individuals also carrying dominant alleles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following genotypes represents a human female?
A) XY
B) XX
C) YY
D) Zz
Q4) In humans, which of the following chromosomes would probably carry the fewest genes?
A) the Y chromosome
B) chromosome 4
C) the X chromosome
D) chromosome 14
Q5) Mutations that cause genetic disorders have been found on all human chromosomes except the _ chromosome.
Q6) The two classes of chromosomes are sex chromosomes and ____________.
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Chapter 12: DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a cell divides, it
A) breaks down its DNA.
B) deletes old genetic information.
C) copies information from neighboring cells.
D) copies its own genetic information.
Q2) During DNA replication the enzyme ___________ _____________ builds a new strand of DNA while using the old strand of DNA as a template
Q3) The experiments of Hershey and Chase showed that viruses contain DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The hereditary genetic material present in all living cells is A) strain S.
B) protein.
C) DNA.
D) RNA.
Q5) Griffith's experiments proved that DNA was the genetic material. A)True B)False
Q6) A change in the DNA base sequence due to an uncorrected mismatch error is called a _______.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) A mutation occurs in the promoter of a gene. How might this mutation affect the production of the protein encoded by the gene?
Q2) If a eukaryotic protein is to function properly ________ must be removed from the initial mRNA molecule and the remaining _____ must be joined together before translation.
Q3) If a particular stretch of DNA has the base sequence TAC, what will be the base sequence of the anticodon of the tRNA that carries the amino acid encoded by that stretch of DNA?
A) TAC
B) UAC
C) ATG
D) GUC
Q4) The stop codon is the sequence of bases at which transcription ends.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a molecule of mRNA is a sentence, its bases are the letters and the codons are the
Q6) The _______ is a sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase binds to begin transcription.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Control of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms control when, where, and how much of each gene product is made.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why might it not be surprising to learn that human DNA contains bacterial genes?
A) Eukaryotes were formed when ancient prokaryotic cells engulfed each other.
B) Bacterial genes are present in the nuclei of all known organisms.
C) Bacteria insert their genomes into host cells in order to reproduce.
D) Human cells engulf bacteria as a source of raw material for DNA synthesis.
Q3) In condensed chromosomes, histone spools
A) lie between introns in the DNA molecule.
B) contain most of the spacer genes in a cell.
C) have DNA wrapped around them.
D) are sites where active transcription takes place.
Q4) The fact that the DNA sequences of most homeotic genes are very similar in a wide variety of animals suggests that
A) homeotic genes are in a location of the genome that rarely undergoes mutation.
B) homeotic genes probably evolved millions of years ago in the first animals.
C) mutations in homeotic genes have little impact on an organism.
D) homeotic genes play a minor role in the process of development.
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Chapter 15: DNA Technology
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Q1) To make recombinant DNA,
A) two nonhomologous chromosomes are induced to undergo crossing-over during meiosis.
B) the entire genome of one organism is fused to a plasmid.
C) pieces of DNA from different organisms are cut with restriction enzymes and then glued together with ligase.
D) DNA polymerase is used to make multiple copies of the DNA sequences of two organisms at the same time.
Q2) _______ catalyzes the formation of covalent bonds between two DNA fragments, creating a single piece of DNA.
Q3) A restriction enzyme cuts DNA into fragments
A) whenever the correct ligase is present.
B) only in laboratory conditions.
C) only in the organism that produces it.
D) when mixed with the DNA that contains the target DNA sequence.
Q4) A DNA _______ is a collection of one organism's DNA fragments that are stored in another organism.
Q5) DNA _______ is the base pairing of DNA from two different sources.
Q6) DNA _______ is the set of techniques with which scientists manipulate DNA.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Pangaea is
A) the process of continental drift.
B) the combined fossil record of ancient species.
C) an ancient, giant continent.
D) the result of natural selection.
Q2) Some finches on the Galápagos Islands eat insects, an unusual food for finches to eat. These finches
A) could not survive if they were moved from their island.
B) learned their habits from local birds.
C) switched to insects because they tasted better than their usual food.
D) fill roles that birds other than finches would fill in other places.
Q3) Convergent evolution produces
A) genetic drift.
B) lines of common descent.
C) homologous characteristics.
D) analogous characteristics.
Q4) The result of _______ _______over evolutionary time spans is that individual organisms with a particular trait survive and reproduce at a higher rate than other individuals.
Q5) Heritable differences among individuals are generated by _______.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Evolution of Populations
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Q1) A gene has two alleles, B and b. If the b allele becomes "fixed" in the population, its frequency will be _______ percent.
A) 0
B) 33.3
C) 50
D) 100
Q2) One factor that complicates the treatment of AIDS is the
A) low mutation rate of HIV.
B) high mutation rate of HIV.
C) random mating between viral particles.
D) non-random mating between viral particles.
Q3) The genetic variation in a population is increased by A) recombination.
B) allele fixation.
C) natural selection.
D) genetic drift.
Q4) The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to determine the genotype frequencies of a population that is not evolving.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Adaptation and Speciation
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Q1) Geographic isolation limits the _______ between populations of a species.
A) genetic differences
B) adaptation
C) directional selection
D) gene flow
Q2) The population of salamanders, a _______ species found along the Pacific coast of the United States, forms a circle around a desert-like valley. Neighboring salamander species mate, but those on opposite sides of the valley do not.
Q3) Sympatric speciation requires geographic isolation of populations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A large population of animals is split in two by a physical barrier. Over time, the genetic make up of the two resulting populations becomes more and more different, until each population becomes a separate species. This is an example of
A) sympatric speciation.
B) allopatric speciation.
C) genetic drift.
D) reproductive isolation.
Q5) Speciation generally occurs at a ________ rate.
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Chapter 19: The Evolutionary History of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is not documented by the fossil record?
A) Some organisms that lived in the past are unlike living organisms we see today.
B) Some organisms that once lived on Earth have disappeared.
C) The species living today are the same as the species that lived in the distant past.
D) Over time life has evolved.
Q2) Once a species becomes dominant on Earth, it will remain dominant until it becomes extinct.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why might many new species form in the aftermath of a mass extinction?
A) Gene flow among the remaining species would be increased, giving rise to many new genetic recombinations.
B) Changed environments and reduced competition would provide opportunities for new adaptations.
C) New environments would increase mutation rates.
D) Populations of remaining species would expand rapidly and reduce geographic isolation.
Q4) Mammals evolved from _______ about 220 million years ago.
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21
Chapter 20: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) A person whose hands are being warmed by holding a hot cup of tea is gaining heat by A) convection.
B) conduction.
C) evaporation.
D) radiation.
Q2) In kidneys, the glomerulus is composed of a bed of __________.
Q3) A breeze cools a hot, dry surface by A) conduction.
B) convection.
C) radiation.
D) evaporation.
Q4) Marine fish must use energy to maintain their body fluid balance, because A) they live in a hypertonic environment and need to use energy to retain water.
B) they must get rid of the excess water that constantly moves into their interstitial fluid. C) they must actively take up solutes from their surroundings.
D) their kidneys must reabsorb solutes from the external surroundings.
Q5) An animal can lose heat by ___________ even when the environmental temperature is greater than its internal temperature.
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Chapter 21: Animal Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) Vitamins are either water-soluble or ___-soluble.
Q2) Since vitamins are so important to metabolism, it is important to ingest large amounts of them in the form of vitamin supplements.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In which of the following animals would you expect to find the longest small intestine relative to its total body size?
A) a lion
B) a horse
C) a human
D) a wolf
Q4) The enzyme lactase is found only in populations of people who suffer from lactose intolerance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Only guinea pigs, bats, the great apes, and humans must get vitamin C from their diets rather than synthesizing it themselves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Gas Exchange
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Q1) Hemoglobin
A) is an enzyme involved in the process of cellular respiration.
B) transports oxygen from cells undergoing cellular respiration to red blood cells.
C) binds to oxygen and releases it near cells performing cellular respiration.
D) makes the blood more acidic, enabling it to absorb more oxygen.
Q2) Hemoglobin, like many other oxygen-binding pigments, contains the metallic element ____.
Q3) The breaking open of alveoli in people with emphysema decreases their rate of gas exchange because
A) the distance between the air they breath in and the blood is decreased.
B) there is less pressure in the lungs to force the oxygen to dissolve in the blood.
C) the concentration of oxygen in the lungs becomes much greater than that in the blood.
D) their lungs have less surface area available for diffusion.
Q4) In humans, the equivalent of an insect's tracheoles in terms of size would be
Q5) _________ is the process of expelling carbon dioxide from the lungs and taking oxygen into the lungs.
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Chapter 23: The Circulatory System
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Q1) The muscle cells of the heart get their oxygen and nutrients from blood flowing through the heart's four chambers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about the internal transport of materials in large animals is true?
A) Since diffusion works well only over short distances, nearly all animal body cells lie extremely close to a blood vessel.
B) Diffusion is the main mechanism large animals use to transport materials within their systems.
C) The exchange of materials between blood and the surrounding cells occurs in arteries.
D) The heart contains the surfaces over which most gas exchange occurs.
Q3) The pressure needed to move blood from the body back to the heart is created by the contraction of the
A) skeletal muscles of the body.
B) left ventricle of the heart.
C) one-way valves in the veins.
D) walls of the veins.
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Chapter 24: Animal Hormones
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Q1) By what mechanism do most hormones travel through the organism that produces them?
A) circulatory system
B) diffusion
C) convection
D) the nervous system
Q2) Acromegaly results from
A) too little gonadotropin.
B) a lack of progesterone.
C) insufficient amounts of growth hormone during puberty.
D) exposure to growth hormone after maturity.
Q3) When blood glucose levels drop to a set point, the production of insulin drops off. This is an example of
A) positive feedback.
B) negative feedback.
C) homeostasis at work.
D) b and c above
Q4) The 28-day menstrual cycle is regulated by __________ and _____________, both of which are produced in the female gonad.
Q5) In human females, the release of an egg from its follicle is called _________.
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Chapter 25: The Nervous System
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Q1) A signal-sending neuron releases a __________, a molecule that carries the signal across the synapse between nerve cells.
Q2) How does the central nervous system know how important a particular stimulus is?
A) by the frequency at which the action potentials are created by the stimulus
B) by the overall strength of the action potential produced by the stimulus
C) by the number of neurotransmitters that reach the brain through the circulatory system
D) by the amount of hormone that the stimulus releases from endocrine glands
Q3) Neurotransmitters are released into a synaptic cleft by the process of __________.
Q4) The largest, most visible part of the human brain is the A) hippocampus. B) cerebrum.
C) hypothalamus.
D) thalamus.
Q5) A strong stimulus produces A) stronger action potentials.
B) more action potentials.
C) both more and stronger action potentials.
D) more nodes of Ranvier.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Sensing the Environment
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Q1) Which of the following is not a sensory receptor?
A) proprioceptor
B) nociceptor
C) painireceptor
D) thermoreceptor
Q2) The senses of smell and taste both depend on receptors that create nerve impulses in response to the presence of certain ________
Q3) The sound intensity in the front rows of a rock concert is approximately 110 decibels. A pair of earplugs reduces sound intensity by about 30 decibels. A person wearing earplugs who is seated in the front rows of a rock concert for one hour has sufficiently protected his or her ears from hearing damage.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The compound eyes of a honeybee
A) cannot see patterns of color.
B) have no lenses.
C) can see patterns of color.
D) are similar to the eyes of octopi.
Q5) The light-sensitive cells in our eyes are the rods and the _____.
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Chapter 27: Skeletons, Muscles, and Movement
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Q1) You can wave "hello" to a friend, because you have
A) joints.
B) muscles.
C) tendons.
D) all of the above
Q2) Ostriches are huge nonflying birds that can run at speeds of up to 40 miles per hour over long distances and maintain speeds of 30 miles per hour over longer distances. The legs of ostriches probably contain mostly________ muscle fibers.
Q3) A single muscle fiber from a flea can lift about the same weight as a single muscle fiber from a human.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Muscle contraction is caused by
A) movement of bones that anchor the muscles.
B) movement of sarcomeres along other sarcomeres.
C) sliding of myosin filaments along actin filaments.
D) contraction of actin and myosin filaments.
Q5) Tendons are connective tissues that connect __________ to bone.
Q6) Ligaments are connective tissues that connect __________ to bone.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Defenses against Disease
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Q1) During the inflammatory response, swelling occurs as a result of the leaking of ___________ out of the blood vessels.
Q2) Different genetic versions of a particular pathogen are known as different A) species.
B) strains.
C) antibodies.
D) disease hosts.
Q3) Each T cell and each B cell binds only to one specific type of A) antibody.
B) neutrophil.
C) antigen.
D) prostaglandin.
Q4) The human immune system contains trillions of specialized cells of several kinds, all of which help destroy invaders. What are these cells called?
A) red blood cells
B) white blood cells
C) lymphatic cells
D) blood plasma
Q5) A disease-causing agent is called a ________.
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Animal species in which the offspring tend to move away from their parents to live in slightly different habitats are likely to benefit from
A) asexual reproduction.
B) sexual reproduction.
C) providing DNA for transformation.
D) a gametophyte generation.
Q2) Different versions of the protein hemoglobin are found in a baby's blood cells at different stages of development. Changes in the hemoglobin type present are most likely the result of
A) what genes are transcribed.
B) whether or not the transcribed mRNA can leave the nucleus.
C) how translated RNA is cut up.
D) how mRNA is distributed in the red blood cells.
Q3) The mitochondria in your cells are a mix of the mitochondria found in your father's sperm and your mother's egg cell because the contents of the sperm cytoplasm are dumped into the egg cell during fertilization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In humans development from zygote to completion is about __ weeks.
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Chapter 30: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Female frogs deposit their eggs in water and then often leave the area, saving energy by not having to raise their young. Based on this information, should you expect the species-specific frog calls to be a learned or a fixed behavior?
A) They are learned, because the young frogs can learn calls from each other.
B) They are learned, because all frog calls must be learned from adults of the species.
C) They are fixed, because all vocalizations are behaviors that animals are born with.
D) They are fixed, because the young frogs are not raised by adults that teach the young their specific call.
Q2) Human culture is not a result of A) fixed behavior.
B) learned behavior.
C) communication.
D) social behavior.
Q3) Playing, although energetically costly, is a form of learning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For a gosling, ________ means forming an image of who is a parent early in life.
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Chapter 31: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) Mosses would be placed in which group of plants?
A) gymnosperms
B) bryophytes
C) angiosperms
D) ferns
Q2) Flowers, rather than leaves, develop when a small number of genes are turned on.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Carnivorous plants are often found in habitats deficient in nitrogen and phosphorus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Peanuts and potatoes are from plants that belong to the A) gymnosperm group.
B) bryophyte group.
C) angiosperm group.
D) seedless vascular plant group.
Q5) Plants have two types of vascular tissue, xylem, which transports ______, and phloem, which transports sugars.
Q6) The simplest plants, lacking even vascular tissues, are the _____ .
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Sexual reproduction in mosses and angiosperms result in a zygote and seed, respectively. In what way(s) is the seed superior to the zygote?
A) The zygote must grow immediately, but the seed can lie dormant until growth conditions are favorable.
B) The seed carries its own food to start life while the zygote is nourished by the female gametophyte.
C) The seed has a coat, which protects it from the environment, while the zygote lacks a coat.
D) all of the above
Q2) Which of the following animals would be least likely to disperse seeds?
A) deer
B) mice
C) honeybees
D) humans
Q3) Pollen is produced in the A) ovules.
B) anthers.
C) style.
D) stigma.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: The Biosphere
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Q1) Chaparral and grasslands are examples of ______ that receive moderate amount of rainfall.
Q2) Species that are accidentally or intentionally released into new geographic regions are called __________ species.
Q3) The rotation of Earth causes winds to _______ as they move across the Earth's surface.
Q4) An ecosystem consists of both biotic (living) and _______ (nonliving) factors.
Q5) One of the primary forces that cause atmospheric circulation is convection, which occurs when
A) the rotation of Earth exerts friction on the atmosphere.
B) warm air at the surface rises and displaces the cooler air above it.
C) winds blowing north or south are deflected to the left or right by the Earth's rotation.
D) the tilt of the Earth's axis of rotation causes the atmosphere to slide toward the equator.
Q6) Despite the absence of photosynthesis, the continuous settling of detritus makes the _______ zone of the coastal ocean a stable habitat.
Q7) An _______ studies the many levels of interaction between organisms and their environments.
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Chapter 34: Growth of Populations
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Q1) The current rate of human population growth is
A) not sustainable.
B) sustainable.
C) a tightly linked cycle.
D) fairly low.
Q2) The approximate number of humans on Earth is 7 billion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When an S-shaped growth curve levels it is an indication that a population may have reached its carrying capacity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The definition of an "area," relative to a population study, A) is constant.
B) is always 1 square meter.
C) depends on the questions being asked.
D) depends on whether the area is terrestrial or aquatic.
Q5) A _______-shaped curve describes population growth that occurs when a population grows exponentially.
Q6) Weather is a density-_______ factor that can affect the size of a population.
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Chapter 35: Interactions among Organisms
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Q1) Suppose that two species of hummingbirds have very similar tongue lengths in regions where only one of the two species occurs, but that one species has a shorter tongue and the other a longer tongue in regions where both species occur. This would most likely be an example of
A) seed-dispersal mutualism.
B) parasitism.
C) character displacement.
D) a predator/prey interaction.
Q2) Which of the following symbols represents a mutualistic relationship?
A) +/-
B) +/+
C) o/+
D) -/-
Q3) Which of the following symbols represents a competitive interaction?
A) +/-
B) +/+
C) o/+
D) -/-
Q4) _______ is an interaction between two species that benefits both species.
Q5) The geographic area over which a species is found is called its ____________.
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Chapter 36: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) During _________ newly created habitat is inhabited.
A) primary succession
B) climax community formation
C) disturbance colonization
D) keystone recovery
Q2) Which of the following statements about communities is true?
A) They usually have few species of organisms.
B) There can be complex interactions between the organisms that make up a community.
C) They are more abundant in temperate areas.
D) They are made up of mammal species only.
Q3) _________ are those organisms obtaining energy by eating all or portions of other organisms or their remains.
Q4) The removal of a keystone species from a community usually results in
A) the death of all other community members.
B) the disappearance of that community.
C) substantial changes in the abundance of many species.
D) minor changes, if any.
Q5) A _______ is a single sequence of who eats whom in a community.
Q6) __________ consumers feed on primary consumers as part or all of their diet.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the impact of human activities on the cycling of nutrients in natural systems?
A) Human activities are essentially benign and have little lasting impact on either atmospheric or sedimentary nutrient cycling.
B) Human activities have profoundly impacted nutrient cycling, particularly with those nutrients that cycle within the atmosphere.
C) Human activities like mining, construction, and road building disrupt the Earth's surface and greatly increase those nutrients with sedimentary cycling pathways.
D) Human activities in general significantly enhance nutrient availability and are almost always associated with ecosystem improvements.
Q2) Human activities
A) rarely affect nutrient cycles.
B) can alter nutrient cycles on a global scale.
C) tend to cause only local changes in nutrient cycles.
D) generally improve nutrient cycling in ecosystems.
Q3) Rainfall with a low pH is called _______.
Q4) Eventually, all biomass produced by any organism is consumed by _______.
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Chapter 38: Global Change
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Q1) All global changes presently observed on Earth are due to human activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Carbon dioxide makes up approximately _______ percent of Earth's atmosphere.
A) 94
B) 44
C) 4
D) 0.04
Q3) The atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide is presently approaching values equal to those believed to have existed 420,000 years ago.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Having a sustainable impact on the Earth and our biosphere means that we must A) produce more fertilizers to feed a growing population.
B) take advantage of global warming by growing more crops in areas that were previously unavailable for agriculture.
C) find ways to recycle carbon dioxide more rapidly.
D) create better balances between our consumption of resources and the rates at which they can be replenished.
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Chapter 39: Biodiversity and People
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Q1) A current hypothesis suggests the decline in amphibian reproductive success is caused by an increased exposure to _______ light that in turn is related to global climate change.
Q2) As humans, our primary concern(s) with the present mass extinction should be that
A) this extinction is unnatural and avoidable.
B) numerous potential products will never be developed if the biological sources that provide them disappear.
C) humans populations might be seriously impacted if the ecosystems we depend on disappear.
D) all of the above
Q3) Cataclysmic events have the potential to render vast regions of the earth uninhabitable and exterminate their biota; the most recent event occurred 65 million years ago when a(n) _______struck the Earth.
Q4) Many yet unknown species of insects are likely to live in the nearly inaccessible branches of the ___________ of tropical rainforests.
Q5) _______ activity appears to have the potential to cause a decline in the diversity of life on Earth equal to those of past mass extinctions.
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Chapter 40: Cancer: Cell Division Out of Control
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Q1) Some carcinogens can bind with DNA and form a(n) _______ that causes mistakes in DNA synthesis.
Q2) In many human colon tumors, the beginning of true malignancy is the result of the A) loss of part of chromosome 18.
B) inactivation of both oncogenes.
C) inactivation of both proto-oncogenes.
D) arrival of cancerous cells from other parts of the body.
Q3) An overactive viral protein _______ can turn on signal cascades in a host, thus leading to cancer.
Q4) Which of the following is not true of cell division?
A) A cell has no control over how often it divides.
B) Negative growth regulators are used to halt cell division.
C) Numerous cellular proteins are affected by cell division signals.
D) Uncontrolled cell division can cause cancer.
Q5) A mutated version of a virus that cannot disable the p53 gene can be used to A) turn off the host cell's enzymatic activities.
B) repair defective genes.
C) turn off signal cascades.
D) kill cancer cells.
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Chapter 41: Harnessing the Human Genome
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Q1) Single nucleotide polymorphisms are single _______ differences within a DNA sequence.
Q2) Which proteins would probably be the most similar between humans and fruit flies?
A) the proteins used in cellular respiration
B) the proteins in nerve cells
C) the proteins in visual receptors
D) the proteins in taste receptors
Q3) Frederick Sanger
A) developed what would become the most widely used method for sequencing DNA.
B) showed that DNA was most probably the genetic material.
C) confirmed Mendel's laws using DNA patterns of inheritance.
D) published the complete genome for a virus.
Q4) Which of the following statements about the use of genomic research is false?
A) It allows the study of gene activity in the context of a whole cell or whole organism.
B) All the participants in a signal cascade can be observed working together.
C) It is possible to detect all the genes that are turned on or off in response to a hormone signal.
D) It does not produce much data, so the information is easy to analyze.
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Chapter 42: Humans and Evolution
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Q1) The big toe is opposable in all primates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not an advantage of being bipedal?
A) The additional height gained by standing on two legs allowed humans to easily see approaching predators.
B) Standing up freed up human hands allowing them to carry and use tools.
C) Standing up makes it easier to climb trees.
D) Walking on two feet is faster than walking on four feet.
Q3) Those involved in the ___________ movement strive to breed better humans by discouraging people with "bad" genes from breeding.
Q4) The human population today is large, highly technological, and mobile. Which of the following is not true?
A) Genetic drift is likely to play an increasing role in shaping human evolution.
B) Populations will tend to become more similar.
C) Technology will reduce selection pressure on characteristics such as poor hearing.
D) Genetic drift will have a weaker role in shaping human evolution.
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Chapter 43: Smoking--Beyond Lung Cancer
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Q1) Lung infections are more common in smokers because their lungs contain large amounts mucus in which bacteria can reside.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an accurate statement?
A) By the time cigarette smoke gets to the bronchioles, it has already affected cells in the bronchi.
B) By the time cigarette smoke gets to the bronchioles, it has already affected alveoli.
C) By the time cigarette smoke gets to the pharynx, it has already passed through the alveoli.
D) By the time cigarette smoke gets to the trachea, it has already passed through the tracheoles.
Q3) Recent research suggests that there may be a second chemical in tobacco smoke that
A) speeds up release of dopamine.
B) slows the breakdown of dopamine.
C) affects pleasure centers in the brain.
D) is twice as addictive as nicotine.
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Chapter 44: Feeding a Hungry Planet
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Q1) Plant breeding remains one of the most promising means of increasing yields, even with progress in genetic engineering, because genetic engineering
A) works on very few plant varieties while breeding works with all plants.
B) involves those genes that have small effects while breeding involves genes with large effects.
C) improves plants by reducing the requirement for pollinators.
D) works on single genes while breeding involves many genes, often including some not yet identified.
Q2) About half of the 40,000 deaths caused each day by malnutrition are children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Although an individual may consume enough calories, without the proper mineral nutrients malnutrition can still exist. The best solution for mineral malnutrition is to
A) increase the amount of animal protein in people's diets.
B) increase the amount of marine fish and shellfish in people's diets.
C) develop and distribute crops that provide better mineral nutrition than those currently used.
D) increase the amount of synthetic vitamins in people's diets.
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Chapter 45: Building a Sustainable Society
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Q1) The Index of Sustainable Economic Welfare is more inclusive than the Gross National Product index.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One means of increasing the amount of calories available for human consumption would be to
A) use the world's grain crops to raise more herbivorous livestock.
B) encourage people to simplify their diets by selecting foods from the bottom of the food web.
C) use environmentally safe pesticides to eliminate the insects that compete for our food.
D) prohibit the commercial marketing of secondary and tertiary consumers.
Q3) Building a sustainable society
A) will be accomplished primarily by scientists and economists.
B) needs to be carried out by national governments.
C) can include even the small-scale efforts of individuals.
D) should be a primary responsibility of the world's multinational corporations.
Q4) Overuse of aquifers can cause cities to subside as it has done in Mexico City.
A)True
B)False
Page 47
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