General Biology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
General Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of biological science, encompassing cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. The course examines the chemical basis of life, mechanisms of inheritance, and the evolutionary processes that shape organisms and populations. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, critical thinking, and the relevance of biology to everyday life, preparing students for advanced study in biological and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which concept represents the lowest degree of certainty?
A) hypothesis
B) conclusion
C) fact
D) principle
E) theory
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about the peacock butterfly?
A) The dark underside of their wings provides camouflage.
B) The spots on the wings may resemble owl eyes, which help deter predation.
C) The butterflies remain still when a predator is near so as not to draw attention.
D) The rapid movement of their wings produces a hissing sound.
E) A resting butterfly's closed wing resembles a dead leaf.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis
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Q1) The radioactive decay of 14C produces ____.
A) carbon 12
B) carbon 13
C) more carbon 14
D) nitrogen 14
E) oxygen 14
Answer: D
Q2) A liquid that dissolves other substances
A)hydrophobic
B)hydrophilic
C)salt
D)solute
E)solvent
Answer: E
Q3) 14Cis a radioactive isotope, and it turns into ____________________ when it decays.
Answer: nitrogen
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Q1) nucleotides
A)a six-carbon sugar
B)found in DNA and RNA
C)principal components of cell membranes
D)affect metabolic reaction rates
Answer: B
Q2) Polyunsaturated fats ____.
A) have fewer hydrogen atoms than do saturated fats
B) are more characteristic of animal fats than plant fats
C) have no double bonds
D) are solid at room temperature
E) are gas at room temperature
Answer: A
Q3) How are cellulose and starch similar and how do they differ?
Answer: Both cellulose and starch are complex carbohydrates, i.e., long chains of monomers. Both are found in plants. However, cellulose is a structural molecule that is not easily digested (hydrolyzed), while starch is an energy-storage molecule that is easily hydrolyzed.
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) nucleolus
Q2) What is the structure labeled F in the accompanying figure?
A) cytoplasm
B) nucleoid
C) plasma membrane
D) capsule
E) pilus
Q3) In the development of the cell theory, Schleiden and Schwann did not study prokaryotes. Why might this have limited their understanding of cells?
Q4) houses chlorophyll
A)chloroplast
B)central vacuole
C)plasmodesmata
D)cell wall
E)chromoplasts
Q5) microfilaments
Q6) Chart the path of molecules of a secreted protein beginning at the DNA for a eukaryote.
Q7) nuclear envelope
Q8) smooth ER
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Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism
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Q1) Discuss the role of turgor in the crisp lettuce purchased at the grocery store looking much limper by the time it gets home.
Q2) What type of energy is the energy in chemical bonds?
A) solar energy
B) activation energy
C) kinetic energy
D) potential energy
E) thermal energy
Q3) spontaneous movement of molecules
A)diffusion
B)hypertonic
C)hypotonic
D)isotonic
E)osmosis
F)osmotic pressure
G)turgor
Q4) A chemical interaction in which the products contain less free energy than the reactants is called a(n) ____________________ reaction.
Q5) Compare and contrast facilitated and active transport.
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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis
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Q1) Consider the Calvin-Benson cycle and the noncyclic photosynthetic pathway. Why is the cyclic pathway so important?
Q2) phycoerythrobilin
A)Peak A
B)Peak B
C)Peak C
D)Peak D
E)Peak E
Q3) Chlorophyll does not absorb ____ wavelengths of light.
A) red
B) yellow
C) orange
D) green
E) blue
Q4) In the electromagnetic spectrum, ____.
A) infrared energy has the shortest wavelength
B) infrared radiation has more energy than red radiation
C) visible light has more energy than ultraviolet radiation
D) near-infrared radiation provides the energy for photosynthesis
E) visible light provides the energy for photosynthesis
Page 8
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Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy
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Q1) The final step of the Krebs cycle regenerates ____.
A) pyruvate
B) acetyl-CoA
C) fructose bisphosphate
D) oxaloacetate
E) citrate
Q2) The electron transfer chain is located ____.
A) on the inner membrane of the mitochondria
B) on the inner membrane of the chloroplasts
C) in the fluid part of the chloroplast
D) throughout the cytoplasm of the cell
E) on the plasma membrane of eukaryotes
Q3) This process yields the most energy overall.
A)glycolysis
B)aerobic respiration
C)electron transfer phosphorylation
D)alcoholic fermentation
E)lactate fermentation
Q4) What molecule is the common entry point to aerobic respiration for carbohydrates, proteins and fats?
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Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function
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Q1) How successful is the technique of cloning adult mammals by implanting DNA into donor eggs?
A) Few embryos survive until birth, and of those that do, many have serious health problems.
B) About half of the embryos survive until birth, but many of these die before adulthood.
C) Of the embryos that survive until birth, health outcomes are predictable.
D) Most embryos survive, but are not able to reproduce as adults.
E) Most embryos survive and lead healthy adult lives.
Q2) Does reproductive cloning always involve somatic cell nuclear transfer?
Q3) The function of helicase enzymes is to ____.
A) break hydrogen bonds and unwind the two strands of the DNA molecule prior to replication
B) rewind the two DNA molecules after replication
C) remove bases that might have been inserted incorrectly
D) seal new short stretches of nucleotides into one continuous strand
E) fragment old DNA that is no longer of use to the cell
Q4) A bacterium undergoes four rounds of replication. How many cells would result, and how many of those cells would still have part of an original DNA strand from the starting bacterium?
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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein
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Q1) The process of going from transcription to translation
A) explains the structural complexity of genes.
B) describes the flow of genetic information.
C) is based upon the role of proteins in controlling life.
D) does not explain how genes function.
E) explains evolution in terms of molecular biology.
Q2) What stage of translation occurs when ribosomal subunits and tRNAs converge on mRNA?
A) initiation
B) elongation
C) termination
D) peptide bond formation
E) elongation and peptide bond formation
Q3) ____ carries protein-assembly instructions from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
A) Template DNA
B) Messenger RNA
C) Transfer RNA
D) Ribosomal RNA
E) Total RNA
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Chapter 10: Gene Control
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Q1) Knockout experiments involving __________ genes in fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) revealed local controls over gene expression.
Q2) The two different forms of fibronectin mRNA produced by two different kinds of cells is an example of
A) transcriptional control.
B) post-transcriptional control..
C) transport control.
D) translational control.
E) post-translational control.
Q3) enhancers
A)a condensed X chromosome
B)protein that combines with DNA all along its length
C)attaches or detaches from operator to regulate transcription
D)portion of the operon that binds RNA polymerase
E)genes that induce expression of other genes
F)genes controlling the development of the body plan
G)the mutated form of this gene is associated with breast cancer
H)binding sites on DNA for regulatory proteins that increase transcription rates
Q4) The __________ governs expression of three genes active in lactose metabolism.
Q5) Why is SRY considered to be a master gene?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce
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Q1) period commonly followed by cytokinesis
A)G2
B)mitosis
C)S
D)G1
E)cytokinesis
Q2) last part of interphase in the parent cell
A)G2
B)mitosis
C)S
D)G1
E)cytokinesis
Q3) Which characteristic is correlated with cancer cells and metastasis?
A) gainof nuclear-cytoplasmic controls governing cell growth and division
B) changes in adhesion proteins on membrane surfaces
C) expansionof the cytoskeleton
D) normal chromosome number
E) deceased blood supply to the tumor
Q4) How could telomerase inhibitors be used to treat cancer?
Q5) After plant mitosis, the vesicles fuse into a disk-shaped __________.
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) What makes bdelloid rotifers so unique?
A) They reproduce sexually.
B) They can reproduce sexually or asexually.
C) They are all males.
D) They can import DNA from other major kingdoms.
E) A female can become a male if males are scarce.
Q2) All of the microtubules are the same length, and homologous chromosomes are aligned midway between the spindle poles at ____.
A) telophase I
B) metaphase I
C) anaphase I
D) metaphase II
E) anaphase II
Q3) Spindle microtubules attach the two chromosomes of each pair to opposite spindle poles.
A)prophase II
B)metaphase I
C)telophase II
D)meoisis II
Q4) At __________, the fusion of two gametes produces a(n) __________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits
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Q1) White fruit color in summer squash is influenced by a dominant allele W, whereas colored fruit must be ww. In the presence of ww, a dominant gene G results in yellow fruit, and homozygous gg results in green fruit. Give the F2 phenotypic ratios resulting from a cross of a true-breeding plant with white fruit (genotype WW GG) with a plant with green fruit.
Q2) A bell-shaped curve of phenotypic variation is indicative of A) incomplete dominance.
B) continuous variation.
C) multiple alleles.
D) epistasis.
E) environmental variables on phenotypes.
Q3) If black fur color is controlled by a dominant allele (B) and brown by its recessive allele (b), give the genotypes of the parents and offspring of a cross of a black male with a brown female that produces 1/2 black offspring and 1/2 brown offspring.
Q4) A cross of two Kerry horses always produces Kerry offspring. A cross of a Kerry with a Dexter produces 1/2 Kerry and 1/2 Dexter offspring. Crosses of two Dexters produce two Dexters for every Kerry. Explain.
Q5) __________ refers to an individual's observable traits.
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Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance
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Q1) The accompanying figure represents which chromosomal change?
A) inversion
B) deletion
C) duplication
D) translocation
E) aneuploidy
Q2) Who is a carrier of an X-linked trait?
A) homozygous dominant female
B) heterozygous female
C) homozygous recessive female
D) homozygous male
E) heterozygous male
Q3) hemophilia A
A)autosomal recessive inheritance; lactose metabolism is blocked
B)nondisjunction of the twenty-first chromosomal pair
C)X-linked recessive inheritance
D)nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes
Q4) A genetic disorder has been studied through multiple generations using pedigree analysis. Every person expressing the trait has an affected parent, and both sexes are equally affected. This suggests what sort of trait and why?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes
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Q1) The molecule that can carry foreign DNA into host cells is a(n) ____.
A) cloning vector
B) transcriptase
C) DNA ligase
D) endonuclease
E) DNA polymerase
Q2) This is any DNA made from mRNA transcripts.
A)cDNA
B)restriction enzymes
C)reverse transcriptase
D)DNA library
Q3) __________ are multiple copies of a short DNA sequence that occur at a given locus.
Q4) The goal of eugenics is to ____.
A) select the most desirable human characteristics
B) eliminate genetic disorders that reach a certain threshold in terms of their costs to individuals and society
C) produce genetically identical humans.
D) eliminate genes for abnormal behavior.
E) produce genetically perfect people.
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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) Lyell
A)wrote Principles of Geology
B)developed the theory of catastrophism
C)believed that giraffes have long necks because their short-necked ancestors stretched their necks and passed this change onto their offspring
D)was a naturalist who sailed on the Beagle and studied finches
E)wrote an essay relating population size to competition for limited resources
F)natural historian and author; formed early ideas of the great chain of being
Q2) Which theory was helpful to Darwin in the formulation of his theory of evolution?
A) catastrophism
B) inheritance of acquired characteristics
C) uniformitarianism
D) continental drift
E) special creationism
Q3) Several times in Earth's history, land masses have converged as supercontinents. ____________________ and ____________________ are examples.
Q4) How old was the world thought to be when Darwin began his voyage? How old is it thought to be now?
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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution
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Q1) What is the type of speciation that can occur in an instant with a change in chromosome number?
A) temporal
B) mechanical
C) behavioral
D) ecological
E) sympatric
Q2) directional selection
A)a reference point that implies stability of gene frequencies through generations
B)encompasses all of those actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups
C)the genes of an entire population
D)the frequency of homozygous dominants in a population
E)the frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles in a population
F)the frequency of heterozygotes in a population
G)the frequency of homozygous recessives in a population
H)heterozygote advantage in regions where malaria is found
I)pesticide-resistant pests
Q3) Microevolution is change in the __________ of a population.
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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species
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Q1) Which organisms are considered most primitive based upon the structure of their limbs?
A) bats
B) reptiles
C) porpoises
D) penguins
E) birds
Q2) The convergence in external morphology of sharks, penguins, and porpoises is attributed to
A) reduced genetic variability in these groups.
B) selection pressures that are common to these groups.
C) reproductive isolation of these groups.
D) identical genes in all three groups.
E) use and disuse of the limbs.
Q3) Neutral mutations tend to accumulate in DNA at a predictable rate; like the ticks of a(n) __________, they can help researchers estimate how long ago two lineages diverged.
Q4) Why is morphological convergence not a good explanation for vertebrate forelimbs?
Q5) Similar body parts that reflect shared ancestry are called __________.
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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution
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Q1) The earliest type of eukaryotic organism currently known is a type of ____.
A) virus
B) bacterium
C) alga
D) animal-like protist
E) fungus
Q2) Chemical evolution started on Earth ____.
A) after the appearance of prokaryotic cells
B) long before any cells emerged
C) after the appearance of eukaryotic cells
D) after the appearance of eukaryotic cells but before the appearance of multicellular organisms
E) after the appearance of multicellular organisms
Q3) What is the most probable basis for the evolution of mitochondria and chloroplasts?
A) Bacteria can be taken up by host cells.
B) Light is an energy source.
C) ATP can carry energy.
D) Oxygen is a by-product of photosynthesis.
E) Energy can be transformed from one form to another.
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Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea
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Q1) Four of the following are characteristics of viruses. Which one is the exception?
A) The outer coats of all viruses are alike.
B) The virus contains either DNA or RNA at its core, but not both.
C) Viruses infect organisms in all three domains of life.
D) Most viruses have a protein coat or covering.
E) Some viruses benefit us indirectly.
Q2) Herpes and other enveloped viruses enter their host cells ____.
A) through pores
B) by dissolving the host plasma membrane
C) by fusion of the viral membrane with the cell's plasma membrane
D) by activating transport proteins in the host cell's plasma membrane
E) by engulfing the host cell
Q3) AIDS stands for ____.
A) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
B) Accelerated Immune Death Syndrome
C) Accentuated Induced Deficiency Syndrome
D) Advantageous Immunity Deficiency Syndrome
E) Acquired Immuno Defense Syndrome
Q4) Why are endospores so dangerous to food production?
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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes
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Q1) Red tides and extensive fish kills are caused by population blooms of ____.
A) Euglena
B) specific dinoflagellates
C) diatoms
D) Plasmodium
E) fish
Q2) __________ are single-celled and mostly or entirely heterotrophic.
Q3) __________ and __________ are single-celled heterotrophs with a secreted shell.
Q4) Four of the statements about malaria are true. Which one is FALSE?
A) It is caused by an evolving organism.
B) It is transmitted from person to person by the bite of a mosquito.
C) Its mortality rate is linked to the allele for sickle cell anemia.
D) Its greatest mortality rate is in Africa.
E) Its occurrencein the United States can be traced to ineffective mosquito spraying in the southern states.
Q5) Are humans responsible for neurotoxic shellfish poisoning? Why or why not?
Q6) Some protists have complex life cycles and change between the haploid and diploid state. This process is called __________ of _________.
Q7) Why is malaria such an effective disease?
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Chapter 22: The Land Plants
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Q1) In horsetails, lycophytes, and whisk ferns, ____.
A) spores give rise to gametophytes
B) the main plant body is a gametophyte
C) the sporophyte bears sperm- and egg-producing organs
D) the gametophyte is the dominant stage in the life cycle
E) the gametophyte produces spores
Q2) Dependence on animal vectors for fertilization and dispersal is characteristic of many species of ____.
A) ferns
B) angiosperms
C) mosses
D) conifer
E) cycads
Q3) In members of this group the gametophyte is the dominant generation.
A)lycophytes
B)bryophytes
C)monocots
D)conifers
E)eudicots
Q4) Conifers, cycads, ginkgos, and gnetophytes are all ______.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Fungi
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Q1) The structures labeled "5" in the figure are ____.
A) Zygospores
B) haploid spores
C) Ascospores
D) Gametes
E) Zygotes
Q2) The ____ are a group of fungi with hyphae that grow inside the wall of plant root cells.
A) ascomycetes
B) zygomycetes
C) microsporidia
D) basidiomycetes
E) glomeromycetes
Q3) Mushrooms are an example of ____ fungI.
A) Ascomycete
B) Basidiomycete
C) Glomeromycete
D) chytrid
E) zygomycete
Q4) What sort of symbiosis would a mycorrhiza represent?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates
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Q1) In the accompanying figure, an asexually reproducing individual is indicated by
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q2) Poriferans are ____.
A) Herbivores
B) filter feeders
C) Scavengers
D) Predators
E) carnivores
Q3) Nematocysts are used for ____.
A) reproduction
B) excretion
C) muscle action
D) circulation
E) defense
Q4) In __________, an anus forms first.
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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates
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Q1) The letter "A" in the accompanying figure represents which teeth?
A) incisors
B) molars
C) canines
D) premolars
E) grinders
Q2) Most amphibians are completely dependent on an aquatic environment for ____.
A) respiration
B) feeding
C) reproduction
D) movement
E) thermoregulation
Q3) Members of this class have cartilaginous skeletons but also possess jaws.
A)cartilaginous fishes
B)bony fishes
C)amphibians
D)reptilians
Q4) __________ are jawless fishes with a backbone.
Q5) __________, or four-legged walkers, evolved from lobe-finned bony fishes.
Page 27
Q6) __________ are animals with a backbone.
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Chapter 26: Human Evolution
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Q1) Four of the following are advantages that led to an evolutionary shift towards bipedalism. Which one is the exception?
A) It allows for more efficient movement across open ground.
B) It made upright walking more energy efficient.
C) It keeps the body cooler
D) It allows the organism to reach higher food.
E) It is easier to scan the horizon for predators.
Q2) Even though the phylogenetic lineages for hominins are not definitive, four of the following statements describe possibilities. Which is NOT a possibility?
A) Homo preceded Australopithecus.
B) Homo sapiens is the most recent.
C) Australopithecus is probably more ancient than Homo.
D) Homo erectus preceded Homo sapiens.
E) Chimpanzees and bonobos are the closest living relatives to modern humans.
Q3) The only surviving Homo species.
A)Homo habilis
B)Homo erectus
C)Homo sapiens
D)Homo neanderthalensis
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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues
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Q1) Plants control the diffusion of water vapor and gases across the epidermis by means of ____.
A) xylem
B) phloem
C) periderm
D) companion cells
E) stomata
Q2) What are the two organ systems of a vascular plant body?
A) shoots and roots
B) stems and leaves
C) stems and roots
D) leaves and roots
E) leaves and flowers
Q3) The simple plant tissues are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.
Q4) Cells rich in chlorophyll and thus the main sites of photosynthesis are in layers labeled ____.
Q5) Secondary growth (thickening) arises from ____________________.
Q6) Epidermis is labeled ____.
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Q7) The absorption of water and minerals occurs at the structure labeled __________.
Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) The Casparian strip prevents water from diffusing through the ____.
A) epidermis
B) vascular tissue
C) cortex
D) cytoplasm of endodermal cells
E) endodermal cell walls
Q2) Casparian strip
A)responsible for opening and closing of stomata
B)region of a plant where sugars are being used
C)pipelines of the xylem
D)a mutually beneficial association between a fungus and a root
E)structures on roots that house nitrogen-fixing bacteria
F)pipelines of the phloem
G)evaporation of water from stems and leaves
H)provide metabolic functions necessary to sustain its paired sieve element
I)control the uptake of mineral ions into the vascular cylinder
J)transport of organic molecules from source region to sink
K)a waxy band that prevents water from diffusing through endodermal cell walls
Q3) Explain the pressure flow theory.
Q4) Explain the cohesion-tension theory.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants
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Q1) This is a fleshy fruit with one seed enclosed by a hard pit.
A)dehiscent
B)indehiscent
C)drupe
D)berry
E)pome
Q2) ovule
Q3) What kind of fruit is formed from the fusion of individually pollinated flowers?
A) aggregate
B) simple
C) multiple
D) fleshy
E) dry
Q4) Explain why some flowers, such as cherry blossoms, are described as being perfect, complete flowers.
Q5) The production of female gametes begins when a mass of tissue, called the ovule, starts growing on the inner wall of a(n) __________.
Q6) anther
Q7) Describe where pollen grains are produced in a plant.
Q8) __________ are the specialized reproductive structures of angiosperms.
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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants
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Q1) statolith
A)growth response that orients parts of a plant in a direction influenced by light
B)plays a critical role in apical dominance
C)an organism's response to changes in length of day relative to night
D)organelle involved in sensing gravity
E)light-sensitive pigment that helps set plant circadian rhythm based on length of night
F)low-temperature stimulation of flowering
G)closes stomata in times of stress
H)stimulates fruit ripening
I)flowers only when hours of darkness fall below a critical value
J)flavonoid in cocoa responsible for the unusual absence of heart disease in the Kuna
K)occurring on a 24-hour cycle
L)flowers only when hours of darkness are greater than some critical value
M)activates systemic acquired resistance
N)stimulates growth of lateral buds
O)mobilizes food reserves in germinating seeds
Q2) Explain how gibberellin "removes the brakes" from some cellular processes.
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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues
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Q1) blood vessels
Q2) glandular epithelium
A)comprises ligaments and tendons
B)contains collagen and elastin; acts as a packing material that supports internal organs
C)receives, conducts, and initiates signals in response to environmental changes
D)stores fat
E)offers resistance to mechanical injury and loss of internal fluids; also a barrier against microorganisms
F)secretes extracellular products such as sweat, mucus, tears, and saliva
G)fluid ground substance plus free cells; involved in transport, pH, and temperature stability
H)extracellular fluid that bathes cells and tissues
Q3) What is the primary function of the endocrine system?
A) conduction
B) contraction
C) hormonal control of the body
D) protection against disease
E) cell production
Q4) sebaceous gland
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Chapter 32: Neural Control
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Q1) A region where neurotransmitter molecules stimulate a neuron is indicated by the letter _____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) C and D
Q2) This region relays signals between the spinal cord and pons.
A)cerebrum
B)hypothalamus
C)pons
D)cerebellum
E)medulla oblongata
Q3) The major divisions of the peripheral nervous system are the ____.
A) somatic and autonomic systems
B) sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
C) peripheral and central systems
D) afferent and autonomic systems
E) cranial and skeletal nerves
Q4) Radially symmetrical animals have a nerve __________.
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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception
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Q1) The __________ is a system of fluid-filled sacs and canals in the inner ear.
Q2) The major function of a receptor is to _____.
A) control the autonomic functions of the body
B) stabilize the internal environment to achieve homeostasis
C) produce responses to the various stimuli the body receives
D) give organisms or cells awareness of and sensitivity to their environment
E) control the visceral functions of the body
Q3) Receptors that detect pain.
A)chemical
B)mechanical
C)thermal
D)nociceptor
Q4) Nearsightedness is caused by a(n) _____
A) eye structure that focuses an image in front of the retina
B) eye structure that focuses an image behind the retina
C) eyeball that is too short
D) recessive trait on the Y chromosome
E) recessive trait on the X chromosome
Q5) The cochlea is a coiled structure with fluid-filled ducts that holds the mechanoreceptors responsible for hearing in its __________.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control
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Q1) The production of sex hormones in humans increases ____.
A) during fetal development
B) during teenage years
C) during pregnancy
D) at puberty
E) at birth
Q2) Melatonin secretion influences ____.
A) secondary sex characteristics
B) glucagon production
C) adrenal function
D) seasonal affective disorder
E) Graves' disease
Q3) This hormone controls water retention and loss.
A)estrogen
B)luteinizing hormone
C)somatotropin
D)oxytocin
E)antidiuretic hormone
Q4) When blood glucose is low, __________ is secreted, which calls for the liver to break down glycogen.
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Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement
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Q1) Allows for a variety of movements (for example, ball-and-socket joints).
A)fibrous joint
B)cartilaginous joint
C)synovial joint
Q2) The largest bone in the human body is the _____.
A) pelvis
B) tibia
C) ulna
D) femur
E) skull
Q3) In the absence of a nerve connection or electrical stimulation, can a muscle cell be made to contract in a laboratory setting? Explain your answer.
Q4) The structure indicated by the letter "C" above represents ____.
A) thin filament
B) myofibril
C) thick filament
D) myofilament
E) muscle fiber
Q5) A(n) __________ consists of hardened parts inside the body.
Q6) A(n) __________ consists of hardened parts at the body surface.
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Chapter 36: Circulation
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Q1) This blood component engulfs bacteria and cellular debris.
A)right atrium
B)left atrium
C)left ventricle
D)right ventricle
Q2) Irregular heart beat is known as _____.
A) tachycardia
B) arrhythmia
C) bradycardia
D) atrial fibrillation
E) hypertension
Q3) Blood in arteries ____.
A) travels to arterioles
B) travels away from the heart only if it is oxygenated
C) always travels toward the heart
D) travels from the lungs
E) is always oxygenated
Q4) Why is the number used to demonstrate total cholesterol not sufficient for describing one's cardiac health risk?
Q5) Do arteries always carry highly oxygenated blood? Explain your answer.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Immunity
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Q1) A newly developed vaccine can prevent cancer caused by _____.
A) AIDS
B) polio
C) measles
D) HIV
E) HPV
Q2) __________ fights infection by increasing the metabolic rate.
Q3) The variable region of a light chain is indicated by ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) __________ is the only disease to have been eradicated from causing natural infections.
Q5) Ig stands for __________.
Q6) __________ refers to processes designed to induce immunity.
Q7) __________ immunity specifically targets billions of different antigens.
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Q8) Antigen receptors give __________ the collective potential to recognize billions of different antigens.
Chapter 38: Respiration
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Q1) The human voice is generated by air moving through the _____.
A) pharynx
B) glottis
C) epiglottis
D) pleura
E) trachea
Q2) Integumentary exchange of gases implies that the animal ____.
A) has a shell
B) has a tracheal system
C) lives in a moist location
D) has a siphon
E) lives in an arid location
Q3) If a person is choking, the __________ maneuver can be used to expel food from their trachea.
Q4) epiglottis
Q5) Respiration is a physiological process by which O enters the internal environment and CO leaves by diffusing across a(n) __________.
Q6) Emphysema would have the greatest impact on which respiratory volume?
Q7) left lung
Q8) diaphragm
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Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) cud
A)a process that propels material in the esophagus farther long the tube to the stomach
B)ring of muscles that open and close to control passageways
C)thin, outermost layer of stomach
D)a regurgitated ball of food particles
E)emulsify fat globules
F)have multiple stomach chambers, some of which store populations of microorganisms
G)interior lining of stomach
H)gastric inhibitory peptide
I)mixture of mucus, HCl, and pepsinogen
J)a mixture of gastric fluid and food particles in the stomach
Q2) pharynx
Q3) pancreas
Q4) oral cavity
Q5) esophagus
Q6) __________, which assists in fat digestion, is made in the liver and stored in the
Q7) salivary glands
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Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Chart the path of urine from the blood to the outside of the body.
Q2) The urinary system helps to maintain the extracellular fluid pH by ____.
A) synthesizing buffers
B) retaining carbon dioxide in the filtrate
C) excreting excess hydrogen ions
D) combining hydrogen ions with urea
E) excreting filtrate
Q3) The first step in urine formation is when blood pressure forces protein-free plasma out of glomerular capillaries and into ____.
A) Bowman's capsule
B) the loop of Henle
C) theproximal tubule
D) thedistal tubule
E) theplasma
Q4) The primary thermostat of the body is located in the ____.
A) pons
B) hypothalamus
C) medulla oblongata
D) thymus
E) thyroid gland
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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems
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Q1) The oviduct empties directly into the ____.
A) ovaries
B) uterus
C) vagina
D) cervix
E) follicle
Q2) The secondary spermatocyte is indicated by the letter(s) ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) B, C, and D
Q3) An intrauterine device works to prevent pregnancy by _____.
A) changing the pH of the uterus so sperm cannot live
B) changing the chemistry of the uterus so sperm cannot live
C) interfering with sperm movement or implantation
D) killing sperm
E) preventing ovulation
Q4) urinary bladder
Q5) seminal vesicle
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) Human milk contains _____.
A) calcium only
B) antibodies only
C) calcium and protein, but not antibodies
D) sugar and calcium, but not protein
E) calcium, antibodies, sugar, and protein
Q2) Labor preceding birth _____.
A) is a positive feedback loop
B) is a negative feedback loop
C) is influenced by prolactin
D) proceeds at a regular pace
E) stabilizes hormonal balance
Q3) gray crescent
A)somites
B)blastomeres
C)ectoderm
D)mesoderm
E)endoderm
Q4) What unusual features would be found on the newborn if human embryos did not experience apoptosis?
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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior
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Q1) A classic example of imprinting is _____.
A) Pavlov's dog
B) a sparrow singing a song
C) Lorenz and his geese
D) a cuckoo bird being a "brood parasite"
E) watching television
Q2) With __________, an animal learns to associate an involuntary response to one stimulus with another stimulus.
Q3) The adult male who jumps overboard to save a drowning niece is exhibiting
A)imprinting
B)sexual selection
C)learned behavior
D)defense behavior
E)altruism
Q4) A behavior that has a genetic basis is subject to evolution by __________.
Q5) Chemical signals such as __________ have roles in social communication.
Q6) What is the benefit of using the Earth's magnetic field to migrate compared to the sun or stars?
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Q7) __________ behavior can occur without having been learned by experience.