General Biology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
General Biology is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts of living organisms and life processes. Topics include the structure and function of cells, genetics and heredity, evolution and natural selection, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. The course examines how biological systems interact and adapt, providing a foundation in scientific principles and methods. Laboratory experiences support understanding through hands-on investigations and application of biological concepts to real-world scenarios.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology 6th Edition by Anu Singh
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some bacteria can sense direction using magnetic particles in their cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Multicellular organisms are constructed from many types of specialized cells.Why might having specialized cells be more advantageous than being a single-celled organism?
A) Specialized cells can do a given job better than general-purpose cells can.
B) Specialized cells can survive independently of the organism.
C) Nonspecialized cells do not live as long as specialized cells.
D) Nonspecialized cells are unable to stick together to make up a multicellular organism. Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following features is LEAST likely to be used to define a biome?
A) shared physical characteristics
B) the presence or absence of humans
C) a distinctive community of organisms
D) the climate
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a role of fatty acids in living organisms?
A) energy storage
B) storage of genetic information
C) membrane construction
D) building blocks of fats
Answer: B
Q2) A solution with a pH of ________ is ________ times more acidic than a solution with a pH of ________.
A) 3;10,000;7
B) 12;100;10
C) 7;1,000;9
D) 4;10;3
Answer: A
Q3) Individual water molecules orient toward each other because of the ________ bonds that form between them.
A) covalent
B) hydrogen
C) peptide
D) ionic
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The magnification of a specimen by a light microscope is a result of
A) the bending of light as it passes through glass lenses.
B) the focusing of electron beams by magnets.
C) the reflection of light off a specimen.
D) using chemicals to physically enlarge cells.
Answer: A
Q2) The inner membranes of both mitochondria and chloroplasts are folded into various arrangements.What is the advantage of having a folded membrane rather than a simple interior membrane that follows the same oval shape as the exterior membrane?
A) The folds in the membranes are a physical barrier against compounds attempting to enter the organelle.
B) The folds allow for more surface area for the chemical reactions that occur across the inner membranes.
C) The folds allow these organelles to interact more efficiently with Golgi bodies.
D) The folds cause a necessary change in the organelle's internal pH.
Answer: B
Q3) The microfilaments that allow cells to move contain the protein ________.
Answer: actin
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) The human hormone insulin is produced only by a single organ,the pancreas,yet insulin is used to move glucose from the bloodstream into cells all over the body.What aspect of hormones makes it possible for insulin to work throughout the body?
A) Hormones are able to stop cell-to-cell communication.
B) Hormones all cross cell membranes,and thus can move freely throughout the body.
C) Hormones cause rapid cell-to-cell signaling.
D) Hormones are long-range signaling molecules.
Q2) Signaling molecules can be "tagged" by attaching glow-in-the-dark molecules to them.After adding tagged signaling molecules to the fluid around several cells,you observe the cells with a microscope designed to see the glow-in-the-dark molecules.After a few minutes,you notice that the plasma membrane of some of the cells begins to glow.This observation indicates that some cells
A) have more dense plasma membranes than others.
B) have receptors for the signaling molecule.
C) have no active carrier proteins for the signaling molecules.
D) block the signaling molecules by repelling them.
Q3) Cells in the liver typically acquire cholesterol by receptor-mediated ________.
Q4) Water moves across a membrane from a hypotonic solution to a ________ solution.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) A molecule of sugar slowly burns in a cell.Compared with the original sugar molecules,the products of these catabolic reactions are ________ and have ________.
A) less stable;more energy
B) more stable;more energy
C) more stable;less energy
D) less stable;less energy
Q2) What do catalysts and enzymes have in common?
A) They both decrease the number of collisions between substrate molecules during a reaction.
B) They both increase the amount of activation energy required for a reaction to occur.
C) They both increase the amount of substrate available for a reaction.
D) They both decrease the amount of activation energy required for a reaction to occur.
Q3) Organisms that drop their basal metabolic rate (BMR)as cold weather arrives,enabling their body temperature to plummet,are called ________.
Q4) Some enzymes need particular ions or small molecules to attain their highest activity;these enzyme "helpers" are known as ________.
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) The green pigment that is most commonly associated with photosynthesis is
Q2) Energy is used to force protons from the thylakoid space back into the stroma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Several plant pigments have significant antioxidant qualities and can protect a cell from the damage inflicted on its biomolecules by free radicals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The energy source that makes oxidative phosphorylation possible comes from A) phosphate group transfers from ATP.
B) electrons that are transferred from NADPH.
C) electrons that are transferred from NADH.
D) electrons that are removed from CO<sub>2</sub> during its oxidation.
Q5) The most common cause of death by poisoning around the world is ________.
Q6) The process that converts NADH into NAD<sup>+</sup> to keep glycolysis running under anaerobic conditions is called ________.
Q7) NAD<sup>+</sup> becomes NADH when it gains one proton and two high-energy
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosomes become visible during the mitotic stage called ________.
Q2) Cytokinesis occurs during interphase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements about the chromosomes in a homologous pair is true?
A) They both came from the organism's mother.
B) They both came from the organism's father.
C) One chromosome came from the organism's mother and the other came from the organism's father.
D) Neither chromosome came from the organism's parents.
Q4) DNA molecules are exceptionally long (about 6 feet in humans)and exceptionally thin.To minimize breakage and yet facilitate transcription,DNA forms into a complex known as chromatin by wrapping around ________.
Q5) By the time a cell enters meiosis II,it has A) become haploid.
B) re-formed bivalents.
C) temporarily become diploid.
D) rejoined its maternal homologue.
Q6) Sister chromatids are held together at a constriction point called a ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Q1) When a mutant receptor protein no longer requires a positive growth factor to activate it,the result is
A) reduction in cell division.
B) extra binding sites.
C) uncontrolled cell division.
D) lack of protein products.
Q2) Rapid cell proliferation can result from
A) contact inhibition.
B) a cell ignoring a negative growth regulator.
C) a mutation inhibiting the action of a positive growth regulator.
D) the surgical removal of a benign polyp.
Q3) If a cell's p53 genes are inactivated,the cell
A) loses control over cell division.
B) no longer makes proto-oncogenes.
C) stops dividing.
D) activates tumor suppressors.
Q4) Mutations cause only a few types of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Breast cancer that is not inherited is caused by ________ mutations.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A recessive allele can only appear in the phenotype of an individual A) in the F<sub>1 </sub>generation.
B) exposed to certain environmental conditions.
C) who carries the mutation in his or her gametes.
D) who is homozygous for the mutation.
Q2) Two pea plants are mated that are heterozygous for height where the tall (T )trait is dominant to short plants (t),and flower color where white flower color ( p)is recessive to purple flower color (P).What is the ratio that one would expect in their offspring?
A) 3:1
B) 1:1
C) 1:1:1:1
D) 9:3:3:1
Q3) When two individuals who are heterozygous for a gene are mated,we would predict a dominant to recessive phenotypic ratio of ________ in the offspring.
A) 1:2:1
B) 1:3
C) 3:1
D) 9:3:3:1
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Even though it is deadly,the Huntington disease allele can remain in the population,because
A) the dominant allele sometimes reverts to a recessive form.
B) it is sex-linked to the male gamete,and females do not carry the allele.
C) people with the disorder often live long enough to reproduce.
D) it is autosomal and can be masked by a codominant harmless allele.
Q2) Which of the following genetic changes would NOT be heritable?
A) a mutation in a skin cell
B) the loss of a chromosome in a sperm cell
C) the addition of a chromosome in an egg cell
D) a mutation in a gene in a gamete
Q3) Human males have one chromosome that females do not,known as the ________ chromosome.
Q4) Because two genes are only very rarely separated from each other by crossing-over,it can be concluded that the two genes are
A) close to each other on the same chromosome.
B) far apart from each other on the same chromosome
C) on two different chromosomes.
D) on homologous chromosomes.
Q5) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype ________.
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a base found in DNA?
A) thymine
B) adenine
C) guanine
D) uracil
Q2) During replication,each "old" DNA strand serves as a template for a new strand.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Enzymes proofread base pairing during DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To repair DNA,a protein cuts out the damaged section.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Once replication in a DNA molecule is complete,each new DNA molecule contains one old strand and one new strand.This type of replication is called
A) transcriptive.
B) semiconservative.
C) covalent.
D) corruptive.
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Some tRNAs can recognize more than one codon because the base at the third position of their anticodon can pair with any one of two or three different bases in the codon;this phenomenon is called ________.
Q2) During translation
A) many mRNA molecules work with one tRNA molecule and one rRNA molecule to produce a protein.
B) one tRNA molecule works with paired mRNA molecules and many rRNA molecules to produce a protein.
C) strings of bonded tRNA molecules work with one mRNA molecule and one rRNA molecule to produce a protein.
D) one mRNA molecule works with several rRNA molecules and many tRNA molecules to produce a protein.
Q3) A potential danger of a mutation to an organism is that
A) it can affect codons within the spacer DNA.
B) all mutations are fatal.
C) it can cause a change in the function of a gene's protein product.
D) it can increase the length of the introns of that organism's genome.
Q4) Translation,a process carried out by the ribosomes,occurs in the cell ________.
Q5) The base sequence of mRNA specifies the sequence of amino acids in a ________.
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Restriction enzymes work only on bacterial DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Potatoes have been engineered to produce proteins from the bacteria that causes cholera,a diarrheal disease.This is an example of genetic engineering to
A) enhance economically important species.
B) produce pharmaceutical products.
C) produce vaccines.
D) produce dangerous organisms.
Q3) In research,restriction enzymes are used to
A) stop replication of DNA at a specific base during DNA sequencing.
B) cut DNA molecules into pieces that can be used to create recombinant DNA.
C) measure the relative amounts of each base in a DNA molecule.
D) join two fragments of DNA together to form a molecule of recombinant DNA.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT required for reproductive cloning?
A) an egg cell that lacks a nucleus
B) a somatic cell
C) an electrical current
D) a restriction enzyme
Q5) Genetically modified organisms are also called________ organisms.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main conclusion Darwin reached after his return from the expedition aboard the HMS Beagle was that
A) the animals living on the Galápagos Islands were similar to those seen on other Pacific islands.
B) the animals living on the Galápagos Islands were closely related to those found in England.
C) animal species are stable over time and do not evolve.
D) plant and animal populations slowly change over time as beneficial characteristics become more widespread.
Q2) One result of ________ over evolutionary time spans is that the alleles that enable individuals to survive and reproduce at a higher rate than other individuals become more common in the population.
Q3) For a population to evolve,there must be genetic differences between organisms in that population.These differences come from A) mutation.
B) a change in an organism's behavior.
C) natural selection.
D) common descent.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Adaptive radiation gives rise to
A) many descendent species.
B) many ancestral species.
C) a single descendent species.
D) many hybrid species.
Q2) Grizzly bears,whales,mice,and humans are very different genotypically and phenotypically.However,they do share some genotypic and phenotypic traits because they
A) independently evolved the similar traits,even though they are not related to each other.
B) evolved from species that radiated from a common ancestral species millions of years ago.
C) occupy the same ecological niche where similar traits are selected.
D) are not reproductively isolated from each other.
Q3) Speciation cannot occur without geographic isolation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fact that Neanderthal genes were found in the modern human genome suggests that these two species interbred at some point,creating human-Neanderthal
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a possible cause of mass extinctions?
A) climate change
B) a very large earthquake
C) massive volcanic eruptions
D) changes in sea levels
Q2) If a gene from the coelacanth that drives the development of limbs in the coelacanth embryo was inserted into rats,what would the result likely be?
A) It would likely drive the production of a lobed fin in the rat.
B) It would likely drive production of a limb that is a cross between a normal rat limb and a lobed fin.
C) It would likely drive the production of an almost normal rat limb.
D) It would likely drive the production of no limb in the rat embryo.
Q3) Which of the following statements about continental drift is true?
A) It is the slow movement of the continents over time.
B) It encourages gene flow.
C) It no longer occurs.
D) It has had no effect on speciation.
Q4) About 220 million years ago,mammals evolved from ____________________.
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) Because the RNA genome of HIV is converted into DNA in an infected host cell,HIV is a rhinovirus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The status of viruses has been controversial,but most biologists now agree that the most appropriate description for a virus is a microscopic,________ infective particle.
Q3) The domain most similar to Eukarya is ________.
Q4) Viral classification and biology has been challenging;presently,most biologists agree that viruses
A) should be classified as members of the kingdom Protista.
B) are constructed from a protein wrapped around DNA or RNA.
C) use a photosynthetic process more similar to bacteria than plants.
D) should be classified as autochemotrophic.
Q5) Sometimes antiviral drugs stop working because viruses can evolve and become ________ to the drug.
Q6) Dental hygienists carefully remove plaque,an aggregate of prokaryotic cells organized as a ________,from the surface of the teeth of their patients.
Q7) Prokaryotes able to live in unusually cold conditions are ________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) Most plants produce flowers,which greatly improve the probability of ________.
Q2) Some protists can reproduce asexually after having located to favorable living conditions;the most commonly used methods are fragmentation,zoospores,budding,or
Q3) Flowers are the organs of reproduction in angiosperms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The kingdom Protista is quite diverse and the relationship among its various members is unclear.The best method of clarifying those relationships will require that biologists
A) remove the kingdom from Eukarya and place it in its own domain.
B) match each of the protist traits with the corresponding animal trait of the common ancestor.
C) separate the eukaryotic protists from the prokaryotic protists.
D) create an evolutionary tree for the group using comparative DNA data.
Q5) The majority of protists are motile,enabling heterotrophic species to locate organic resources and autotrophic species to orient to sunlight.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) Some mollusks feed on cnidarians,absorb intact cnidocytes,and migrate these cnidocytes into their body surface.What possible benefit could the mollusk derive from this behavior?
A) By disguising themselves as cnidarians,they can better approach their prey.
B) Because some cnidarians use cnidocytes for protection,their defensive functions could be transferred intact to the mollusk.
C) Mollusks with cnidocytes may increase their reproductive fitness by appearing more attractive to potential mates.
D) Cnidocyte toxin may incapacitate cnidarian prey species,allowing for quicker consumption and more efficient food gathering.
Q2) Sponges are considered the most ancient of animals;although multicellular,sponges have not developed the ________ present in all other animals.
Q3) Sharks and the ray-finned fishes differ in several ways;the most significant difference is the composition of the skeleton.
A)True
B)False
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21
Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) A measure of the energy that producers are able to store as biomass is ________.
Q2) The ________ consists of all life and its surroundings.
Q3) A ________ is a wetland dominated by trees and shrubs.
Q4) In the northern ocean basins,ocean currents generally flow ________ between continents.
A) from the equator to the South Pole
B) along the lines of longitude
C) counterclockwise
D) clockwise
Q5) Introduced species that become serious pests are often called ________ species.
Q6) Which of the following factors does NOT represent a significant contribution to desert formation?
A) high temperature
B) lack of liquid water
C) salt content of the soil
D) rain shadows
Q7) The Gulf Stream moves about as much water as the average large river on land does.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) When an S-shaped growth curve levels,it is an indication that a population may have reached its carrying capacity and that at least one critical resource has become limiting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Humans appear to be the only species not subject to limits on the size of its population.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the combination of death and emigration rates is lower than the combination of birth and immigration rates,the population will ________.
Q4) Which of the following is likely to make the smallest contribution to annual changes in the size of a population?
A) extreme weather events such as a hurricane
B) an introduced species that preys on the population
C) global climate change
D) an outbreak of a highly infectious disease
Q5) The type of growth that occurs when the population size increases by a constant proportion over time is known as ________.
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Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Nuptial gifts are
A) forms of communication used to end a sexual relationship.
B) forms of communication used to interest a potential sexual partner.
C) are seldom used because they are not usually effective.
D) are examples of altruistic behaviors.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT reflect a biological benefit of animal communication?
A) to learn fixed behaviors
B) to avoid conflict
C) to identify themselves
D) to identify potential mates
Q3) Genetic influences play a larger role in
A) fixed behaviors such as imprinting.
B) learned behaviors such as a dog fetching a stick.
C) fixed behaviors such as nest cleaning in honeybees.
D) learned behaviors such as cats covering their excretions.
Q4) The entire genetic information of an individual is known as a(n)________.
Q5) In a polygamous mating system,a male mates with a group of females called a ________.
Q6) ________ is a highly advanced form of communication found in humans.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Despite its parasitic lifestyle and negative impact on individually infected trees,the presence of mistletoe can greatly increase the diversity of forests and woodlands.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cowbirds lay their eggs in the nests of smaller birds.The fast-developing cowbird chicks hatch first,and push the other baby chicks out of the nest as they hatch.Which interaction best describes cowbird behavior?
A) mutualism
B) parasitism
C) predation
D) exploitative competition
Q3) The bacteria in yogurt can colonize the human intestine and participate in a symbiotic relationship called ________.
Q4) During ________,a newly created habitat is inhabited.
A) primary succession
B) climax community formation
C) disturbance colonization
D) keystone recovery
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Phosphorus is the only major nutrient whose cycle is ________.
Q2) Which of the following groups of organisms would NOT be considered consumers?
A) herbivores
B) predators
C) photosynthesizers
D) decomposers
Q3) The primary contribution of decomposers to an ecosystem occurs when they
A) capture solar energy.
B) recycle nutrients sequestered in organisms back to the physical environment.
C) regulate the number of producers.
D) prevent consumer overpopulation.
Q4) Ecosystems are closed systems.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Nutrients that have an atmospheric cycle
A) include carbon,nitrogen,and phosphorus.
B) may be affected by events that occur in distant parts of the globe.
C) may become trapped in ocean sediments until tectonic processes elevate the ocean floor.
D) can quickly become locally depleted and limit NPP.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) As a result of climate change,rates of infectious disease caused by dengue fever virus and West Nile virus may increase because of the habitat shifts of ________.
Q2) Gases that enable light energy to pass through the atmosphere into outer space but that trap heat energy on Earth are known as ________ gases.
Q3) Global warming is causing the frequency of storms and severe weather to increase because the rising temperatures also increase ________ energy.
Q4) Which of the following cycles appears to make the greatest contribution to climate change?
A) the phosphorus cycle
B) the carbon cycle
C) the sulfur cycle
D) the nitrogen cycle
Q5) Humans are changing the way many chemicals ________ through ecosystems.
Q6) Even without the melting of polar ice,global warming is causing sea levels to rise because warm water expands.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) Blood pH is relatively neutral in order to allow enzymes to function properly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Since the fur color of many mammals darkens in the winter months,it can be concluded that this is an ________ that allows the mammals to ________ radiant energy.
A) adaptation;reflect B) acclimation;absorb C) adaptation;absorb D) acclimation;reflect
Q3) An animal can lose heat by ________ even when the environmental temperature is greater than its internal temperature.
Q4) A person getting chills or "goosebumps" when cold is part of a(n) A) elevated response.
B) delayed response.
C) positive feedback loop.
D) negative feedback loop.
Q5) The very young and the elderly are more at risk for heatstroke.
A)True
B)False
28
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) The first enzymes that food encounters in our body are in our A) mouth.
B) esophagus.
C) pancreas.
D) small intestine.
Q2) The most likely potential problem faced by a person who is following a low-protein diet is the failure to
A) take in enough organic compounds to produce the energy necessary for life functions.
B) take in enough essential amino acids.
C) take in enough calories to survive.
D) make the mineral nutrients necessary to live.
Q3) There is evidence that omega-3 fatty acids promote heart health and may protect against depression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Omega-3 fatty acids are found primarily in red meat.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Vitamins are either water soluble or ________ soluble.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) The rate of diffusion declines with increasing distance because the concentration gradient becomes progressively smaller.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Inhaled air reaches the lungs after passing through a paired set of organs,the A) bronchi.
B) alveoli.
C) bronchioles.
D) pharynx.
Q3) In comparison to the air in the alveoli,inhaled air has a
A) higher concentration of carbon dioxide and a lower concentration of oxygen.
B) higher concentration of both carbon dioxide and oxygen.
C) higher concentration of oxygen and a lower concentration of carbon dioxide.
D) lower concentration of both carbon dioxide and oxygen.
Q4) Numerous body systems deal with the various physiological issues that living organisms face;the internal transport of oxygen,carbon dioxide,nutrients,hormones,and dissolved wastes is the responsibility of the ________ system.
Q5) Although blood plasma carries many electrolytes,nutrients,and other components,the vast majority of plasma is made of ________.
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Q1) You are walking in the woods and suddenly find yourself between a mother bear and her two cubs.The nervous system of each individual involved would send an emergency message to the A) thyroid glands.
B) adrenal glands.
C) islet cells.
D) pituitary glands.
Q2) Human growth hormone can decrease body fat and increase muscle mass. A)True
B)False
Q3) Calcitonin is secreted by the A) adrenal glands.
B) kidneys.
C) pancreas.
D) thyroid gland.
Q4) The target cells of growth hormone are located in A) bones.
B) the pituitary gland.
C) the gonads.
D) the hypothalamus.
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) In vertebrates,special cells produce an insulating sheath of ________ that wraps around the axon of a neuron.
Q2) Which area of our brain acts as a "traffic manager"?
A) the thalamus
B) the cerebral cortex
C) the pons
D) the cerebellum
Q3) The branched receiving ends of a nerve cell are called A) dendrites.
B) axons.
C) neurons.
D) synapses.
Q4) Action potentials can transmit information rapidly but weaken as they move along a neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In regard to the peripheral nervous system (PNS),signals that occur involuntarily are under autonomic control.
A)True
B)False
32
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Chapter 31: Skeletons,Muscles,and Movement
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Q1) Which of the following would be found in a sarcomere?
A) cartilage
B) actin
C) collagen
D) chitin
Q2) Lobsters and insects have internal skeletons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As seen in the digestive system and in other organs containing smooth muscle,one benefit of smooth muscle that sets it apart from skeletal muscle is that
A) smooth muscle needs more ATP than cardiac muscle.
B) smooth muscle can hold contractions longer than skeletal muscle.
C) most smooth muscle is fast-twitch muscle.
D) smooth muscle is only found in the digestive tract and specialized to move food through the body.
Q4) The ________ the surface area exposed to a medium,the smaller the amount of drag experienced.
Q5) In the skeleton of a house cat,compact bone forms the hard,white outer region,and ________ bone lies inside the compact bone.
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Chapter 32: The Immune System
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Q1) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?
A) cystic fibrosis: the immune system attacks the epithelial cells that form the lung's inner surface
B) sickle-cell anemia: the immune system attacks the components in the bone marrow that give rise to red blood cells
C) type 1 diabetes: the immune system attacks the pancreatic cells that produce insulin
D) Tay-Sachs disease: the immune system attacks the cells associated with energy storage within the nervous system.
Q2) Lymphocytes are relatively abundant,accounting for approximately 20 percent of all white blood cells;what is their origin?
A) They are produced by the conversion of other white blood cells,like macrophages,during an infectious event.
B) They originate in the thymus.
C) They are generated in lymph nodes by mitotic division of the cells lining the lymphatic pathway.
D) Like all blood cells,they are produced by the division of stem cells in the bone marrow.
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) In general,why does a female animal tend to choose her mate more carefully than does a male?
A) Males tend to live longer than females.
B) Males do not produce as much sperm as females do eggs.
C) A female has more resources tied up in an egg than a male does in sperm.
D) Females use more of their resources in mate-attracting displays.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT affect development in animals?
A) morphogens
B) hemoglobin
C) genes
D) hormones
Q3) In human females,primary oocytes do NOT develop into mature eggs
A) unless they are fertilized.
B) until they reach the uterus.
C) until the first trimester.
D) until puberty.
Q4) Hyperemesis gravidarum,severe morning sickness,is caused by a decreased sensitivity to human chorionic gonadotropin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) The reason that the cell walls of tracheids are so thick is to prevent them from collapsing under the tension created by transpiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cells of the xylem are dead at functional maturity.This allows A) osmosis into the xylem.
B) transpiration to occur in the stem.
C) the water molecules in the xylem to form a continuous column from root to shoot.
D) sugars to be actively transported into the xylem.
Q3) Most of the dry biomass of a plant comes from ________ absorbed from the air by its leaves.
Q4) Root caps are aided by mucilage in order to move in abrasive soil.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Plant spines or thorns are examples of modified leaves. A)True
B)False
Q6) Plants are protected from herbivores by ________ tissue,which also controls gas exchange.
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Chapter 35: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following would be haploid?
A) pollen
B) guard cells
C) root hairs
D) parenchyma cells
Q2) Meristem cells in plants are similar to ________ cells in vertebrates.
Q3) Pollen is produced in the
A) ovules.
B) anthers.
C) style.
D) stigma.
Q4) In order to fertilize an egg,a pollen grain must first arrive at the ________.
Q5) When you prune a rose plant by cutting off the tips of all the branches,the plant becomes more bushy because
A) auxins are then produced by the shoot to promote secondary growth.
B) the auxins normally produced by the shoot tip were inhibiting the growth of lateral buds.
C) pruning would stimulate the production of auxin,which increases apical meristem growth.
D) removing the source of auxin leads to the formation of new lateral buds.
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