General Biology Exam Questions
Course Introduction
General Biology offers a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of biology, exploring the structure and function of living organisms, the chemical basis of life, cell biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. This course is designed to provide students with a solid foundation in biological concepts and processes, integrating both theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory skills to foster a deeper understanding of the scientific study of life.
Recommended Textbook
Biology of Humans Concepts Applications and Issues 4th Edition by Judith Goodenough
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34 Chapters
1618 Verified Questions
1618 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Humans in the World of Biology
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)________ group is treated like an experimental group except for the one variable being tested.
Answer: control
Q2) Cells that possess a nucleus and are complex due to a membrane system that establishes internal compartments belong in which of the following groups?
A)eukaryotic
B)virus
C)Archaea
D)bacteria
Answer: A
Q3) Living organisms are different from inanimate objects because they ________.
A)respond to environmental stimuli
B)evolve
C)maintain homeostasis
D)contain DNA
E)All of the above are true.
Answer: E
Q4) A(n)________ involves drug testing on humans.
Answer: clinical trial
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes to Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)________ is a nonprotein substance that aids in forming the enzyme-substrate complex in metabolic reactions.
Answer: cofactor
Q2) A molecule consisting of a long chain of glucose monomers linked by covalent bonds that serves as an energy source for plants and animals would be which of the following?
A)polysaccharide
B)oligosaccharide
C)monosaccharide
D)sucrose
Answer: A
Q3) You have information about an atom that contains 7 protons,8 neutrons,and 8 electrons.Which of the following statements would be true?
A)It will have an atomic weight of 23.
B)It will be an ion.
C)It will have 8 electrons in its outermost shell.
D)It will have an atomic number of 15.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: The Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Zara has worked for 40 years at a garden center where she often potted plants.In the early days,she frequently worked with vermiculite,an asbestos-like material.Which organelles are most likely to have destabilized membranes as a result of exposure to vermiculite?
A)nuclei
B)mitochondria
C)Golgi complexes
D)lysosomes
Answer: D
Q2) ________ is the process by which large molecules and cell products leave the cell via the phospholipid membrane.
Answer: Exocytosis
Q3) When bacteria appear in tissues,a type of large cell engulfs and destroys them.Which process are these cells using to engulf the bacteria?
A)exocytosis
B)active transport
C)pinocytosis
D)phagocytosis
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Body Organization and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which layer lacks blood vessels?
A)hypodermis
B)subcutaneous
C)epidermis
D)dermis
Q2) Carla has serious acne.What caused it and what can she do to treat it?
Q3) A ________ is a group of cells of similar type that work together to serve a common function.
Q4) If Argus fell into the waters around Labrador (temperature 1 C,or 34 F),what reaction is most likely to happen?
A)dilation of the blood vessels of the dermis
B)sweating
C)piloerection
D)increased blood flow to hands
Q5) What are the signs of skin cancer that distinguish it from other skin irregularities?
Q6) Two roller derby players trip each other and fall.One of them breaks a cartilage in her knee,while the other skater breaks a bone in her foot.Which one of them will take longer to heal? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pectoral girdle is composed of the ________,or shoulder blades,and the collarbones.
Q2) The ________ is composed of the vomer and a portion of the ethmoid bones to divide the left and right chambers inside the nose.
Q3) Which of these cranial bones separates the cranial cavity from the nasal cavity and provides the olfactory nerves with access to the brain?
A)temporal
B)foramen magnum
C)sphenoid
D)ethmoid
Q4) Human Growth Hormone (HGH)can be used to treat patients with pituitary dwarfism.Today,parents are getting injections for their children to provide an advantage in sports or to enhance their appearance by making them taller.Based on what you know about the process of bone lengthening,what is the most appropriate age group to begin such injections?
A)3- to 6-year-olds
B)7- to 10-year-olds
C)18- to 21-year-olds
D)21- to 30-year-olds
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these muscle types permit voluntary movement?
A)cardiac
B)skeletal
C)smooth
D)All of the above permit voluntary movement
Q2) A bundle of muscle cells is called a ________.
Q3) A muscle will ________ if levels of calcium and potassium decrease in the blood.
Q4) Turkey is often served at Thanksgiving meals in which family members vie for portions of white or dark meat.Why is the breast meat of a turkey considered white meat,while the darker meat is found in the leg muscles?
Q5) The release of acetylcholine into the neuromuscular junction is shortly followed by the release of ________ ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Q6) Which of the following is not a function of muscle?
A)regulate calcium in the blood
B)generate heat
C)move blood in veins
D)move lymph in lymphatic vessels
Q7) Explain the function of ATP in muscle contractions.
Q8) How do calcium ions affect muscle contractions?
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Chapter 7: Neurons: the Matter of the Mind
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59 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some of the dangers associated with the use of pesticides that might be of concern for humans? What are some ethical concerns related to their use?
Q2) The combined effects of inhibitory and excitatory effects on a postsynaptic cell will decide whether that cell generates an action potential.This principle is called ________.
A)threshold
B)internalization
C)summation
D)potentiation
Q3) Which of the following parts of the nervous system is closest to a muscle?
A)neuron
B)interneuron
C)motor neuron
D)neuroglial cell
Q4) Where are neurotransmitters stored in a neuron?
A)axon
B)synaptic knob
C)dendrites
D)cell body
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Chapter 8: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an automobile accident,Susan received a serious head injury to the left side.Afterward she had a hard time speaking,although she showed that she understood what was being said to her.Which area of her cerebrum was damaged?
A)occipital lobe
B)frontal lobe
C)temporal lobe
D)medulla oblongata
Q2) Dr.Ling,the famous brain surgeon,removes a portion of the skull during surgery.Which of the meninges does she see first?
A)ventricle
B)pia mater
C)dura mater
D)arachnoid
Q3) If a certain water-soluble,intravenous antibiotic is not succeeding in defeating the germs inside the central nervous system,the ________ may be the cause of the failure.
Q4) If Georgina takes a drug that increases the effects of norepinephrine,what changes would we see in the basic activities of her body?
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Chapter 9: Sensory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When pressure builds in this area,the blood vessels supplying the rods and cones may collapse.The area where the pressure may rise is called the ________.
A)vitreous humor
B)posterior chamber
C)anterior chamber
D)tear glands
Q2) The area where the optic nerve leaves the retina and where photoreceptors are absent is called the ________.
A)optic area
B)blind spot
C)fovea
D)cornea
Q3) Sensory receptors respond to changes in the environment called ________.
Q4) The ________ helps you to know the position of your head with respect to gravity when you are not moving.
Q5) If a person had sensorineural deafness,why would a bone-vibrating hearing aid be useless?
Q6) Sensory receptors in muscles and joints that detect ________ never adapt.
Q7) ________,one type of sensory structure,detect muscle length.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Produces epinephrine and norepinephrine,which are extremely important in the flight or fight reactions.
A)Myxedema
B)Addison's disease
C)Diabetes insipidus
D)Adrenal medulla
E)Grave's disease
F)Cushing's syndrome
G)Cretinism
H)Diabetes mellitus
I)Acromegaly
Q2) Govingee,35 years old,has recently become lethargic and his skin feels very cool but puffy to the touch.When you take his pulse,you note that it seems abnormally low.What condition might Govingee have?
A)low thyroid hormone
B)excess calcitonin
C)accumulating aldosterone
D)low growth hormone
Q3) What are the possible effects of stress on the body?
Q4) ________ is a very common second messenger.
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Chapter 11: Blood
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59 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother brings a child into the ER with a severe nosebleed that won't stop bleeding.She also tells the doctors that the child bruises very easily in response to very minor accidents.Given the information in the text,the doctor orders some tests and finds that the young boy has ________.
A)anemia
B)hemophilia
C)blood that is Rh negative while the mother is Rh positive
D)leukemia
Q2) If a person were to receive such a high dose of radiation that all of the cells were to die in this area,anemia would develop.That place is the ________.
A)red bone marrow
B)yellow bone marrow.
C)thymus
D)lymph nodes
Q3) TPA,or tissue plasminogen activator,is a compound sometimes given to a person suffering from a heart attack.Why would a compound that apparently activates plasminogen be useful in treating a heart attack?
Q4) Platelets are formed by breaking off fragments from large cells called ________.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician has a patient with an abnormal heart sound.After running some tests,the doctor decides that the patient has a heart murmur but the condition is not severe enough to warrant open-heart surgery.What does the doctor think about to make this determination?
A)The amount of blood flowing backwards in the heart is not enough to strain the heart as it works harder to catch up.
B)The heart sounds are due to air moving through the system and cannot be removed via surgical techniques.
C)The amount of blood lost is easily replaced with a transfusion of extra blood.
D)A heart murmur cannot be corrected surgically even though artificial heart valves do exist.
Q2) Explain the structure and functions of the arteries.
Q3) Heart block is a condition in which the SA node is properly functioning but the atria and ventricles are contracting out of synch.What part of the heart must not be functioning for this to happen?
A)The SA node is working extra hard to make the ventricles catch up.
B)The AV node is not sending signals to the ventricles like it should.
C)The coronary arteries are not delivering blood to the heart.
D)The heart valves are allowing blood to flow backwards through the heart.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Body Defense Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The eye is a warm,moist environment favored by many harmful bacteria.Nevertheless,eye infections are relatively rare.Why is this?
A)The enzyme tearase inhibits bacterial growth.
B)Tears contain the antibacterial enzyme lysozyme.
C)The eyes are constantly exposed to UV light, which inhibits bacterial growth.
D)Antibodies, particularly IgM, are secreted in abundance in the tears.
Q2) Line of defense that involves natural killer cells.
A)Eosinophils
B)Autoimmune disorders
C)Third line of defense
D)Neutrophils
E)Plasma cells
F)Second line of defense
G)Cytotoxic T cells
H)First line of defense
I)Mast cells
Q3) Zacchias has been in a horrible fire and 50% of the total surface of his skin has been destroyed.Given the information in this chapter,why is it so important to replace the burned skin and what is his best specific option for replacement?
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Respiratory System
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63 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The voice-producing structure located in the throat,known as the ________,also prevents food or objects from entering the lower respiratory system.
Q2) The ________ is the total volume of air contained in the lungs after the deepest possible inhalation.
Q3) Olney was born two months premature.According to this chapter what respiratory problem is he most likely to have and what can be done to correct it?
Q4) If oxygen is present,our cells can make how much more ATP?
A)2X
B)100X
C)18X
D)1,000X
Q5) Exercise can trigger an asthma attack.This is especially true if someone goes for a long run on a cold morning.The two main causes of the narrowing of the bronchiole passageways can be treated with drugs that act in different ways.What are the two causes of this narrowing,and how can drugs work to counteract these conditions?
Q6) The opening of the larynx is called the ________.It is covered by the epiglottis,which prevents food or objects from blocking the airway.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chyme travels from the stomach to which specific structure?
A)pancreas
B)jejunum
C)duodenum
D)large intestine
Q2) The pancreatic duct and common bile duct join and then empty into this organ.
A)Gallbladder
B)Appendix
C)Stomach
D)Rectum
E)Esophageal cancer
F)Large intestine
G)Mouth
H)Cirrhosis
I)Small intestine
J)Salivary glands
Q3) ________ cancer is the second-leading cause of cancer deaths,but early detection by screening for polyps can save many lives.
Q4) Each time Cyrus drinks milk,he develops gas,bloating,and abdominal discomfort.He probably has ________.
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Chapter 16: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ refers to a decrease or complete cessation of glomerular filtration.
Q2) If water were flowing from area "A" to area "B" through a semipermeable membrane,we might expect area "B" to be ________ in solute concentration compared to "A."
Q3) If this muscular tube were to become blocked,urine could not be expelled to the outside of the body
A)Respiratory
B)Urinalysis
C)Urinary
D)Kidneys
E)Tubular secretion
F)Nephrons
G)Digestive
H)Urinary bladder
I)Urethra
J)Ureters
Q4) Provide the path of the urine from the kidney to the outside.Make sure your explanation includes all structures and muscles that would be encountered as the urine leaves the body.
Q5) Relaxation of the ________ releases urine from the body.
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Chapter 17: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells that are located between the seminiferous tubules of the testis and whose function is to produce androgens are called ________.
Q2) Which one of the following occurs toward the end of spermatogenesis?
A)fertilization
B)mitosis
C)meiosis and structural changes
D)ovulation
Q3) The ________ secretes both estrogen and progesterone,and if fertilization does not occur,this structure degenerates.
Q4) During a normal female reproductive cycle,the unique hormone produced only after ovulation is ________ made by the ________.
A)progesterone; corpus luteum
B)follicle stimulating hormone (FSH); anterior pituitary
C)gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH); hypothalamus
D)luteinizing hormone (LH); anterior pituitary
Q5) Describe the "path" of a sperm cell from its production until it leaves the male body.
Q6) The hormones FSH and LH are produced by the ________.
Q7) What are the four stages involved in the human sexual response?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Development Throughout Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The extraembryonic membrane that contributes to the formation of the placenta.
A)Ovulation
B)Cleavage
C)Implantation
D)Human chorionic gonadotropin
E)Chorion
F)Zygote
G)Parturition
H)Blastocyst
I)Fertilization
J)Placenta
K)Polyspermy
L)Morula
Q2) When two secondary oocytes are released from the ovaries and are fertilized by different sperm cells,it is called ________.
A)fraternal twins
B)identical twins
C)conjoined twins
D)clones
Q3) What physiological processes are involved in lactation?
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Chapter 19: Chromosomes and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) A phase in mitotic division in which the sister chromatids are pulled apart by the spindle fibers.
A)Interphase
B)Telophase
C)Cytokinesis
D)Haploid
E)Metaphase
F)Gene
G)Anaphase
H)Crossing over
I)Anaphase I
Q2) Polar bodies are unique products of ________.
A)cytokinesis
B)oogenesis
C)mitosis
D)spermatogenesis
Q3) Explain two important sources of genetic variation in meiosis.Evolutionarily speaking,why do you think is it important that there is recombination of the genes in meiosis?
Q4) The ________ cells are those body cells of humans that contain 23 chromosomes.
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Chapter 20: Genetics and Human Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of one gene to have multiple effects on two or more aspects of the phenotype is referred to as ________.
Q2) People with dark hair usually also inherit dark eyes.Why is this usually the case?
A)Autosomes
B)Phenotype
C)Incomplete dominance
D)Duplication
E)Heterozygous
F)Codominance
G)Linkage
H)Pedigree
I)Gene
J)Deletion
Q3) Often in complete dominance,the recessive allele codes for a nonfunctional
Q4) A cross involving one gene between two heterozygous parents is called a(n)________.
Q5) A genetic cross between two individuals who are heterozygous for two traits of interest is called a ________.
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Chapter 21: Dna and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An enzyme that binds with the promoter on DNA and then synthesizes mRNA.
A)Genome
B)DNA polymerases
C)Gene therapy
D)Guanine
E)Thymine
F)RNA polymerase
G)Codons
H)Biotechnology
I)Epigenetics
Q2) Which chemical carries the DNA's instructions for synthesizing a particular protein from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
A)transfer RNA
B)messenger RNA
C)RNA transcriptase
D)ribosomal RNA
Q3) Both DNA and RNA polymerases must be able to copy from a template strand with great accuracy.Still,either one can make mistakes that could lead to a mutation.For which one of these polymerases would a mistake be the most serious in the long term? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 22: Evolution and Our Heritage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic drift that occurs in small,new colonies is called ________.
Q2) Which of the following is true of chimpanzees compared with humans?
A)Chimps have larger patellae.
B)Chimps have S-shaped spines.
C)Chimps have smaller shoulder blades.
D)Chimps have opposable big toes.
Q3) If the atmospheric layer known as the ________ were to disappear,we would be exposed to intense ultraviolet radiation.
Q4) The two-part name that consists of the genus followed by the species name first developed by Carl Linnaeus.
A)Latin binomial
B)Homo erectus
C)Chimpanzees
D)Neanderthals
E)Australopithecus africanus
F)Astragalus
G)Convergent evolution
H)Ardipithecus ramidus
I)Founder effect
J)Homo habilis
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Ecology, the Environment, and Us
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Sample Questions
Q1) American Bison consume only plants,so we would say they are ________.
A)carnivores
B)herbivores
C)omnivores
D)producers
Q2) ________ is an important component of many biological molecules,including the genetic material DNA and energy transfer molecules such as ATP.
Q3) A visitor to a tropical American forest will probably never get to see a jaguar,the largest native cat species in the Americas,but will see many plant-eating monkeys.Use your knowledge of energy pyramids to explain the rarity of the predatory cats.
Q4) The biosphere consists of many ________,each consisting of the organisms in a specific geographic area and their physical environment.
Q5) Why is it wiser to eat a diet with more plants in it than one with more meat?
Q6) ________ describes the number of individuals at each trophic level multiplied by their dry weight.
Q7) Why is the total biomass of secondary consumers normally less than that of primary consumers?
Q8) A(n)________ is a diagram in which blocks represent each trophic level.
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Chapter 24: Human Populations, limited Resources, and Pollution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Age classes grouped into pre-reproductive,reproductive,and post-reproductive categories.
A)Death rate
B)Carrying capacity
C)Ozone
D)Desertification
E)Density-dependent
F)Skin cancer
G)Emigration
H)Carbon footprint
I)Chlorofluorocarbons
J)Age structure
Q2) Underground water supplies within porous rock are called ________.
A)chambers
B)watersheds
C)aquifers
D)wasserlagen
Q3) Why is it important that humans attempt to control their numbers and begin to identify renewable resources?
Q4) Irrigating land can lead to a buildup of salt in the soil called ________.
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Chapter 25: Food Safety and Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your friend has developed some gastrointestinal symptoms that appear to be related to something she ate.She wants to let them run their course without seeing a doctor.However,her symptoms seem to be getting worse.For which of the following would you recommend that she visit her health care provider?
A)blood in her stool
B)diarrhea lasting more than 3 days
C)a temperature of 102 F
D)All of the above are signs your friend should see a doctor.
Q2) Although you love the taste of uncooked cookie dough,you have heard warnings about the risk of foodborne illness that comes from eating raw food products.Based on the ingredients in cookie dough,which type of pathogen should you be most concerned with?
A)Escherichia coli O157:H7
B)Clostridium botulinum
C)Campylobacter jejuni
D)Salmonella
Q3) In reviewing the list of food storage guidelines,certain meats expire more quickly than others.In comparing chicken,seafood,and bacon,the bacon has the longest shelf life of the three.Speculate on why this is so.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Drugs and the Mind
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Sample Questions
Q1) While examining her patient's nose,Dr.Carlita Gonzales,an allergy specialist,noted a hole in the partition between the nasal cavities.The doctor suspects her patient is snorting which drug?
A)alcohol
B)marijuana
C)mescaline
D)cocaine
Q2) A psychoactive drug that delays the removal of a neurotransmitter from the synapse will ________.
A)dampen the response of the receiving neuron
B)prolong the effect of the neurotransmitter on the receiving neuron
C)prevent the neurotransmitter from working
D)bind to the receptor and affect the receiving neuron in the same way as the neurotransmitter
Q3) Which are synthetically produced stimulants that resemble the brain's natural neurotransmitters?
A)caffeine
B)amphetamines
C)marijuana
D)opium
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Chapter 27: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Summarize the origins and functions of insulin in the body.
Q2) Your friend Matti accidentally injected himself with double the correct dosage of insulin.He has collapsed.Quick! It's all up to you what do you do?
A)Give him CPR.
B)Inject him with thyroxin.
C)Give him glucagon.
D)Inject him with more insulin.
Q3) Which of the following is recommended for diabetes mellitus patients?
A)smoking
B)binge drinking
C)inactivity
D)controlling stress
Q4) Which of the following is a likely side-effect of gestational diabetes?
A)impotence
B)preeclampsia
C)low blood pressure
D)low birth weight
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29
Chapter 28: a Cardiovascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gee Yee was jogging up the hill next to your house when he suddenly had terrible,suffocating pain in his chest.You called the EMTs (Emergency Medical Technicians)and he was rushed to the emergency room where they will most likely perform this test with an x-ray machine.
A)C-reactive protein
B)coronary angiography
C)electrocardiogram
D)western blot
Q2) Which of the following is caused by nicotine in cigarette smoke?
A)faster heart rate
B)constriction of blood vessels
C)increased stickiness of platelets
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) During the summer of 2010,there were very large forest fires in Western Russia.The cloud spread at some point over 1,000 miles (approximately 1600 km),enveloping a number of cities.The smoke was thicker than any you would see in a tobacco store! Based on the information in this chapter alone,why do you think the daily death rate due to heart disease in Moscow doubled during that time?
Q4) How could lipids lead to a myocardial infarction?
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Chapter 29: a Special Topic: Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given the information in this chapter,why do you suppose that the rabies virus attacks mammal nervous systems but not those of crocodiles?
Q2) Which of the following characteristics of a medicine might be effective in treating a herpes simplex infection with as little harm to the patient as possible?
A)blocking cell wall synthesis
B)stopping cilia activity
C)preventing capsid formation
D)halting membrane formation
Q3) Explain how antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections.What are some of the problems concerning the use of these drugs?
Q4) A new antibiotic is introduced which will only destroy organisms lacking a nuclear membrane.A dispute develops over its safety when used in people.What arguments would you use in this discussion?
Q5) Lyme disease is caused by a bacterium found in the bloodstream of small woodland rodents like mice or chipmunks,and is also found occasionally in deer.Yet humans get this disease without coming into direct contact with either rodents or deer.Explain the concept of a biological vector and discuss how humans contract Lyme disease.
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Chapter 30: a Nutrition and Weight Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the contents listed on the box of a certain brand of cereal,it contains 19 grams of carbohydrates but claims that no sugar is present.How is this possible?
Q2) What are some specific health benefits of indigestible carbohydrates and where can a person find them?
Q3) Oat fiber will to some extent block lipid uptake by the digestive system.Which of the following conditions would potentially be more likely in a person eating large amounts of oat fiber?
A)night blindness and xerophthalmia
B)scurvy and poor wound healing
C)pellagra
D)fatigue, numbness, and tingling in the hands and feet
Q4) According to the chapter,a person might prevent atherosclerosis by following these dietary guidelines.
Q5) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)There is no healthy minimum level of HDLs.
B)It is not possible to add extra hydrogen atoms to a polyunsaturated fat.
C)We need about 8 tablespoons of fat per day.
D)A blood cholesterol level of less than 200 mg/dl is recommended.
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Chapter 31: Sexually Transmitted Diseases and Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select two classes of HIV drugs and fully explain how they work.Can they cure HIV?
Q2) The term sexually transmitted infection is used to refer to infections ________.
A)caused by bacteria
B)caused by viruses
C)that cannot be treated
D)that have no symptoms
Q3) Why is it not possible for HIV medications to eliminate HIV in a confirmed HIV+ patient?
Q4) Your former roommate went through a fairly promiscuous stage during her freshman year.Now she feels certain that she has an STD,possibly more than one STD.Too embarrassed to go to the doctor,she wants to take antibiotics that you had left over from a case of strep throat.She tells you that antibiotics will wipe out whatever she has.Which of the following STDs would your antibiotics definitely not eliminate?
A)gonorrhea
B)chlamydia
C)syphilis
D)HPV infection
Q5) Why are treatable diseases like chlamydia so widespread in the world?
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Chapter 32: Autism Spectrum Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these statements concerning autism spectrum disorders (ASDs)is false?
A)ASDs affect girls more frequently than boys.
B)Symptoms typically appear by 1-3 years old.
C)They last a lifetime.
D)They can be associated with other medical conditions.
Q2) Explain the diagnostic criteria and symptoms used to distinguish between autism and Asperger syndrome.
Q3) Describe some of the environmental risk factors associated with ASDs.
Q4) The most reliable diagnostic tool for autism spectrum disorders is ________.
A)neuroimaging
B)observation
C)genetic testing
D)the use of screening tests
Q5) Which of the following is not one of the diagnostic criteria for ASDs?
A)impairments in social behavior
B)impairments in communication
C)aggressive behaviors
D)repetitive behaviors
Q6) Explain how neuroimaging brought new results to the study of ASDs,and why it is not yet recommended for use in the diagnosis of ASDs.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Stem Cells a Repair Kit for the Body
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Q1) At which point or stage would the majority of cells in the embryo no longer be stem cells?
A)the pre-embryo stage
B)in the blastocyst
C)after organogenesis
D)A large number of stem cells would exist in all these stages.
Q2) How is a stem cell different from a "normal" cell? (Use a liver cell as an example.)
Q3) Before stem cell research was such a prominent topic in the news,many people were misinformed about embryonic stem cell research.Many people thought that this form of stem cell research could only be completed by collecting stem cells from electively aborted fetuses.Explain specifically where embryonic stem cells come from when used for research and why these cells would not typically be found in aborted fetuses.
Q4) Describe several potential applications for embryonic stem cell research.
Q5) Which of the following is not needed in a reproductive cloning procedure?
A)an egg cell
B)a diploid cell
C)a sperm cell
D)a surrogate mother
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Chapter 34: Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The removal and analysis of a piece of tissue that is suspected to be cancerous is called a(n)________.
Q2) Which statement is not correct concerning cell division and cancer?
A)Normal cells are limited in how many times they can divide.
B)Cancerous cells can become immortal.
C)Oncogenes protect against cancer.
D)Apoptosis can be used to kill cancerous cells in the body.
Q3) A(n)________ is an abnormal mass of tissue that is surrounded by a capsule of connective tissue and that usually remains at the site where it forms.
Q4) If a person had cancer that had already metastasized by the time of diagnosis,the treatment options at this point would most likely include ________.
A)surgery
B)radiation
C)chemotherapy
D)immunotherapy
Q5) Cells can activate a genetic suicide program in response to a signal in the body.This programmed cell death is called ________.
Q6) Explain why malignant tumors are more dangerous than benign tumors.
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