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General Biology offers a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of biology, exploring the structure, function, and diversity of living organisms. The course covers key topics such as the scientific method, cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the principles governing the interactions between organisms and their environments. Emphasis is placed on developing a scientific understanding of life at the molecular, cellular, and ecological levels, providing a solid foundation for further study in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Visualizing Human Biology 4th Edition by Kathleen A. Ireland
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Q1) Negative feedback systems amplify the changes that are being detected by the receptor.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Formulating a hypothesis is an example of:
A)inductive reasoning.
B)deductive reasoning.
C)experimenting.
D)drawing a conclusion.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is a Domain?
A)Animalia
B)Eukarya
C)Plantae
D)Fungi
Answer: D
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Q1) The common ancestor of Primates lived about:
A)3 million years ago.
B)2 million years ago.
C)60 million years ago.
D)195,000 years ago.
Answer: C
Q2) Australopithecus can be differentiated from A.afarensis by: A)bipedalism.
B)stereoscopic vision.
C)sexual dimorphism.
D)dentition.
Answer: D
Q3) Homo erectus and Homo ergaster are currently classified as the same species. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A niche describes the area where an organism lives.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) An imbalance of the common ions found in the human body is life threatening.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A change in which ion concentration would severely affect heart rate and the nervous system?
A)Bicarbonate
B)Sodium
C)Potassium
D)Chloride
Answer: C
Q3) Since carbon has 4 electrons in the outer energy level,it can form 4 covalent bonds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Hydrogen bonds hold the hydrogen and oxygen together in water molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Lipid-soluble materials enter and exit the cell via:
A)osmosis across a carrier protein.
B)diffusion across the cell membrane.
C)diffusion through a transport protein.
D)active transport.
Q2) The movement of water from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is called:
A)endocytosis.
B)osmosis.
C)active transport.
D)pinocytosis.
Q3) Paracrines,secretions produced in one area of the body,travel to and alter the physiological activity of remote cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Facilitated transport moves molecules from low molecule concentrations to high molecule concentrations.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Smooth muscle lines hollow organs like blood vessels and the digestive tract.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cells of connective tissue are held close together by strong cell-to-cell attachments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The urinary and reproductive organs are mostly housed within the pelvic cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The heart is located in the:
A)abdominal cavity.
B)thoracic cavity.
C)dorsal body cavity.
D)pelvic cavity.
Q5) The brain,spinal cord,blood vessels and nerves comprise the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which bone contains the foramen magnum?
A)Frontal
B)Occipital
C)Sphenoid
D)Zygomatic
Q2) Which bone does not belong to the appendicular skeleton?
A)Cervical vertebrae
B)Ulna
C)Metatarsals
D)Clavicle
Q3) There is no such thing as an immovable joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During the power stroke,the myosin uses stored energy to pull on the actin,thus bringing the Z-lines of the sarcomere closer together.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The sinuses are a defect in bone growth and have no real purpose.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) During normal resting condition,the levels of which positive ions are higher outside the neuron than inside?
A)Sodium ions
B)Chloride ions
C)Potassium ions
D)Calcium ions
Q2) Our special senses include receptors for touch,pain,and temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The junction between two neurons is called a(an):
A)neuromuscular junction
B)gap junction
C)synapse
D)axon terminal
Q4) The peripheral nervous system is composed of nerves whereas the central nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The ear is an organ for hearing and balance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The four taste qualities are sweet,sour,salty,and spicy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which age group has the most taste buds?
A)Over 50
B)19-49
C)Children
D)Babies
Q4) What is a consequence of the olfactory sense's connection with the limbic system?
A)Olfaction helps you concentrate.
B)Olfaction can trigger memories and emotions.
C)Olfaction helps you see clearly.
D)Olfaction triggers forgetfulness.
Q5) The sclera is the colored part of the eye.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is one way in which fever can defend the body?
A)The spleen sequesters iron slowing bacterial reproduction.
B)Metabolic rate slows at higher temperatures.
C)Pyrogens block viral receptors.
D)The thyroid increases production of immune cells.
Q2) Which of the following is part of our innate immune system?
A)Complement
B)White blood cells
C)Antibodies
D)Macrophages
Q3) The epidermis is the bloodless part of skin and yet is not dead.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How are lymphatic capillaries different from blood vessels?
A)They contain valves.
B)They are tubes that allow diffusion.
C)They bring fluid back to the heart.
D)They are part of an open system.
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Q1) Why has it been difficult to make a vaccine against HIV?
A)The vaccine is too expensive.
B)The vaccine is as dangerous to work with as HIV.
C)The protein coat of an infected cell always looks the same to the immune system.
D)The HIV virus mutates too quickly for a vaccine to be effective.
Q2) Antibiotics are not as effective at treating bacterial disease as they once were because some strains of bacteria have evolved to resist the action of antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a mode of action of antibiotics?
A)Prevention of bacterial invasion
B)Formation of a cell wall
C)Destruction of essential viral metabolic pathways
D)Blockage of DNA and RNA synthesis in bacteria
Q4) Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which kind of pathogen can initiate cancer?
A)Bacteria
B)Prion
C)Virus
D)Fungus
Q2) New cancer treatments target cancer cells and are less damaging to healthy cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which kind of skin cancer is most dangerous?
A)Squamous cell
B)Basal cell
C)Melanoma
D)Malignant basal cell
Q4) When cancer migrates from an original tumor,it is called:
A)metastasis.
B)angiogenesis.
C)carcinoma in situ.
D)carcinogenesis.
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Q1) What is the name of the structure that initiates the heartbeat?
A)AV node
B)Purkinje fibers
C)Bundle branches
D)SA node
Q2) The coronary circulation is actually part of the systemic circulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The component of plasma that maintains the osmotic pressure of blood is:
A)water.
B)electrolytes.
C)protein.
D)nutrients.
Q4) An unknown blood sample is mixed with anti-B agglutinins and it clumps.The same sample is mixed with anti-A agglutinins and it does not clump.The blood is type: A)A
B)B
C)O
D)AB
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Q1) The nostrils are also known as:
A)the external nares.
B)the nasal cavity.
C)the upper respiratory.
D)the nose.
Q2) The pH of the blood is influenced by the concentration of:
A)oxygen in the blood.
B)RBCs in the blood.
C)carbon dioxide in the blood.
D)carbon dioxide in the lungs.
Q3) Identify the symptom of a disorder of the lower respiratory tract.
A)The nasal cavity is swelling and limiting ventilation.
B)The sinuses fill with mucus and cause headache.
C)The lungs are filling with fluid.
D)The bronchi contract constricting air flow.
Q4) The walls of the alveolar sac are composed of:
A)squamous epithelial.
B)cuboidal epithelial.
C)pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial.
D)columnar (with microvilli)epithelial.

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Q1) A BMI over 32 indicates?
A)An individual is underweight
B)An individual is anorexic
C)An individual is at a healthy weight
D)An individual is obese
Q2) Carbohydrates are not lipid soluble and are carried by a protein in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most effective long term weight loss plan is:
A)limiting carbohydrate consumption.
B)consuming only liquids.
C)eating less calories than you use.
D)replacing meals with energy drinks.
Q4) To which category do carbohydrates belong?
A)Proteins
B)Micronutrients
C)Macronutrients
D)Vitamins
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Q1) What is the function of salivary amylase?
A)Digest lipids
B)Digest starch
C)Digest sucrose
D)Digest protein
Q2) The tonsils and MALT are both immune structures associated with the digestive system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The intestinal phase of gastric digestion begins when chyme starts to leave the stomach through the pyloric sphincter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ileum is part of which structure?
A)Large intestine
B)Stomach
C)Small intestine
D)Pancreas
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Q1) Which structure directs urine into the ureter?
A)Renal hilus
B)Renal pelvis
C)Glomerulus
D)Urethra
Q2) The functional unit of the kidney is the ureter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Micturition is like defecation in that part of the process is a reflex and part of it can be consciously controlled.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Breakdown products of drugs are secreted into the filtrate at the DCT.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which hormone directly affects the permeability of the collecting duct to water?
A)ANP
B)ADH
C)BNP
D)Aldosterone
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Q1) During which phase of life does the brain develop most?
A)Newborn
B)Infancy
C)Childhood
D)Puberty
Q2) What is a change characteristic of childhood (2-12 yrs)?
A)Lots of time spent sleeping
B)Teeth erupt
C)Lengthening of bones
D)Maturation of reproductive organs
Q3) Cortisol is applied to rashes because of its anti-inflammatory properties.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How do hormones produced by the endocrine system get to the target cell?
A)Osmosis
B)Facilitated diffusion
C)Impulses
D)Circulatory system
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Q1) Which of the following is a bacterial STD?
A)Gonorrhea
B)HIV
C)Yeast infection
D)pubic lice
Q2) Production of sperm requires a higher than normal temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does Viagra® work?
A)Stops blood flow to the penis
B)Constricts the blood vessels in the penis
C)Inhibits the breakdown of cGMP
D)Stimulates the area of the brain associated with sexual drive
Q4) Which birth control method is considered a barrier method?
A)Condom
B)Abstinence
C)Vasectomy
D)Tubal ligation
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Q1) Which statement is true regarding the yolk sac?
A)Only animals that develop outside the mother, like a chicken, have yolk sacs.
B)The yolk sac in a human is inactive.
C)The placenta and yolk sac are synonymous.
D)The yolk sac will help to form the digestive system.
Q2) Epigenetics is a field that studies?
A)Dysmorphology and Teratology
B) Development of the embryo into a fetus
C) Interaction between environment and genetics
D)Embryonic development only
Q3) What usually follows the drop of the cervical mucus plug?
A)Afterbirth
B)Expulsion
C)"Water-breaking"
D)Dilation
Q4) Gender differentiation occurs at approximately:
A)5 weeks.
B)5 months.
C)7 weeks.
D)7 months.
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Q1) Heterozygotes:
A)have two copies of the dominant allele.
B)have two copies of the recessive allele.
C)are always male.
D)have genotypes usually indicated with a capital and a lower case letter such as Aa.
Q2) Messenger RNA is decoded by transfer RNA three bases at a time.The three bases are called a(n)_________ .
A)codon
B)anti-codon
C)initiators
D)decoders
Q3) Once a protein sequence is determined,scientists can work backwards to obtain the DNA code of that protein by first determining the tRNA sequence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A woman with type AB blood cannot have children with type O blood.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the term used for the type of pollution that causes a brown or gray haze in sunlight?
A)Acid rain
B)Ozone depletion
C)Smog
D)Greenhouse gases
Q2) Which of the following areas would most likely not have primary succession occurring?
A)Newly deposited lava
B)Beaches
C)River delta
D)Slope of extinct volcano
Q3) What effect might wolf predation on deer have?
A)Average mass of wolf population will increase.
B)Average speed of deer population will increase.
C)Birth rates of wolves will decrease.
D)The color of wolf population will change.
Q4) Great white sharks are considered tertiary or quaternary carnivores.
A)True
B)False

Page 23
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