General Biology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
General Biology offers a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of the biological sciences. The course covers topics including the structure and function of cells, the basics of genetics and heredity, principles of evolution, the diversity of living organisms, and the interactions between organisms and their environments. Students will explore key biochemical pathways, systems of plants and animals, and ecological relationships, laying a solid foundation for advanced study in the life sciences. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory work, and interactive activities, students will develop critical scientific thinking and laboratory skills essential for understanding and investigating the living world.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition by Michael D. Johnson
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24 Chapters
2002 Verified Questions
2002 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Human Biology, Science, and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humans can grasp objects between their thumbs and fingers because the thumb is
Answer: opposable
Q2) Approaching new information with a questioning attitude and looking for evidence to support the claim involves
A) inductive reasoning
B) the process of predicting an outcome
C) deductive reasoning
D) curiosity
E) skepticism
Answer: E
Q3) Which one of the following sequences represents taxa arranged in order from largest, most all inclusive, to smallest?
A) kingdom, domain, phylum, order, class, genus, species, family
B) domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
C) domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, genus, species, family
D) species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain
E) kingdom, phylum, domain, class, order, genus, species, family
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Living Things
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements accurately describes hydrolysis reactions in biological systems?
A) Hydrolysis reactions enable the breakdown of food molecules during digestion.
B) Hydrolysis reactions enable small molecules to be joined to form larger molecules.
C) Hydrolysis reactions generally require substantial input of energy.
D) Hydrolysis reactions are spontaneous and don't require catalysis by enzymes.
E) Hydrolysis reactions generally occur for the purpose of energy storage.
Answer: A
Q2) Which one of the following molecules is stored in adipose tissue and serves as an important source of energy for the human body?
A) glucose
B) steroids
C) glycogen
D) triglycerides
E) phospholipids
Answer: D
Q3) The acidity or alkalinity of a solution can be measured in terms of ________.
Answer: pH
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4
Chapter 3: Structure and Function of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assume that you ate a salad that contained some compounds that upset your stomach but still managed to be absorbed and eventually moved into liver cells. The plant compounds are noxious and potentially toxic to the liver cells. Which organelle would be expected to target and detoxify the plant compounds?
A) ribosome
B) mitochondrion
C) peroxisome
D) centriole
E) nucleolus
Answer: C
Q2) The synthesis of ATP that occurs using energy derived from the electron transport system is referred to as ________ phosphorylation.
Answer: oxidative
Q3) The area surrounding cells outside the plasma membrane is referred to as the ________ environment.
Answer: extracellular
Q4) The enzyme located in the inner mitochondrial membrane that synthesizes ATP is known as ________.
Answer: ATP synthase
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Chapter 4: From Cells to Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of muscle responsible for involuntary contractions of the stomach is ________ muscle.
A) smooth
B) cardiac
C) intercalated
D) striated
E) skeletal
Q2) During long, sustained aerobic exercise, a lot of heat is generated that elevates body temperature. Describe how a homeostatic control system would likely work to cool body temperature back to normal. Specify each component of the control system.
Q3) A(n) ________ epithelium allows gas exchange in the lungs.
Q4) The tissue lining the mouth, organs of the digestive system, and inner surfaces of the lungs is classified as
A) connective
B) epithelial
C) nervous
D) muscle
E) connective and nervous
Q5) Cells in cartilage that produce the ground substance are the ________.
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) location of blood vessels
Q2) All of the following statements about the sinuses are TRUE EXCEPT which one?
A) The sinuses are located in several of the facial bones.
B) The sinuses are lined by a tissue that produces and secretes mucus.
C) The sinuses give the human voice its characteristic resonance and tone.
D) The sinuses add weight and bulk to the skull and facial bones, strengthening them.
E) The sinuses connect to the nasal cavity by small passageways.
Q3) In mature compact bone, osteocytes become isolated from one another by the extracellular matrix, making it impossible for them to communicate with each other.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which one of the following disorders of the skeletal system results from the "wearing out" of the cartilage that covers the ends of bones?
A) bursitis
B) osteoarthritis
C) tennis elbow
D) rheumatoid arthritis
E) sinusitis
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Page 7
Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Slow-twitch fibers contain many mitochondria and are well supplied with blood vessels, and can make ATP as they need it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Isometric contractions usually result in no movement of the skeleton or objects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which one of the following statements correctly describes the origin and insertion of a muscle?
A) The insertion is pulled toward the origin during contraction.
B) The origin is pulled toward the insertion during contraction.
C) The origin of a muscle is generally distal (farther from the body's midline) relative to the insertion.
D) The origin and insertion refers to the growth pattern of a muscle during development.
E) There is always a ligament at the origin of a muscle and a tendon at the insertion.
Q4) According to the ________ principle, a muscle cell contracts completely when adequately stimulated by a motor neuron.
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Chapter 7: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a blood vessel gets damaged, contractions of smooth muscle referred to as ________ help constrict the vessel to reduce blood flow.
A) vascular spasms
B) hemostasis
C) homeostasis
D) formed elements
E) endocytosis
Q2) Histamine is released from which one of the following types of leukocyte to stimulate the inflammatory response?
A) lymphocyte
B) basophil
C) eosinophil
D) neutrophil
E) monocyte
Q3) Platelets function to engulf foreign cells by phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In order to be certain that blood transfusions are as safe as possible, medical laboratories not only conduct blood typing, but also ________.
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Chapter 8: Heart and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiac output can be calculated by
A) measuring the number of heartbeats in one hour
B) monitoring changes in blood pressure for a specific period of time, but for at least 15 minutes
C) multiplying heart rate by stroke volume
D) dividing stroke volume by arterial blood pressure
E) summing heart rate, stroke volume, and blood pressure
Q2) In a weakened heart, the heart begins to pump less blood, resulting in blood backing up in the veins causing pressure in veins and capillaries to rise. This condition is called
A) angina
B) congestive heart failure
C) hypotension
D) hypertension
E) atherosclerosis
Q3) The heart muscle itself receives oxygen and nutrients from blood transported by the ________ arteries.
Q4) Smooth muscle, in the form of ________, is frequently located where arterioles meet capillaries.
Q5) Spontaneous contractions of the heart muscle begin in the ________.
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Chapter 9: The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following types of T cells is a critical component of the immune system because it stimulates and enhances the activity of other components of the immune system?
A) T suppressor cell
B) T memory cell
C) T helper cell
D) cytotoxic T cell
E) natural killer cells
Q2) The bubonic plague epidemic that swept through Europe between 1348 and 1350 A.D. was induced by a(n)
A) virus
B) prion
C) protozoan
D) bacterium
E) unidentified eukaryotic organism
Q3) If you travel through an airport during a major holiday season, you are very likely exposed to a number of potential pathogens. Describe some of the first lines of defense that your body uses to keep these pathogens out of your body.
Q4) Bacterial infections are generally treated with ________.
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Chapter 10: The Respiratory System: Exchange of Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Air spaces in the skull called the ________ drain into the nasal cavity.
Q2) It is impossible to talk while swallowing because the ________ blocks the opening to the lower respiratory tract, routing food to the esophagus instead of the ________.
Q3) During exhalation, the pressure inside the lungs
A) initially is higher than atmospheric pressure, but drops as air leaves the body
B) must be maintained higher than atmospheric pressure
C) must be maintained lower than atmospheric pressure
D) gradually elevates as air enters the lungs
E) rapidly elevates
Q4) Bronchioles differ from bronchi in that they
A) are wider in diameter
B) carry oxygenated air toward the alveoli
C) filter, warm, and humidify air
D) lack cartilage in their walls
E) are lined by a ciliated epithelium
Q5) The figure above depicts expiration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: The Nervous System: Integration and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following steps occurs during the absolute refractory period?
A) The neuron cannot generate an action potential.
B) Sodium channels open, releasing sodium ions into the neuron; potassium channels close.
C) Sodium and potassium channels open.
D) A nerve impulse is propagated.
E) Potassium channels open, releasing potassium ions from the neuron; sodium channels close.
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT directly involved in the production of a typical spinal reflex?
A) brain
B) sensory neuron
C) motor neuron
D) interneuron
E) stimulus
Q3) The phrase all-or-none response describes a neuron-generated action potential. Explain what is meant by this phrase.
Q4) the membrane is depolarized
Q5) Removal of the ________ would prevent any type of decision making.
Q6) In order for repolarization of a neuron to occur, ________ must be closed.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Sensory Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an individual first gets dressed, he or she is conscious of the clothing on his body. A short time later, however, he or she is no longer aware of it. This is known as
Q2) Mechanoreceptors specifically designed to monitor muscle length are termed
A) thermoreceptors
B) muscle spindles
C) dendrites
D) muscle fibers
E) Pacinian corpuscles
Q3) ________ extend from the tip of taste cells in taste buds into the mouth.
A) Papillae
B) Taste hairs
C) Olfactory bulbs
D) Spindles
E) Tendons
Q4) The two structures of the eye that focus light are the ________ and ________.
Q5) Receptor adaptation occurs when a sensory neuron stops sending impulses even though the original stimulus is still present. Provide several examples of receptors that adapt readily and others that adapt very slowly if at all. Explain the survival advantage in each of these situations.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During times of stress, which one of the following glands releases CRH to stimulate the anterior pituitary to release ACTH?
A) hypothalamus
B) pancreas
C) adrenal medulla
D) posterior pituitary
E) anterior pituitary
Q2) Calcitonin and PTH have opposing effects on blood calcium levels.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nonsteroid hormones require a(n) ________ on the cell surface to communicate with cells.
Q4) Although most of the estrogen and testosterone produced in the human body is made by the ovaries and testes, respectively, small amounts of these hormones are also produced by the ________.
Q5) ________ of growth hormone results in pituitary dwarfism.
Q6) A student just finished a delicious breakfast of pancakes with syrup, orange juice, and Danish pastries. Because his blood sugar level has increased, the pancreas secretes
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) releases bile into the duodenum
Q2) The appendix is considered one of the lesser accessory organs of the digestive tract. A)True
B)False
Q3) The digestion of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates is completed in the A) stomach
B) small intestine
C) liver
D) pancreas
E) large intestine
Q4) Stomach acid does not break down the wall of the stomach because gastric juice contains a powerful base that neutralizes the acid before it can cause damage.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mucin is a major component of saliva, which lubricates the teeth and causes food to stick together during swallowing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ureters connect the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chloride ions move by ________, following transport of sodium out of tubular cells.
Q3) The primary sources of the nitrogenous wastes that are eliminated by the kidneys are
A) proteins
B) carbohydrates
C) vitamins
D) triglycerides
E) nucleic acids
Q4) The efferent arteriole carries blood from the glomerulus to the
A) renal artery
B) peritubular capillaries
C) renal vein
D) collecting duct
E) afferent arteriole
Q5) The glomerulus of each nephron is enclosed by a portion of the nephron known as
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) gland that secretes an alkaline fluid as part of the semen
Q2) External genitalia of the male reproductive system include the
A) ejaculatory duct
B) urethra and scrotum
C) penis and scrotum
D) penis
E) penis, urethra, and ejaculatory duct
Q3) The muscular layer of the uterus that provides the force necessary to expel the baby during birth is called the ________.
Q4) Which one of the following methods of enhancing fertility involves the placement of sperm and unfertilized eggs into the oviduct?
A) artificial insemination
B) in vitro fertilization
C) gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
D) hysteroscopy
E) zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)
Q5) The vagina is indicated by letter ________.
Q6) Ovulation occurs during the ________ stage of the menstrual cycle.
Q7) In humans, fertilization usually occurs in the ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cell Reproduction and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitosis differs from meiosis in that only mitosis
A) is preceded by interphase
B) involves two successive cell divisions
C) results in the production of haploid cells
D) involves the pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I
E) results in cells that are genetically identical to the original cell
Q2) The study of how gene expression is altered by factors in the cell's environment is called ________.
Q3) Although a specific codon specifies only one amino acid, several different codons can specify the same amino acid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During which one of the following stages of the cell cycle do the chromosomes exist in the form of chromatin not really visible under the microscope?
A) metaphase
B) anaphase
C) interphase
D) early part of telophase
E) all stages of mitosis
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Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tumor suppressor genes function to increase the activity of cells during times of stress or when conditions do not favor cell division.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The human body has an incredibly efficient and powerful immune system capable of removing many potentially damaging pathogens and toxic agents that threaten the body. Knowing how efficient the human immune system is, explain why cancerous cells that threaten health can seemingly develop undetected.
Q3) Consider an individual undergoing cancer chemotherapy, taking a drug that slows or stops cell division. Which one of the following is a likely side effect of such chemotherapy?
A) improved hair growth
B) anemia
C) weight gain
D) headaches
E) fluid retention
Q4) Techniques used to increase the effectiveness of the immune system in fighting cancer are collectively known as ________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Genetics and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In 2008 the U.S. Congress passed GINA, an act that prevents insurance companies from
A) requiring genetic testing for potential policy holders with a family history of certain types of genetic disorders
B) raising the rates of insurance premiums or denying coverage to people who have a pre-diagnosed health condition
C) increasing insurance costs for healthy individuals based on the results of genetic testing
D) denying insurance coverage to any U.S. citizen
E) refusing to pay for genetic screening of a fetus of a couple considered high risk for certain types of genetic diseases
Q2) A Punnett square can be used to determine possible genotypes of offspring as well as possible genotypic and phenotypic ratios of the offspring given a particular combination of alleles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) ________ occurs when a piece of chromosome breaks off or is lost.
Q4) Genes for different traits located on the same chromosome are called ________.
Q5) A display of an individual's chromosomes is known as a(n) ________.
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Chapter 20: DNA Technology and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some genetically engineered tomato plants produce tomatoes that last longer on the grocery shelf; some genetically engineered cotton plants are resistant to insects.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A DNA sequence that can be read the same backward and forward is called a(n)
A) repetitive code
B) palindrome
C) plasmid sequence
D) DNA fingerprint
E) exon
Q3) Technique of using plasmid DNA to insert another species DNA into a bacterium or plant is called ________ transfer.
Q4) To create cows, sheep, and pigs that grow faster and larger, the gene for ________ has been inserted into their genomes.
Q5) Gene therapy is a technique in which DNA from one species is inserted into another to produce useful gene products.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fertilization is completed when the sperm nucleus fuses with the ________.
Q2) Which one of the following embryonic features is the forerunner of the brain and spinal cord?
A) pharyngeal arches
B) somites
C) yolk sac
D) neural groove
E) chorionic villi
Q3) During the first four days of development following fertilization, cells of the embryo undergo rapid cleavage, but the size of the embryo remains the same.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cell formed by the union of egg and sperm during fertilization is the ________.
Q5) Many sperm entering the vagina are killed by the acidic secretions of the female reproductive tract.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Ejection of milk from the breasts is caused by the hormone ________.
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Chapter 22: Evolution and the Origins of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the history of Earth and in the evolution of living cells, two self-replicating molecules have formed: DNA and RNA. Determine whether each of the following characteristics can be attributed to DNA or RNA. Answers may be used more than once.
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) both DNA and RNA
10) molecule that directs production of proteins in modern cells
11) molecule first formed on templates of clay in mudflats
12) the self-replicating molecule of present-day cells
13) first molecule to evolve
14) more stable of the two molecules
Q2) In the scientific process, the word ________ is reserved for those few major concepts that offer the best explanation to fit a broad range of established facts.
Q3) The early atmosphere of Earth did not contain the gas ________; it is believed that life as we know it would not have evolved if this gas had been present.
Q4) All humans belong to the same species, but have distinct heritable physical differences known as ________.
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Chapter 23: Ecosystems and Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The population of a particular species that an ecosystem can sustain indefinitely is called its
A) climax community
B) growth rate
C) carrying capacity
D) environmental range
E) habitat distribution
Q2) Omnivores differ from carnivores in that omnivores derive their energy from
A) green plants
B) plants and animals
C) detritus
D) animals only
E) plants, animals, and photosynthesis
Q3) A biogeochemical cycle involves the cycling of a chemical element between the biomass, exchange pool, and ________.
Q4) Climax communities generally exhibit the greatest species diversity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The point at which the number of births equals the number of deaths is called
25
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Chapter 24: Human Impacts, Biodiversity, and Environmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ozone layer can be destroyed by pollutants such as
A) sulfur dioxide
B) CFCs
C) carbon monoxide
D) hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides
E) carbon dioxide and oxygen
Q2) Biomass fuels are least likely to be used in which one of the following countries?
A) United States
B) Brazil
C) Iceland
D) Vietnam
E) England
Q3) Which one of the following actions of humans has not contributed to the worldwide reduction in biodiversity?
A) pollution
B) growth of cities
C) logging
D) clear-cutting of rain forests
E) biomass energy sources
Page 26
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