General Biology Exam Review - 2108 Verified Questions

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General Biology Exam Review

Course Introduction

General Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of living systems. This course covers the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, biodiversity, and ecological interactions. Students will explore topics such as molecular biology, energy transformation, physiology, and the diversity of life forms. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory work, the course emphasizes scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and the relevance of biology to real-world issues, preparing students for advanced studies in biology and related fields.

Recommended Textbook

Biology The Essentials 2nd Edition by Hoefnagels

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30 Chapters

2108 Verified Questions

2108 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Scientific Study of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) In an experimental procedure,what response of the phenomenon is measured by the investigator?

A)independent variable

B)dependent variable

C)control group

D)standardized variable

E)both dependent variable and standardized variable

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following are independent variables in this experiment?

A)amount of ammonium nitrate and light

B)amount of water

C)amount of carbon dioxide

D)height of the plants and amount of light

E)height of the plants

Answer: A

Q3) The scientific method cannot be used to answer questions about immaterial and philosophical issues.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) As part of an exam,you are given a powder to analyze.When you perform various tests,you find that it contains a single chemical that changes the pH of neutral water to a pH of 6.You would conclude that the chemical is a

A)weak acid.

B)neutral.

C)weak base.

D)strong aciD.

E)strong basE.

Answer: A

Q2) <sup>14</sup>C and <sup>14</sup>N have the same

A)atomic number.

B)number of protons.

C)atomic mass.

D)number of neutrons.

E)number of electrons.

Answer: C

Q3) Carbon is a compound.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 3: Cells

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cells typically keep their surface to volume ratio low.If a cell was a cube and you doubled the height,width,and length of the cell,how much would the surface area increase?

A)2-fold

B)4-fold

C)It would stay the same.

D)9-fold

E)8-fold

Answer: B

Q2) You discover a new life form,and study it under an electron microscope.You find that it has no organelles,a peptidoglycan cell wall,and fatty acids in its plasma membrane.You conclude that the new life form is in domain

A)BacteriA.

B)Archaea.

C)Eukarya.

D)Protista.

E)Animalia.

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: The Energy of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: Does Natural Selection Maintain Cystic Fibrosis?," why does water leave the cell by osmosis after the active transport of chloride ions out of the cell by CFTR?

A)The cell is now in a hypertonic solution.

B)The cell is now in a hypotonic solution.

C)The cell is now in an isotonic solution.

D)The cell needs to regenerate the ATP used in active transport.

E)The cell must pump out water to avoid bursting.

Q2) The reactants of photosynthesis are

A)water and carbon dioxide.

B)organic compounds.

C)glucose and water.

D)glucose and carbon dioxide.

E)glucose and sunlight.

Q3) Dye placed at one end of a beaker of otherwise pure water will

A)diffuse towards the other side.

B)remain in place.

C)slowly bleach.

D)form crystals.

E)No answer is correct.

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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most biologists agree that the light reactions are less important than the carbon reactions.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What is produced in the light reactions that is used in the carbon reactions of photosynthesis?

A)ATP and NADPH

B)ADP and NADP<sup>+</sup>

C)carbon dioxide and oxygen

D)water and glucose

E)oxygen and glucose

Q3) Which organism's life depends on photosynthesis?

A)corals

B)oak trees

C)humans

D)sea slug Elysia chlorotica

E)All answers are correct.

Q4) The light reactions produce ATP,while the carbon reactions consume it.

A)True

B)False

Page 7

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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the function of the two membranes of mitochondria?

A)Glycolysis occurs in the membranes.

B)Protons are pumped into the space between the membranes.

C)Oxygen is transported across the membranes.

D)The mitochondria may rupture due to osmosis without two membranes.

E)The Krebs cycle enzymes are found on the outer mitochondrial membranE.

Q2) Unlike animals,plants perform cellular respiration in their chloroplasts.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The electron transport chain occurs in the A)lysosome.

B)nucleus.

C)cytoplasm.

D)ribosome.

E)mitochondrion.

Q4) Aerobic respiration uses oxygen as its final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Dna Structure and Gene Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) Plant cells may help the whole plant fight a virus by dying on purpose.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What process converts the mRNA "message" into a sequence of amino acids?

A)transcription

B)replication

C)mitosis

D)amino acid synthesis

E)translation

Q3) If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence ATTCGACGCTA,then the complementary strand has the nitrogenous base sequence

A)TAAGCTGCGAT.

B)ATCGCAGCTTA.

C)UAAGCUGCGAU.

D)ATTCGACGCTA.

Q4) A gene is any DNA sequence that is transcribed to any type of RNA.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: DNA Replication, binary Fission, and Mitosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following does not increase the risk for developing cancer?

A)vigorous exercise

B)poor diet

C)mutated genes

D)sun exposure

E)tobacco

Q2) The plant cell in the image labeled "D" is in the cell cycle stage

A)metaphase.

B)anaphase.

C)prophase.

D)telophase.

E)interphasE.

Q3) How does the space between our fingers arise?

A)The cells form by apoptosis.

B)Mitosis of the cells is blocked.

C)The cells die by apoptosis.

D)Meiosis of the cells is blockeD.

E)The cells become part of the fingers.

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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sexual reproduction includes

A)mitosis,gamete formation,and fertilization.

B)mitosis,meiosis,and gamete formation.

C)meiosis,gamete formation,and fertilization.

D)mitosis,fertilization,and meiosis.

E)No answer is correct.

Q2) Fraternal twins (dizygotic)result from the fertilization of

A)two eggs and two sperm.

B)two eggs and one sperm.

C)one egg and two sperm.

D)one egg and one sperm.

E)two eggs and one sperm OR one egg and two sperm.

Q3) If you were looking at diagrams of the human body and were asked to locate the germ cells,you would point to the A)bone marrow.

B)blood.

C)brain.

D)spleen.

E)testes and ovaries.

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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) The segregation of alleles for a gene on one chromosome does not influence the segregation of alleles for a gene on another chromosome during gamete formation is Mendel's

A)law of independent assortment.

B)law of random fertilization.

C)law of population dynamics.

D)law of crossing over.

E)law of segregation.

Q2) Genotype means

A)the number of gametes in an individual.

B)the combination of alleles in an individual.

C)the number of chromosomes in an individual.

D)the observable expression of the genes in an individual.

E)the genes an individual has.

Q3) Recombinant chromosomes have a mix of paternal and maternal alleles due to A)random fertilization.

B)linkage.

C)independent assortment.

D)crossing over.

E)mutation.

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Chapter 11: Dna Technology

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Sample Questions

Q1) How does DNA profiling detect genetic differences between individuals?

A)uses short tandem repeats and other variable parts of the genome

B)uses shared genetic sequences

C)uses entire genomes

D)uses detection of non-AGCT bases

E)uses only coding regions of the genome

Q2) The results of DNA sequencing are used

A)to predict protein sequences.

B)to compare DNA sequences between humans.

C)to compare DNA sequences between different species.

D)to compare DNA sequences between related extinct and extant organisms.

E)All answers are correct.

Q3) Gene probes locate specific DNA sequences by

A)binding with the complementary sequence in a genome.

B)turning off genes in specialized cells.

C)creating cloned genes.

D)electrophoresis.

E)All answers are correct.

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13

Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change

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Sample Questions

Q1) Natural populations usually fulfill the conditions needed for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The frequency of the sickle cell allele is kept up by the heterozygote advantage under natural selection.

A)True

B)False

Q3) At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

A)allele frequencies remain constant from one generation to the next so evolution does not occur.

B)None of the answers are correct.

C)allele frequencies remain constant from one generation to the next so evolution occurs.

D)allele frequencies change from one generation to the next so evolution occurs.

E)allele frequencies change from one generation to the next so evolution does not occur.

Q4) Evolution occurs in individuals,not populations.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) When ocean levels dropped about 70 million years ago,marsupial mammals moved into North America and displaced many of the placental mammal species.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In the section "Investigating Life: Evolving Backwards," how did the scientists test the hypothesis?

A)Examined decrease in length of hindlimbs in land-dwelling snakes.

B)Compared anatomy of fossil ancestors and extant snakes.

C)Examined decrease in length of hindlimbs in marine snakes.

D)Compared terrestrial,freshwater,and marine snakes.

E)Compared anatomy of snakes,other reptiles,mammals,and birds.

Q3) The half life of <sup>14</sup>C is 5,730 years.11,460 years after an organism dies what percent of the initial <sup>14</sup>C will still be present in the organism bones?

A)50%

B)25%

C)75%

D)100%

E)0%

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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction

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Sample Questions

Q1) The impact of a large meteorite with Earth would have most likely caused mass extinctions by

A)causing a great prolonged rise in the earth's temperature and destroying plant life.

B)creating large clouds of dust that blocked out sunlight only.

C)causing a great prolonged rise in the earth's temperature only.

D)creating large clouds of dust that blocked out sunlight and destroying plant life.

E)destroying only plant lifE.

Q2) Formation of a tetraploid plant species from two different diploid parental species of plants is an example of A)punctuated equilibrium.

B)gradualism.

C)extinction.

D)a postzygotic barrier to evolution.

E)a prezygotic barrier to evolution.

Q3) The more heritable traits organisms share,the more taxonomic levels they share.

A)True B)False

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16

Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Scientists have fossils of the first life on Earth.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Saccharomyces is commonly known as

A)an antibiotic.

B)the "death angel."

C)mildew.

D)yeast for making bread,wine,and beer.

E)the common bread mold.

Q3) The rigid barrier that surrounds most prokaryotes is the A)cell membrane.

B)flagellum.

C)ribosome.

D)cell wall.

E)cytoplasm.

Q4) Multicellular organisms generally consist of a large number of identical cells.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants

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Sample Questions

Q1) The four phyla of the gymnosperms are

A)monocotyledons,dicotyledons,conifers,and cycads.

B)horsetails,true ferns,whisk ferns,and club mosses.

C)conifers,monocotyledons,dicotyledons,and cycads.

D)mosses,liverworts,club mosses,and hornworts.

E)conifers,cycads,ginkgos,and gnetophytes.

Q2) In alternation of generations,a diploid sporophyte goes through meiosis to form ____ spores.

A)diploid

B)tetraploid

C)haploid

D)uniploid

E)no spores (this occurs in mitosis,not meiosis).

Q3) Which is not a member of the gymnosperms?

A)conifers

B)ferns

C)gnetophytes

D)cycads

E)ginkgos

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following does not have a true coelom?

A)earthworm

B)snail

C)flatworm

D)sea star

E)insect

Q2) Sea cucumbers and sea urchins belong to the phylum

A)CnidariA.

B)Arthropoda.

C)Echinodermata.

D)Nematoda.

E)Mollusca.

Q3) An internal membrane in chordates that protects the developing fetus is the notochord.

A)True

B)False

Q4) If you had found a flattened worm with bilateral symmmetry,you would know that you had found a flatworm.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: Populations

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Sample Questions

Q1) The study of the relationships among organisms and the environment is A)ethology.

B)habitology.

C)ergonomics.

D)ecology.

E)geology.

Q2) Hydra,a type of cnidarian,have equal survival rates through life because they are equally fit at all stages.Hydra are an example of an organism with a type ______ survivorship curve.

A)0

B)I

C)II

D)III

E)IV

Q3) A human population with a large percentage of pre-reproductive individuals is common in

A)less-developed countries and will most likely increase in size.

B)more-developed countries and will most likely increase in size.

C)less-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size.

D)more-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size.

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Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Carbon returns to the atmosphere

A)as carbon dioxide.

B)from respiration of plants.

C)by the burning of fossil fuels.

D)from respiration of animals.

E)All answers are correct.

Q2) A species that is so important to its community that its removal can dismantle a food web is termed a

A)capstone species.

B)flagstone species.

C)cobblestone species.

D)cornerstone species.

E)keystone species.

Q3) Which ecosystem has a very high net primary productivity?

A)desert

B)tropical rain forest

C)temperate forest

D)boreal forest

E)tundra

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the benefit of biodiversity to humans?

A)Production of oxygen for aerobic respiration to make ATP

B)Energy

C)Source of drugs

D)Variety of food sources

E)All answers are correct.

Q2) The ozone layer is part of the

A)ionosphere.

B)stratosphere.

C)troposphere.

D)biosphere.

E)limnetic zonE.

Q3) Which of the following is not one of the world's endangered species?

A)Sumatran rhino

B)California condor

C)zebra mussel

D)harlequin frog

E)staghorn coral

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Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) The point at which one or more leaves attach to the stem of a plant is a A)petiole.

B)internode.

C)anther.

D)sieve tube.

E)nodE.

Q2) A tomato,a squash,or a bean: any one of these would be considered a fruit for which reason?

A)They contain seeds from a flowering plant.

B)They were produced by a flowering plant.

C)They can have a color other than green.

D)They grow above the grounD.

E)They can be eaten raw.

Q3) "P" is the chemical symbol for A)nickel.

B)potassium.

C)plutonium.

D)phosphorus.

E)copper.

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cytokinins are plant hormones that stimulate the ripening of fruit.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The sporophyte generation of a plant is _________________ and produces ___________________ spores.

A)triploid;diploid

B)haploid;diploid

C)triploid;haploid

D)diploid;haploid

E)multicellular;diploid

Q3) Angiosperms owe their widespread distribution to their production of pollen,seeds and flowers.What is the greatest advantage to the production of seeds?

A)It allows fertilization in the absence of water.

B)It protects and nourishes the embryo.

C)It is necessary for sexual reproduction.

D)It allows fertilization in moist areas.

E)It promotes pollination.

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The tissue type that provides contractions that power movement is A)epithelial.

B)connective.

C)muscle.

D)nervous.

E)All answers are correct.

Q2) The type of epithelial tissue that forms a multiple layer of flattened cells is

A)stratified squamous.

B)simple squamous.

C)simple cuboidal.

D)simple columnar.

E)stratified columnar.

Q3) The tissue type that acts as a lining of organs,and also serves in absorption and secretion,and conducts gas diffusion is A)connective.

B)nervous.

C)muscle.

D)epithelial.

E)All answers are correct.

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25

Chapter 24: The Nervous System and the Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Odorous molecules are first detected in the nose,are transduced,and travel to the olfactory bulb and then to the cerebral cortex.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Receptors for the special senses are limited to the A)head.

B)tongue.

C)ears.

D)feet.

E)abdomen.

Q3) Toxins produced by scorpions cause sodium ion channels to become stuck open.These toxins cause pain by

A)depolarizing motor neurons.

B)polarizing sensory neurons.

C)polarizing motor neurons.

D)polarizing interneurons.

E)depolarizing sensory neurons.

Q4) The myelin sheath around an axon is continuous. A)True

B)False

Page 26

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Chapter 25: The Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) BPA would be considered which kind of molecule?

A)a neurotoxin

B)an endocrine disruptor

C)an antibiotic

D)a synthetic hormone

E)a positive feedback stimulator

Q2) A person suffering from acromegaly produces too much ___________ as a(n)______________.

A)testosterone;child

B)testosterone;adult

C)growth hormone;child

D)growth hormone;adult

E)insulin;child

Q3) Biochemicals produced in a gland that travel through the blood stream and alter the metabolism of specific target cells are

A)enzymes.

B)pheromones.

C)neurotransmitters.

D)hormones.

E)pectines.

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Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is not a part of the appendicular skeleton?

A)pelvic girdle

B)sternum

C)pectoral girdle

D)femur

E)humerus

Q2) Osteoarthritis is caused when bones in a joint rub against each other directly.What happens in osteoarthritis?

A)New bone is made in the joint.

B)Cartilage is destroyed.

C)Ligaments are torn.

D)The synovial membrane is destroyeD.

E)Tendons are torn.

Q3) Muscle rich in slow-twitch fibers is darker than muscle rich in fast-twitch fibers.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The precursor of bone is cartilage.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratorysystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) A dual-chamber pacemaker is surgically placed in a patient's chest.Wires then carry pulses to the right atrium and the right ventricle.Why would the pulses be carried to the right chambers of the heart and not the left chambers?

A)The left chambers are reduced or absent in many subadults.

B)The right chambers of the heart are weaker and need more stimulation.

C)Only the right chambers of the heart need to contract to move blood to the lungs.

D)It is easier to run the wires from the pacemaker through the vena cava.

E)Once the right chambers are activated the pulse will be carried to the left chambers.

Q2) You are a medical student on rounds with your instructor,and you are told to help measure blood pressure,so you hand the instructor a(n) A)barometer.

B)stethoscope.

C)electrocardiogram.

D)sphygmomanometer.

E)hygrometer.

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29

Chapter 28: The Digestive and Urinary Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Animals that hunt and eat essentially only other animals are A)omnivores.

B)carnivores.

C)herbivores.

D)detritivores.

E)frugivores.

Q2) Animals that eat a broad variety of foods,including plants and animals,are A)carnivores.

B)herbivores.

C)detritivores.

D)omnivores.

E)insectivores.

Q3) Organisms that conduct intracellular digestion and organisms that conduct extracellular digestion both

A)use digestive enzymes only.

B)break down their food in contained areas only.

C)break down their food with digestive enzymes within contained areas.

D)begin breakdown of their food in the mouth before traveling to the stomach.

E)utilize a stomach for partial or complete breakdown of food.

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Chapter 29: The Immune System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The innate chemical defense substance that activates T cells and B cells is A)histamine.

B)complement protein.

C)interleukin.

D)All answers are correct.

E)epinephrinE.

Q2) Rh incompatibility is due to an immune reaction to what by a pregnant woman?

A)a self antigen on red blood cells

B)a foreign antibody on red blood cells

C)a foreign antigen on red blood cells

D)a self antibody on red blood cells

E)No answer is correct.

Q3) The second time that an immune system sees an antigen,a secondary immune reaction will take place.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A very rapid response to a pathogen,involving antibodies,will be a secondary immune reaction will take place.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/53503

Sample Questions

Q1) In the male,the sac-like structure that contains the testes is the A)epididymis.

B)vas deferens.

C)scrotum.

D)ureter.

E)seminal vesiclE.

Q2) Athletes who take synthetic steroids can become sterile due to lack of sperm production.This is because the synthetic steroids cause what?

A)a decrease in FSH and LH production

B)an increase in FSH and LH production

C)a decrease in FSH and an increase in LH production

D)an increase in FSH and a decrease in LH production

E)No answer is correct.

Q3) Why does the expulsion of the placenta not occur until the final stage of labor?

A)to remove waste from the fetus during labor

B)to provide nourishment to the fetus during labor

C)to provide oxygen to the fetus during labor

D)to remove carbon dioxide from the fetus during labor

E)All answers are correct.

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