
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
General Biology is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts of life sciences, providing a comprehensive overview of the principles that govern living organisms. Topics covered include cell structure and function, genetics and heredity, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life forms. Students will also examine the basis of biological processes such as metabolism, reproduction, and homeostasis, gaining an understanding of both the unity and diversity of life. The course combines theoretical knowledge with laboratory investigations to develop scientific skills and foster an appreciation for the complexities of the natural world.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Now 2nd Edition by Anne Houtman
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Q1) A patient is coughing and producing a wheezing sound as she breathes; she also has a fever.She goes to the doctor who listens to her chest,takes X-rays of her chest,and determines that she probably has something called croup.Which of the following are the facts in this scenario?
A) The patient is coughing, wheezing, and has a fever.
B) The patient probably has croup.
C) The patient probably has whooping cough.
D) The patient probably needs antibiotics.
Answer: A
Q2) The hypothesis that there is a common ancestor to all living organisms is strengthened by what observation?
A) Almost all cells in all living organisms use DNA to direct their structure, function, and behavior.
B) All living organisms use energy acquired directly from the environment or from other organisms.
C) All living organisms reproduce.
D) Each type of living organism adheres to the general principles of the biological hierarchy.
Answer: A
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Q1) Peer-reviewed scientific journals,technical reports,conference proceedings,and dissertations are considered ________ literature.
Answer: primary
Q2) The MMR vaccine became available in the late 1960s.In the early 1970s,organizations began recording the number of people with autism.The incidence of autism has increased 20- to 30-fold since that time.The number of children immunized with the MMR vaccine has also increased since that time.This rise in the rate of autism with the increased use of vaccines is a ________.
Answer: correlation
Q3) Your own scientific literacy would NOT be helpful in answering which of the following questions?
A) Should I take a cinnamon capsule every morning to help regulate my blood sugar?
B) Should I spend the extra money to buy a particular pair of shoes that claims to help tone my leg muscles better than other athletic shoes?
C) Will my cell phone cause me to have cancer?
D) Which movie should I watch this weekend?
Answer: D
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Q1) The positively charged subatomic particle is located in the ________.
Answer: nucleus
Q2) What is the total number of carbon atoms?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)4
E)8
Answer: C
Q3) Of the following values,which indicates the MOST basic pH?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 8
D) 10
Answer: D
Q4) Carbon shares electrons with oxygen atoms in a carbon dioxide molecule.
A)covalent
B)hydrogen
C)ionic
Answer: A

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Q1) Golgi apparatus
A)photosynthesis
B)regulate what moves in and out of cell
C)structure and support for cell
D)lipid synthesis
E)tags proteins for movement
F)enzymatic breakdown of large molecules
G)protein synthesis
H)cellular respiration
I)water and solute storage
J)location of DNA
K)internal organization and structural support
Q2) A cell that has numerous ________ is a plant cell that plays an important role in photosynthesizing sugars for the entire plant.
Q3) Viruses use their ________ material to take over their host cell's metabolic machinery to produce the components needed for the virus to reproduce.
Q4) Explain the process through which cells lining blood vessels bring in pockets of fluids from the bloodstream.Is this process specific or nonspecific?
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Q1) Enzymes can catalyze a reaction only if they
A) encounter a molecule of ATP.
B) have a phosphate bound to their active site.
C) have both products in their active site at the same time.
D) encounter a substrate that fits their active site.
Q2) A hypothetical chemical forms a permanent bond between the phosphates in ATP.How would this affect the cell?
Q3) If the mitochondria of a cell did not produce an inner membrane,the mitochondria would be unable to
A) maintain the proton gradient required for ATP production.
B) capture ATP from the sun.
C) perform the Krebs cycle.
D) perform glycolysis.
Q4) Carbon dioxide is one product of a metabolic process,which occurs in both plants and animals.This process is called A) catalysis.
B) glycolysis.
C) respiration.
D) photosynthesis.
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Q1) Model organisms (like mice)used in the study of genetic disease
A) are selected strictly for ethical reasons.
B) cannot be trusted since they are very different from human cells.
C) should either be mice or bacteria.
D) may accurately reflect how diseases like cancer occur in humans.
Q2) An actively dividing cell has six chromosomes.How many sister chromatids are present within this cell at the end of G phase?
A) 0
B) 3
C) 6
D) 12
Q3) The successful union of one male and one female gamete forms a new single cell known as a
A) chromatid.
B) spindle.
C) zygote.
D) gametocyte.
Q4) Chromosomes decondense and nuclear envelopes form during the ________ portion of mitosis.
Q5) Cells spend the bulk of their time in the ________ stage of the cell cycle.
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Q1) Suppose D were dominant and d were recessive,and you could label the D allele in the P generation with a radioactive substance that could be inherited over several generations.You create hybrids by mating your radioactive DD individuals to dd individuals.Finally,you cross two F1 individuals (with the Dd genotype).In 1,000 offspring,how many would you predict would be radioactive?
A) 250
B) 500
C) 750
D) 1,000
Q2) The color of wheat kernels is controlled by the interaction of two separate genes,with one gene affecting the expression of the other gene.
A)incomplete dominance
B)epistasis
C)polygenic
D)pleiotropy
E)codominance
F)Mendelian trait
Q3) Is it possible for two organisms with the same genotype to have different phenotypes? Explain your answer.
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Q1) Every gene in a human occupies a specific position or ________ on a chromosome.
Q2) What information is NOT visible in a karyotype?
A) the individual's sex
B) the number of autosomes
C) genetic mutations
D) chromosomal deletions
Q3) Researchers hope to develop treatments for sex-linked genetic disorders such as Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS),by using a virus to insert a properly functioning gene into the patient's blood cells.This technique for correcting defective genes is ________,a specific type of genetic engineering.
Q4) Most inherited human disorders are the result of
A) recessive mutations of genes located on autosomes.
B) dominant mutations of genes located on the X chromosome.
C) recessive mutations of genes located on the Y chromosome.
D) simultaneous mutations of the same gene on homologous chromosomes.
Q5) Explain how two brothers might have different X chromosomes,but they must share identical Y chromosomes.
Q6) A parent who is a carrier for the recessive autosomal disorder B has the genotype
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Q1) A strand of DNA has the sequence GCAATTCG.The sequence of the complementary strand is ________.
Q2) The adenine bases in a DNA molecule are radioactively labeled.The DNA is then placed in a solution containing unlabeled nucleotides and the enzymes needed for DNA replication.The DNA molecule is allowed to replicate twice,forming four new DNA molecules.The radioactively labeled adenine would be found in A) each of the eight strands.
B) two of the eight strands.
C) all but one strand.
D) six of the eight strands.
Q3) Viral DNA that has entered the pig genome and remains active is passed from generation to generation through A) mutations. B) histone proteins.
C) DNA replication.
D) CRISPR-Cas9.
Q4) Short lengths of DNA are wound around bundles of ________ to create a structure consisting of many nucleosomes strung together by strings of DNA.
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Q1) During translation,
A) many mRNA molecules work with one tRNA molecule and one rRNA molecule to produce a protein.
B) one tRNA molecule works with paired mRNA molecules and many rRNA molecules to produce a protein.
C) strings of bonded tRNA molecules work with one mRNA molecule and one rRNA molecule to produce a protein.
D) one mRNA molecule works with several rRNA molecules and many tRNA molecules to produce a protein.
Q2) If a molecule of mRNA is a sentence,its bases are the letters and the codons are the ________.
Q3) Organisms can regulate both transcription and translation to control gene expression.What is one advantage and one disadvantage of regulating transcription rather than translation?
Q4) Which molecules are involved in translation?
A) DNA and RNA
B) mDNA, tDNA, and rDNA
C) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA
D) proteins, amino acids, and DNA
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Q1) Pangaea is
A) the process of continental drift.
B) the combined fossil record of ancient species.
C) an ancient, giant continent.
D) the result of natural selection.
Q2) When comparing certain amino acid sequences in the protein hemoglobin of humans to those of other animals,scientists found that baboons had seven amino acids that were different than the human protein,dogs had 10 amino acids that were different than the human protein,gorillas had one amino acid that was different than the human protein,and lemurs had eight amino acids that were different than the human protein.Which of these animals is most closely related to humans?
A) baboon
B) dog
C) lemur
D) gorilla
Q3) <i>Indohyus's</i> thick bones made it easier for this animal to wade and dive in water to evade predators and find plants to eat on the river bottom.This is an example of a(n)________,a feature that gives an individual improved function in a competitive environment.
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Q1) In natural selection,________ that increase survival and reproductive success become more common in a population.
A) genotypes
B) allele frequencies
C) bottlenecks
D) phenotypes
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a step in the evolutionary process?
A) Mutation results in the formation of new alleles, and sexual reproduction results in new combinations of alleles.
B) New genes are introduced into a population when members of that population mate with members of other species and produce offspring.
C) Genetic variation is inherited by the next generation of a population.
D) Genetic drift, gene flow, and natural selection cause allele frequencies to change over time.
Q3) Explain why a mutation in an individual's skin cells does not directly contribute to evolution.
Q4) A chance evolutionary change occurring in small populations is referred to as
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Q1) zygote death
A)prezygotic
B)postzygotic
Q2) A large population of animals is split in two by a physical barrier.Over time,the genetic makeup of the two resulting populations becomes more and more different until each population becomes a separate species.This is an example of
A) sympatric speciation.
B) allopatric speciation.
C) genetic drift.
D) natural selection.
Q3) The formation of a new species
A) can occur any time genetic divergence occurs.
B) can only occur when two populations are geographically isolated.
C) can only occur when two populations are sympatric.
D) is a process that stopped occurring thousands of years ago.
Q4) If two populations of beetles living in isolated areas are physically different but genetically similar,would they be considered one species or two? Explain your answer.
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Q1) Resolving the relationship between the various kingdoms has been challenging because species often resemble one another.For example,the kingdom ________ contains some organisms that are animal-like and others that are plant-like.
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Archaea
D) Protista
Q2) The Cambrian explosion occurred primarily in the oceans.The first challenges that had to be overcome during the mass colonization of dry land in the Ordovician period were
A) support of body structure without buoyancy in water, movement, and reproduction.
B) photosynthesis, cellular respiration, and reproduction.
C) DNA replication, photosynthesis, and cellular respiration.
D) DNA replication, phagocytosis, and cellular respiration.
Q3) Explain two ways that mass extinctions can have a profound impact on evolved biodiversity in the ecosystem.
Q4) List at least three basic functions of life that are handled differently on land than they are in water.
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Q1) Explain how bacteria can incorporate a gene for antibiotic resistance from another bacterial cell.
Q2) Prokaryotes that are observed attaching onto nonliving surfaces most likely possess
A) pili.
B) a capsule.
C) a flagellum.
D) a nucleus.
Q3) Which of the following prokaryotes would be MOST likely to survive a full year in a freezing arctic tundra?
A) an anaerobic bacterium
B) an aerobic bacterium
C) a bacterium capable of sporulation
D) a nitrogen-fixing bacterium
Q4) Eukaryote cells require hours for mitosis to occur.Prokaryotes can often divide into two cells in 10-30 minutes.What cell characteristics explain the difference in the length of time required for division?
Q5) A prokaryote living in a hot hydrothermal vent deep in the ocean is most likely a(n)________.
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Q1) Explain why the evolution of sexual reproduction in aquatic algae would significantly increase the chances of plant diversity on land.
Q2) Compare and contrast prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Q3) domain Eukarya,kingdom Fungi
A)brown algae
B)liverworts and mosses
C)<i>Streptococcus thermophilus</i> (bacteria used in making yogurt)
D)zygomycetes (molds)
Q4) The first land plant with a vascular system was the ancestor of present-day ________.
Q5) The bacterium that causes strep throat would be a ________ that belongs to ________.
A) prokaryote; domain Bacteria
B) eukaryote; kingdom Protista
C) prokaryote; kingdom Protista
D) eukaryote; domain Bacteria
Q6) Explain the advantage afforded to plants with the evolution of roots with vascular tissues.
Q7) Single-celled species of fungi are typically referred to as ________.
Q8) The first plants to evolve the seed were ________.
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Q1) Possums are found throughout much of Central and North America.Although their bodies are covered in hair,their tails and ears are hairless.They have many teeth and opposable clawless "thumbs" on their rear appendages.They produce poorly developed young that live in mom's pouch for about two and a half months before climbing on her back.Possums are
A) eutherians.
B) primates.
C) monotremes.
D) marsupials.
Q2) fur,mammary glands A)A

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Q1) Cooking ________ would decrease one's food footprint the most.
A) chicken instead of steak
B) steak instead of chicken
C) steak instead of vegetables
D) vegetables instead of steak
Q2) Climate change increases fires in the rainforest.This will
A) decrease climate change as carbon sinks are formed.
B) decrease climate change as carbon reservoirs are released.
C) further increase climate change as carbon sinks are formed.
D) further increase climate change as carbon reservoirs are released.
Q3) In comparison to past estimates,extinction rates are currently high.Which of the following is the MOST plausible explanation?
A) Natural fluctuations in climate causes extinctions.
B) Continental drift is causing rapid changes in climate, which, in turn, causes extinctions.
C) Previous extinctions make survival of contemporary species more difficult.
D) Humans are affecting many aspects of the global environment.
Q4) A friend notes that this winter was a particularly cold one and states that this is evidence that global warming is not occurring.Evaluate the validity of this statement.
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Q1) Lynx feed on rabbits,and the growth curves for these two species fluctuate together.This relationship is an example of a(n)
A) S-shaped growth curve.
B) J-shaped growth curve.
C) irregular fluctuation.
D) tightly linked cycle.
Q2) Is it possible for the carrying capacity of a population to change? If so,give an example.If not,explain why.
Q3) The carrying capacity of owls in an Alaskan forest is seven per square kilometer.What will happen if 12 owls are confined to a 1-square-kilometer area?
A) The owls will survive together and develop ways to share resources.
B) The owls might survive but the population size in the future will most likely be close to seven.
C) The population of owl prey organisms will increase proportionately to support a larger population of owls.
D) A short-term exponential growth of owls will occur because more mating pairs will form.
Q4) Why do logistic growth curves have an "S" shape?
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Q1) Why would a food web rather than a food chain be the preferred way to represent the movement of food through the community?
A) Food chains are oversimplified and suggest that a consumer eats only a single food item.
B) Food webs place producers at the bottom, whereas food chains place them at the top.
C) Food webs are based on a foundation of producers.
D) Ecologists prefer to use food chains to describe food movements.
Q2) Which species has the highest relative abundance in a forest of trees that is 30 percent loblolly pine,15 percent shortleaf pine,10 percent white oak,10 percent red oak,20 percent sweetgum,5 percent hickory,5 percent dogwood,and 5 percent redbuds?
A) redbud
B) shortleaf pine
C) loblolly pine
D) sweetgum
Q3) One of the factors governing diversity within a community is species ________,which is defined as the total number of different species living within that community.
Q4) Compare and contrast mutualism and commensalism and provide an example of each.
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Q1) The shallowest but most productive of the aquatic biomes are ________.These tidal ecosystems exist where rivers flow into the ocean.
Q2) Nearly one-third of Earth's land surface is covered with this biome that does not retain heat because it lacks moisture.The plants have small leaves,like the spines on cacti,to minimize water loss.Most of the animals are nocturnal.
A)tropical forest
B)chaparral
C)boreal forest
D)tundra
E)desert
F)temperate deciduous forest
G)grassland
Q3) The chemical and physical components of an ecosystem are considered to be ________ or nonliving.
A) abiotic
B) biota
C) biotic
D) abalone
Q4) Explain how energy enters and progresses through a food chain.
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