General Biology Exam Review
Course Introduction
General Biology is an introductory course that covers the fundamental concepts of living organisms and life processes. Topics include the structure and function of cells, genetics and inheritance, evolution and natural selection, biological diversity, plant and animal physiology, ecology, and the scientific method. The course emphasizes the principles and mechanisms underlying biological systems, preparing students for advanced studies in the life sciences and related fields. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and discussions, students develop a foundational understanding of biology and its relevance to current scientific issues and everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of The Living World 4th Edition by George B Johnson
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33 Chapters
1593 Verified Questions
1593 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many people think the term "theory" means someone's idea about something.Explain the scientific use of the term "theory",especially as it relates to the biological concept of evolution.
Answer: No Answer
Q2) Why is the study of biology central to the understanding and solving of the world's great environmental problems?
Answer: No Answer
Q3) We have all heard that dietary fats are linked to higher incidences of heart disease and cancer in humans.Choose the proper hypothesis that a scientist could test to examine this observation.
A) Eating more meat causes cancer.
B) Eating a diet of lard makes you fat.
C) Dietary fat,heart disease,and cancer are all somehow interrelated.
D) Fat levels above 30% of calories in the diet are correlated with an increase in heart disease.
Answer: D
Q4) All organisms on earth encode their genes in strands of _________.
Answer: DNA
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Due to hydrogen bonding,ice is _______ dense than water. Answer: less
Q2) We use the __________ scale to measure concentrations of hydrogen ions in a solution.
Answer: pH
Q3) The type of bond that forms between two atoms when electrons are shared is a(n)_______________ bond.
A) hydrogen
B) covalent
C) kinetic
D) ionic
Answer: B
Q4) The volume of space around a nucleus where an electron is most likely to be located is called the _______________ of that electron.
A) energy level
B) spin
C) pathway
D) orbital Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a protein is composed of more than one polypeptide chain,the arrangement of the chains is called the ____________ structure.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
Answer: D
Q2) Making and breaking molecules in the body require the aid of ____________ to help the reactions proceed.
A) heat
B) water
C) blood
D) enzymes
Answer: D
Q3) Which polymer serves as the information storage molecule for cells?
A) Carbohydrate
B) Nucleic acid
C) Protein
D) Lipids
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give the three major principles of the cell theory.
Q2) In dividing eukaryotic cells,DNA is packaged into compact units called
Q3) The passive movement of molecules along a concentration gradient is called ____________________.
Q4) The nucleus of the eukaryotic cell functions
A) as the command center for the cell.
B) to store the cell's hereditary information.
C) to house the nucleolus.
D) All of the choices are correct.
Q5) Describe the path that a protein destined for secretion takes,beginning at its synthesis to when it leaves the cell.
Q6) ______________ function in the collection,packaging,and distribution of molecules made in the cell.
A) Mitochondria
B) Ribosomes
C) Golgi bodies
D) Vesicles
Q7) Discuss the functions of the cytoskeleton of the cell.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Energy flows into the biological world from the A) oceans.
B) plants.
C) sun.
D) volcanoes.
E) large animals.
Q2) The process of lowering the activation energy of a reaction is
A) respiration.
B) catalysis.
C) oxidation.
D) photosynthesis.
Q3) If a ball begins to roll down an incline,its ________ energy is converted into _______ energy.
Q4) Which of the following processes does NOT use ATP?
A) Muscle contraction
B) Active transport
C) Heat production
D) Diffusion of oxygen into the blood
E) Cytoplasmic transport
Q5) The study of energy is called ______________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun
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Q1) C<sub>4</sub> photosynthesis is an adaptation to hot,dry conditions in which
A) CO<sub>2</sub> is fixed and concentrated in the leaf.
B) water is stored in the stem.
C) oxygen is stored in the root.
D) light energy is stored in chloroplasts.
Q2) Which of the following does not conduct photosynthesis?
A) Algae
B) Leaves of plants
C) Some bacteria
D) Roots of plants
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Within the photosystem,the key chlorophyll molecule that donates a high-energy electron to the electron transport system is called the
A) proton pump.
B) ATP synthase.
C) rubisco.
D) reaction center.
E) retinal.
Q4) Explain the role that water plays in the light-dependent reactions.
Q5) Stoma open at night in plants that use _______ photosynthesis.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrons generated from the Krebs cycle go next to the A) fermentation pathway.
B) formation of alcohol.
C) electron transport chain.
D) fluid portion of the mitochondrion.
Q2) Explain which process evolved first-glycolysis or the Krebs cycle.
Q3) Amino acids from proteins undergo _____ prior to entering into the Krebs cycle.
Q4) Compare ethanol and lactic acid fermentation with regard to their products and the types of cells in which they occur.
Q5) During the second stage of cellular respiration,the ______________ takes place in the mitochondria and generates NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>.
Q6) How many net ATP are made in glycolysis?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 6
D) 34
E) 38
Q7) Common end products of fermentation include __________ and ______.
Q8) _________ is an electron carrier similar to NADH.
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Chapter 8: Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sister chromatids are separated and pulled to opposite poles during ___________________ of mitosis.
Q2) Chromosomes are composed of a complex of DNA and protein called A) spindle.
B) centrioles.
C) chromatin.
D) cytochrome.
E) cytokinesis.
Q3) Pairs of chromosomes that have the same size,shape,and function are _________________________________.
Q4) In which cell type would a cell plate form after telophase is complete?
A) Animal
B) Bacteria
C) Plant
D) Protist
Q5) DNA within chromosomes is wrapped around proteins with positive charges called A) chromatids.
B) histones.
C) centromeres.
D) kinetochores.
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Chapter 9: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which stage do chromosomes line up in pairs on the equatorial plane?
A) Metaphase I
B) Anaphase II
C) Metaphase II
D) Telophase I
E) Telophase II
Q2) In plants like the fern,haploid cells produced by meiosis divide by __________ to form a multicellular haploid phase.
A) meiosis
B) binary fission
C) mitosis
D) budding
Q3) The main difference between prophase I and prophase II is that in prophase I
A) synapsis and crossing over occurs.
B) the nucleolus disappears.
C) the nuclear membrane disappears.
D) chromosomes coil.
E) the spindle forms.
Q4) In most respects,the second meiotic division is identical to a normal _________ division.
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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemophilia is a group of different inherited blood-clotting disorders.Which is true about hemophilia?
A) It causes sterility
B) It is more common in females than in males
C) It is more common in males than in females
D) It is inherited only on the autosomes
Q2) White flower color is recessive to purple.What is the genotypic ratio when two heterozygous pea plants are crossed?
A) 3: 1
B) 4: 0
C) 1: 2: 1
D) 3 : 1
E) 1: 1: 1
Q3) Genes are made of
A) ribosomes.
B) cytoplasm.
C) protein.
D) DNA.
E) lipids.
Q4) A genetic family tree can more correctly be called a ____________.
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Chapter 11: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the sequence of one strand of DNA is CATTACGGG,then the complementary strand would be GTAATGCCC.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A base substitution will lead to a frame-shift mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of mutation could have the biggest evolutionary consequence?
A) A mutation in a lung cell
B) A mutation in a kidney cell
C) A mutation in a stomach cell
D) A mutation in a germ-line cell
Q4) The place where the parent DNA molecule becomes unzipped for replication is called the ___________________.
Q5) When Griffith injected a mixture of dead S bacteria and live,capsuleless R bacteria,the mice
A) remained healthy.
B) died of blood poisoning.
C) became ill but lived.
D) reproduced quicker.
13
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Chapter 12: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) During protein synthesis,_______________ occurs in the nucleus as a copy of DNA is made into mRNA,and ______________ begins in the cytoplasm,when mRNA associates with a ribosome.
Q2) If an mRNA codon reads UAC,its complementary anticodon will be A) AUG.
B) CAG.
C) ATG.
D) TUC.
Q3) Said simply,the Central Dogma of gene expression is as follows: DNA is transcribed to produce mRNA,which is translated to produce A) promoters.
B) nucleosomes.
C) operators.
D) proteins.
Q4) Explain why eukaryotic mRNA must be processed before it leaves the nucleus.
Q5) The relationship between mRNA codons and amino acids is called the _______________.
Q6) Describe the differences between DNA and RNA.
Q7) A mature mRNA transcript has had its ____________ removed during processing.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The New Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of probes to produce unique banding patterns of DNA on film is called A) PCR.
B) cDNA amplification. C) DNA fingerprinting.
D) recombinant DNA.
Q2) All of these are types of noncoding human DNA except A) structural DNA. B) repeated sequences. C) transposable elements. D) exons.
Q3) What are some of the benefits of transferring genes from one organism to another?
Q4) An adult stem cell differs from an embryonic stem cell in that it is not A) capable of further cell divisions. B) totipotent.
C) able to accept methyl groups.
D) able to produce a blastocyst.
Q5) The name of the virus that causes common colds and has been used as a vector of genes is _______.
Q6) What is the advantage of using restriction enzymes to cleave DNA?
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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Darwin better understood the mechanism for natural selection after he read a book by ______________ on the rate of growth of populations.
A) Alfred Wallace
B) Charles Lyell
C) Thomas Malthus
D) Jean Lamarck
Q2) In pools below waterfalls,where predation is _____,male guppies are _____,whereas in pools above waterfalls where predation is ______,male guppies are ______.
A) low,more colorful,high,drab colored
B) low,drab colored,high,more colorful
C) high,drab colored,low,more colorful
D) high,more colorful,low,drab colored
Q3) The final stimulus that convinced Darwin to publish his findings came from ______________ who had come to the same conclusion as Darwin from his own observations.
A) Thomas Malthus
B) Alfred Russell Wallace
C) John Henslow
D) Charles Lyell
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Chapter 15: Exploring Biological Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many different species of organisms do scientists believe exist on earth today?
A) 10,000
B) 1.5 million
C) 10 million
D) 1 billion
Q2) One of the first people to suggest a general definition for a species was
A) Carolus Linnaeus.
B) John Ray.
C) Charles Darwin.
D) Joseph Priestly.
Q3) Cladograms will group birds with reptiles because these groups share A) derived characteristics.
B) a common ancestor.
C) many similar characteristics.
D) All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are eukaryotic organelles that appear to have arisen by a process called ____________.
Q5) The taxonomic level just below kingdom is ____________.
Q6) Do all organisms fit equally well under the biological species concept? Explain.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Evolution of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are correct about gram-positive bacteria except
A) they have a thick peptidoglycan layer.
B) they are more sensitive to antibiotics like penicillin.
C) they stain purple in a gram stain.
D) they have an outer membrane.
E) they may have a capsule surrounding them.
Q2) Viruses that can infect bacterial cells are
A) AIDS virus strains.
B) influenza viruses.
C) cold viruses.
D) bacteriophages.
Q3) How are fungi used by humans?
Q4) Fungi obtain nutrients by _______________ digestion.
Q5) Some bacteria attach to surfaces of other cells with short outgrowths called
Q6) The Miller-Urey experiment included
A) finding extraterrestrial organisms.
B) the bubble model of containment of polar molecules.
C) reconstructing the oxygen free atmosphere of early earth.
D) None of the choices are correct.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Evolution of Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first seed plants were the
A) ferns.
B) gymnosperms.
C) angiosperms.
D) monocots.
Q2) Of what advantage might it be for a plant to produce a seed rather than to be seedless?
Q3) During the sporophyte generation in the life cycle of a fern,the plant releases _______________ that germinate and become gametophytes.
A) haploid spores
B) diploid spores
C) haploid gametes
D) diploid gametes
Q4) _______________________ are symbiotic associations between fungi and plant roots.
Q5) In a seed plant,the pollen grains are actually tiny
A) female gametophytes.
B) seeds.
C) male gametophytes.
D) eggs.
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Animals
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Q1) Homo erectus was a very successful species.Describe the traits of this human ancestor.
Q2) Which of our ancestors was "handy man?"
A) Australopithecus afarensis
B) Australopithecus anamensis
C) Homo habilis
D) Homo erectus
Q3) Animal phylogenies based on molecular data divide the protostomes into those that molt,called ____________,and those that grow by adding mass to an existing body.
A) protozoans
B) parazoans
C) ecdysozoans
D) ctenophorans
Q4) Homo habilis differed from australopithecines in A) stature.
B) having legs longer than arms.
C) skeletal structure.
D) brain volume.
Q5) The sixth mass extinction event is due to the activity of _____.
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Chapter 19: Populations and Communities
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Q1) From the list that follows choose the adaptation characteristic of K-selected populations.
A) Short lifespan
B) High mortality rate
C) Little to no parental care
D) Late age of first reproduction
Q2) In most species,populations that are characteristic of a particular biome are found wherever that biome occurs in the world.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the different kinds of interacting organisms living within a certain area make up a
A) population.
B) ecosystem.
C) community.
D) species.
Q4) ______________ occurs when one organism comes to resemble another organism.
Q5) What types of density-dependent effects could we see in human populations as conditions become crowded due to overpopulation?
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Chapter 20: Ecosystems
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Q1) A _________________ in a community is made up of the organisms feeding at the same number of steps away from the sun.
Q2) Herbivores are at what trophic level within an ecosystem?
A) Level 1
B) Level 2
C) Level 3
D) Level 4
Q3) Why would few reptiles be found in the tundra?
Q4) Certain bacteria are capable of transforming atmospheric nitrogen into a form other organisms can use through a process known as A) combustion.
B) nitrogen oxidation.
C) nitrogen fixation.
D) nitrogen reduction.
Q5) In the annual cycle of a temperate lake,thermal stratification occurs when?
A) During spring overturn
B) During the summer
C) During fall overturn
D) During summer and winter
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Chapter 21: Behavior and the Environment
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Q1) Human infants have an innate ability to be able to learn any of the 40 consonant sounds present in human languages.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This behavioral ecologist pioneered study of seagull nesting behavior.
A) Lorenz
B) Timbergen
C) Wilson
D) Von Frisch
Q3) As an animal matures,it may form preferences or social attachments to other individuals.This is referred to as ________.
Q4) When Pavlov's dog salivated after hearing a bell,this is called
A) operant conditioning.
B) classical conditioning.
C) nonassociative learning.
D) habituation.
Q5) _____________ can be thought of as NOT responding to a stimulus.
Q6) Discuss the difference between home range and territory.
Q7) Long range two-way movement behavior in animals is termed ___________.
Page 23
Q8) List three examples and give details explaining each regarding animal cognition.
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Chapter 22: How Human Influence the Living World
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Q1) Humans have been able to expand the _____________ of environments in which they live.
Q2) Which is closest to today's human population number?
A) 7 billion
B) 5.0 billion
C) 4.6 billion
D) 9.8 billion
Q3) An increase in the rate of extinction is the heart of the ____________ crisis.
Q4) Explain how chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)released into the atmosphere lead to an increase in the incidence of skin cancer among humans.
Q5) Acid rain can lead to the destruction of A) trees.
B) fish.
C) aquatic invertebrates
D) All of these choices are correct.
Q6) Which of the following contributes to CFC production?
A) Refrigerator coolant
B) Aerosol gas
C) Styrofoam
D) All of these choices are correct.
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Chapter 23: The Animal Body and How It Moves
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Q1) Choose the bone or set of bones that belong to the appendicular portion of the human skeleton.
A) Skull
B) Pelvic girdle
C) Vertebral column
D) Ribs
Q2) The special type of muscle found only in the heart is called __________ muscle.
Q3) A rigid,exterior scaffold that surrounds an animal body is called a(n)____________,and is exhibited by arthropods.
Q4) Myofilament contraction in muscle cells is powered by what molecule?
A) Water
B) Hydroxyapatite
C) Collagen
D) ATP
Q5) __________________________ are found in soft-bodied invertebrates,such as earthworms and jellyfish.
A) Hydraulic skeletons
B) Exoskeletons
C) Endoskeletons
D) None of these is correct.
25
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Chapter 24: Circulation
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Q1) Describe how arteries are adapted to carry high pressure blood.
Q2) In a ___________ circulatory system,blood is pumped by a heart through blood vessels.
Q3) Blood plasma is 90% water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Trace the wave of depolarization through the heart.
A) SA node atria ventricles AV node bundle of His Purkinje fibers
B) AV node atria SA node ventricles Purkinje fibers bundle of His
C) AV node atria SA node Purkinje fibers bundle of His ventricles
D) SA node atria AV node bundle of His Purkinje fibers ventricles
Q5) When you are scared or cold and turn pale it is because your _________ in your skin are constricting.
A) veins
B) capillaries
C) venules
D) arterioles
E) arteries
Q6) The heart valve guarding the entrance to the aorta is the _________ valve.
Q7) The veins leading from the lungs to the heart are the ____________ veins.
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Chapter 25: Respiration
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Q1) In a countercurrentflow system,the blood oxygen saturation
A) reaches equilibrium with the water at 50% saturation.
B) is much lower than the water oxygen saturation at first.
C) reaches 70% and then there is no further net diffusion.
D) is continually slightly lower than the water oxygen saturation.
E) is continually slightly higher than the water oxygen saturation.
Q2) What is the main reason that lung cancer develops?
A) The person's immune system is nonfunctional.
B) Exposure to allergens
C) Tumor suppressor genes undergo mutations.
D) Mitotic growth factors replicate.
Q3) A mixture of lipoprotein molecules called ____________________ reduces surface tension and prevents the alveoli from collapsing.
Q4) Which of the following possess gills?
A) Snails
B) Clams
C) Sea stars
D) Guppies
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q5) Why is smoking cigarettes so dangerous to human health?
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body
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Q1) A function of the pancreas is to remove toxins,pesticides,and other poisons from the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which substance emulsifies fats in the small intestine?
A) Bicarbonate
B) Bile
C) Digestive enzymes
D) Hydrochloric acid
E) Chymotrypsin
Q3) It is possible to determine the nature of an animal's diet just by looking at the teeth of the animal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most digestion and the major site of absorption is in the A) cecum.
B) colon.
C) small intestine.
D) large intestine.
Q5) Heterotrophs that are meat eaters are termed ____________.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) The regulation of the body's osmotic composition is called
Q2) In flatworms,protonephridia branch throughout the body into bulblike
Q3) Filtrate passes through the proximal tubule of the nephron before the distal tubule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not part of the normal glomerular filtrate?
A) Blood cells
B) Glucose
C) Amino acids
D) Ions
E) Water
Q5) Some mammals,like the kangaroo rat of the desert,have extremely long loops of Henle in their kidneys.What purpose must this serve?
Q6) When human body temperature gets too high,the hypothalamus responds by causing blood vessels to constrict.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: How the Body Defends Itself
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Q1) The two major phagocytic cells of the body are
A) macrophages and neutrophils.
B) B cells and T cells.
C) mast cells and natural killer cells.
D) B cells and neutrophils.
E) plasma cells and monocytes.
Q2) The main target of the HIV virus is
A) red blood cells.
B) mast cells.
C) CD4<sup>+</sup> cells.
D) CD8<sup>+</sup> cells.
Q3) The chemical signal sent out by macrophages to mobilize the immune system is A) interferon.
B) perforin.
C) interleukin-2.
D) interleukin-1.
Q4) Modern pregnancy tests use ___________ antibodies produced against a pregnancy hormone as the antigen.
Q5) How is it that vertebrates are able to produce antibodies to virtually every foreign antigen with which they come in contact?
Page 30
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Chapter 29: The Nervous System
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Q1) Which nervous system conserves energy by slowing the heartbeat and breathing rate and promoting digestion and elimination?
A) Parasympathetic
B) Sympathetic
C) Central
D) Voluntary
E) Somatic
Q2) The major site of sensory processing in the brain is the
A) thalamus.
B) brain stem.
C) hypothalamus.
D) cerebellum.
Q3) The sharpest vision occurs at the ___________ where the concentration of cones is highest.
A) area of the retina closest to the lens at the front of the eye
B) optic nerve
C) fovea
D) parallax
Q4) Instead of having synapses between two nerves cells,why not just "wire" the two cells together somehow?
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hormone that causes color changes in reptiles is ______________,the effects of which are poorly understood in humans.
A) prolactin
B) thyroid-stimulating hormone
C) melanocyte-stimulating hormone
D) somatotropin
Q2) In this disease,the numbers of insulin receptors on target cells are abnormally low.
A) Goiter
B) Type II diabetes
C) Type I diabetes
D) Gallbladder disease
Q3) A second messenger
A) is cyclic AMP.
B) serves to amplify the signal.
C) activates protein kinases.
D) All of these are correct.
Q4) The ____________ gland is a shield-shaped gland in the neck that produces thyroxine and calcitonin.
Q5) The peptide hormone ____________ regulates the kidney's retention of water.
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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) What is the function of the SRY gene?
A) Formation of testes
B) Formation of ovaries
C) Production of estrogen
D) Production of progesterone
Q2) The corpus luteum secretes which hormone in greater abundance to inhibit FSH and to build up the lining of the uterus?
A) Follicle-stimulating hormone
B) Luteinizing hormone
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone
Q3) In mammals,the SRY gene is passed on by
A) males.
B) females.
C) both males and females.
Q4) How many sperm cells are produced for every one primary spermatocyte?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 12
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Chapter 32: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Lateral branches may arise from
A) the leaf petiole.
B) the leaf axil.
C) the cortex of the stem.
D) the pith of the stem.
Q2) ____________ growth results primarily in the thickening of the plant body.
Q3) The vascular bundles in the stem of a dicot plant are arranged in a ring.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most plants acquire minerals from A) rain.
B) air.
C) soil.
D) digested insects.
Q5) The growth zone that gives rise to thick accumulations of secondary xylem and phloem is the
A) vascular cambium.
B) cork cambium.
C) lateral meristem.
D) apical meristem.
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Chapter 33: Plant Reproduction and Growth
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Q1) The female gametophyte is the _______________,which develops from a megaspore.
Q2) All plants have both male and female reproductive structures together in the same individual flower.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Early in the development of an angiosperm embryo,the embryo becomes dormant.This dormancy occurs
A) after fertilization.
B) once the root and shoot have penetrated the seed coat.
C) after the apical meristems and the cotyledons are differentiated.
D) All of these are correct.
Q4) In order to delay the ripening of tomatoes,the gene for this hormone has been disrupted in genetically engineered tomatoes.
A) Gibberellin
B) Auxin
C) Cytokinin
D) Abscisic acid
E) Ethylene
Q5) Give an example of a wind-pollinated plant._____________________
Q6) The first leaves that emerge from a seed are the _________________.
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