General Biology Exam Practice Tests
Course
Introduction
General Biology provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of life science, exploring the structure, function, and diversity of living organisms. Topics include cellular biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology, offering a comprehensive understanding of how living systems operate and interact with their environments. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, and collaborative projects, students develop critical thinking and scientific reasoning skills, preparing them for advanced studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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25 Chapters
1631 Verified Questions
1631 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Can Science Cure the Common Cold
Introduction to the Scientific Method
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79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19878
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a cohort study?
A) Compare lifetime exposure to coal plant emissions between individuals with lung cancer and individuals without lung cancer in the general population.
B) Measure lifetime exposure to coal plant emissions and the incidence of lung cancer in a group of individuals living in a small town.
C) Question all people in an area about their exposure to coal plant emissions and whether they have any lung diseases.
D) Examine the incidence of lung disease in all females over the age of 50 in a city by a coal plant.
Answer: B
Q2) Which statement would be correct if an inductively reasoned hypothesis makes sense, based on all available and historical observations?
A) The hypothesis must be true.
B) The hypothesis cannot possibly be true.
C) The hypothesis must be tested.
D) Experimentation is not necessary.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Science Fiction, Bad Science, and
Pseudoscience:
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which feature is present in all known living things?
A) genes made from proteins
B) growth from inorganic materials
C) absorption of sunlight for energy
D) metabolic reactions
Answer: D
Q2) Which element is the basis for the macromolecules found in living things?
A) carbon
B) hydrogen
C) nitrogen
D) oxygen
Answer: A
Q3) Which component of cholesterol would classify it as a lipid?
A) carbohydrates
B) phosphates
C) glycerol
D) hydrocarbons
Answer: D
Q4) What is the fundamental structural unit of life on Earth?
Answer: cell
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Chapter 3: Is It Possible to Supplement Your Way to Better
Performance and Health
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, when would the net movement of small, uncharged atoms and molecules through the plasma membrane end?
A) when the concentration of a solute is equal on both sides of the membrane
B) when all of those atoms or molecules are on the same side of the membrane
C) when the cell grows so large that it can't hold any more material
D) when the cell shrinks to the point that it can't function properly
Answer: A
Q2) What is the compartment in a eukaryotic cell where DNA is stored as chromatin?
Answer: nucleus
Q3) Which type of amino acids cannot be synthesized by the body?
Answer: essential
Q4) Which process fuses vesicles with the plasma membrane to move substances out of a cell?
Answer: exocytosis
Q5) What type of fatty acids include omega-3 and omega-6?
Answer: essential fatty acids
Q6) What cell structure defines the outer boundary of all cells, separating the cell's contents from its environment? (two words)
Answer: plasma membrane
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Chapter 4: Body Weight and Health: Enzymes, Metabolism, and Cellular Respiration
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substance is most likely an enzyme?
A) proline
B) stearic acid
C) endopeptidase
D) acetylcholine
Q2) What is the main biochemical function of the electron transport chain?
A) to break glucose into pyruvic acid
B) to add phosphate groups to ATP
C) to regenerate OAA
D) to force hydrogen ions through ATP synthase
Q3) Which disease may be associated with low levels of body fat and low levels of estrogen?
A) diabetes
B) stroke
C) heart attack
D) osteoporosis
Q4) What are the two molecules produced by cellular respiration?
Q5) What 3-carbon molecules are produced when a 6-carbon glucose is broken down during glycolysis? (two words)
Q6) What weight classification would include a person with a BMI of 23? Page 6
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Life in the Greenhouse: Photosynthesis and Climate Change
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which plants are best adapted for very dry, hot environments such as deserts?
A) C plants
B) C plants
C) C plants
D) CAM plants
Q2) How many membranes surround each chloroplast?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) According to the graph, by how many parts per million has the concentration of atmospheric carbon dioxide changed between 1980 and 2010?
A) about 20 ppm
B) about 50 ppm
C) about 80 ppm
D) about 110 ppm
Q4) In plant leaves, what are the tiny pores that allow carbon dioxide to enter and oxygen to exit?
Q6) What does the glucose molecule supply to cells? Page 8
Q5) Inside which specialized organelle does photosynthesis occur?
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Page 9
Chapter 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does radiation therapy work on cancer cells?
A) Radiation limits microtubule formation, affecting chromosome alignment during mitosis.
B) Radiation causes tumor cells to stick together, making them easier to remove.
C) Radiation damages DNA in cells so that cells can no longer grow and divide.
D) Radiation makes cancer cells divide so fast that they may develop extra mutations and die.
Q2) What are the members of a pair of nonsex chromosomes?
A) alleles
B) diploids
C) gametes
D) homologous chromosomes
Q3) Tetraploid organisms have four copies of each chromosome instead of the two copies that humans have. How many copies of each chromosome end up in a gamete produced by a tetraploid organism?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q4) What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome? (two words)
Page 10
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Chapter 7: Are You Only As Smart As Your Genes Mendelian and Quantitative Genetics
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71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure would be expected in normal eye cells but not in normal heart cells?
A) the protein rhodopsin
B) light-detecting mitochondria
C) the protein troponin
D) genes for the production of rhodopsin
Q2) What term refers to an individual who has two copies of the same allele?
Q3) What term refers to the physical traits of an organism?
Q4) A heterozygous organism
A) always shows a recessive trait.
B) can't produce gametes.
C) has two identical alleles of a gene.
D) has two different alleles of a gene.
Q5) What is a mistake that is made during copying of genetic information?
A) genotype
B) mutation
C) variance
D) zygote
Q6) What are the segments of DNA that generally code for proteins?
Q7) What single, circular structure is found in prokaryotes such as bacteria?
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Chapter 8: DNA Detective: Complex Patterns of Inheritance and
Dna Profiling
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What types and numbers of chromosomes are found in humans?
A) two pairs of sex chromosomes and 46 pairs of autosomes
B) two pairs of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of autosomes
C) one pair of sex chromosomes and 46 pairs of autosomes
D) one pair of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of autosomes
Q2) How will people with the same blood type be related?
A) They are always unrelated.
B) They are always related.
C) They may or may not be related.
D) They always have both alleles in common but are not necessarily related.
Q3) Why do different people have different DNA fingerprints?
A) They have completely different kinds of VNTRs.
B) They have different numbers of the same VNTR.
C) PCR generates some sequences more than other sequences.
D) Restriction enzymes may not cut some VNTRs next to specific DNA sequences.
Q4) What blood type would a child with the genotype IAi have?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
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Chapter 9: Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene
Expression, Mutation,
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what tissues can adult stem cells be found?
A) Stem cells are found only in embryonic tissues.
B) Adult stem cells can be found in bone marrow and the liver.
C) Stem cells can be found in any tissue that reproduces.
D) Adult stem cells are found in hair and fingernail tissues.
Q2) Which foods or food ingredients are regulated by the FDA to ensure food safety?
A) vitamin tablets
B) cheese
C) sirloin steaks
D) chicken wings
Q3) If the process of protein synthesis in a cell is analogous to a politician's speech being written down by a reporter and then converted into a different language before being published, then to what does the initial step (being written down by a reporter) correspond?
A) transcription
B) translation
C) genetic recombination
D) cloning
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Chapter 10: Where Did We Come From the Evidence for Evolution
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What taxonomic group includes both humans and apes because of their strong degrees of similarity to each other?
A) species
B) genus
C) subfamily
D) subspecies
Q2) You are interested in the evolution of a particular kind of beetle. What sort of analysis might be useful in your study?
A) Look for similarities between the histone genes of other beetles and the one being studied.
B) Find out what kinds of birds eat the beetles, and see what else those birds eat.
C) Compare the beetles to other insects in the area.
D) Find all the places where this particular kind of beetle lives.
Q3) Which observation was most influential to Charles Darwin?
A) the wide variety of living things in South America
B) the difference between organisms of South America and organisms of Europe
C) the similarity between organisms of South America and organisms of Europe
D) the slight differences between organisms on nearby islands
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Chapter 11: An Evolving Enemy: Natural Selection
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event is the most direct (or first) result of natural selection on a population?
A) New alleles are created when confronted with a new environment.
B) Proteins lose some functions.
C) The frequency of some alleles changes in the population.
D) Members of the population start reproducing more rapidly.
Q2) Based on what you know about resistance to infection, why are some people resistant to HIV?
A) They have a strong immune system that clears the virus completely.
B) They have been immunized in an experimental program.
C) They can't be infected with HIV even when exposed.
D) They never engage in risky behavior and thus can't become infected.
Q3) Which factor would exert selection pressure on a population of insects?
A) a new species of bird in the area
B) a fire
C) an earthquake
D) the introduction of a population of feral cats into the area
Q4) What traits increase fitness in a particular environment?
Q5) After four observations, Darwin made the inference that natural selection causes what process?
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Chapter 12: Who Am I Species and Races
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70 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what type of population would evolution occur most rapidly?
A) a large population with a large gene pool
B) a small population with a relatively diverse gene pool
C) a small population with a small gene pool
D) a large population with a relatively limited gene pool
Q2) What situation results from a postfertilization barrier to reproduction?
A) mutations in genes that control development
B) offspring that fail to develop
C) mechanical isolation of a species
D) gamete incompatibility
Q3) Alleles for other genetic diseases also provide protection against malaria when only one copy of the allele is present. In what cell type would you expect these genes to be active?
A) liver cells
B) skin cells
C) red blood cells
D) lung cells
Q4) Genealogical species are groups that have diverged from a common ancestor but aren't yet reproductively ________.
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Chapter 13: The Greatest Species on Earth Biodiversity and Classification
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the four kingdoms in the domain Eukarya, which one is most likely to be split into two or more new kingdoms as scientists perform more genetic analyses on evolutionary relationships?
A) kingdom Plantae
B) kingdom Protista
C) kingdom Animalia
D) kingdom Fungi
Q2) To which group are organisms in kingdom Fungi most closely related?
A) Plantae
B) Protista
C) Animalia
D) Bacteria
Q3) Why is adult anatomy sometimes a misleading way to construct a phylogeny that reflects evolutionary history?
A) Adult anatomy isn't strongly influenced by natural selection.
B) Convergent evolution produces similar traits in unrelated species.
C) Adult anatomy is too variable within a species.
Q4) What process is performed by both algae and plants?
Q5) What was the first antibiotic, discovered as a result of a laboratory accident?
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Chapter 14: Is the Human Population Too Large Population
Ecology
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19891
Sample Questions
Q1) Which experiment would not be considered an ecological study?
A) the effect of a housing development on a spotted salamander population in a vernal pool
B) the effect of changing availability of acorns on a population of squirrels
C) the effect of a red tide outbreak on sea birds in the area
D) the effect of a hormone on the rate of blood vessel formation
Q2) What situation results when a population of spotted salamanders in an area of vernal pools remains stable for many years and was stabilized because of resource limits?
A) Density dependence is not involved.
B) Predation has decreased.
C) Carrying capacity has been reached.
D) Density independence occurs.
Q3) According to this plot, how are growth rate and doubling time related?
A) directly proportional
B) inversely proportional
C) not related to one another
D) equally proportional to one another
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Chapter 15: Conserving Biodiversity: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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72 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percentage of the species that have ever existed on Earth are represented by the estimated 10 million species that exist today?
A) 80%
B) 10%
C) 1%
D) 0.0001%
Q2) Which of the following would be most threatened by habitat fragmentation?
A) songbirds
B) lizards
C) mountain lions
D) antelopes
Q3) Which animal is critically endangered in the United States?
A) black-footed ferret
B) mourning dove
C) striped skunk
D) coyote
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Chapter 16: Where Do You Live Climate and Biomes
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72 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What food chain sequence, from the base up, would be found in the open ocean?
A) zooplankton, phytoplankton, tuna, cod
B) phytoplankton, zooplankton, sand lance, humpback
C) shark, cod, phytoplankton, zooplankton
D) albatross, cod, zooplankton, phytoplankton
Q2) Which factor does not affect temperature variation among geographic locations?
A) latitude
B) proximity to water
C) elevation
D) longitude
Q3) To determine a geographic area's climate, what variable conditions must be taken into account?
A) distance from the equator and available sunlight
B) altitude and bodies of water
C) temperature and precipitation
D) air quality and urbanization
Q4) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.
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Chapter 17: Organ Donation: Tissues and Organs
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54 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which tissue type lines the intestines and helps in the absorption of nutrients?
A) muscle
B) connective
C) epithelial
D) nervous
Q2) What are the cells that make up the liver?
A) fibroblasts
B) osteocytes
C) chondrocytes
D) hepatocytes
Q3) Which type of body tissue acts as padding under the skin?
A) nervous
B) muscle
C) epithelial
D) connective
Q4) Besides structural support for the body, what function do bones serve?
A) They synthesize fat, a source of energy.
B) They provide sites for the storage of water.
C) They are compressible and flexible enough to act as shock absorbers.
D) They donate certain minerals when dietary levels are insufficient.
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Chapter 18: Binge Drinking: the Digestive and Urinary Systems
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many alcoholic drinks can generally be metabolized in one hour?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q2) Which enzyme in saliva breaks down sugars? (two words)
Q3) True or False: Drinking any amount of alcohol always has negative effects on the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Valuable substances in filtrate are returned to the blood through what process?
A) filtration
B) reabsorption
C) secretion
D) excretion
Q5) Which organ secretes a buffer that neutralizes the acidity of stomach acid?
A) gall bladder
B) liver
C) pancreas
D) pharynx
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Chapter 19: Clearing the Air: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Systems
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54 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) About how many years after quitting smoking does it take for the risk of heart disease and death to return to the levels similar to those seen in people who never smoked?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15
Q2) What action does the respiratory system require signals from the nervous system to perform?
A) enhancing the amount of available oxygen in the lungs
B) coordinating the muscles controlling breathing
C) releasing enzymes to increase the exchange of gases
D) exchanging gases with the circulatory system
Q3) What is the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle?
A) ventriculation
B) diastole
C) vasodilation
D) systole
Q4) What is the chemical in tobacco smoke that's able to activate the brain's reward pathways, thus making smoking a very addictive process?
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Chapter 20: Vaccination: Protection and Prevention or Peril
Immune System,
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68 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pathogens require a host cell because they aren't able to make proteins on their own?
A) blue-green algae
B) bacteria
C) protozoans
D) viruses
Q2) One of the reasons that viruses are such effective infectious organisms is their ability to gain entry into host cells. Which component of a virus is primarily responsible for this feat?
A) flagellae
B) reverse transcriptase
C) single stranded RNA
D) viral envelope
Q3) What disease is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?
A) the common cold
B) rabies
C) tuberculosis
D) mononucleosis
Q4) Where are developing lymphocytes tested to determine whether they'll bind to self-proteins?
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Chapter 21: Human Sex Differences: Endocrine, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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57 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marble bone disease is a disease in which bone increases in mass and becomes abnormally hard. This disorder is most likely caused by the inactivity of which part of the body?
A) bone marrow
B) osteoblasts
C) osteoclasts
D) vertebrae
Q2) Which component of bone tissue forms the hard outer shell of bones?
A) bone marrow
B) compact bone
C) spongy bone
D) cartilage
Q3) What type of cells respond to a particular hormone?
A) glandular
B) target
C) receptive
D) endocrine
Q4) Which structure produces immune cells and is part of the lymphatic system?
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Q5) Which system is an internal system of regulation and communication involving hormones, glands, and target cells?
Chapter 22: Is There Something in the Water Reproductive and Developmental Biology
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67 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A surge in which hormone is responsible for ovulation?
A) estrogen
B) FSH
C) LH
D) progesterone
Q2) What is one disadvantage of asexual reproduction?
A) There's no need to find a partner to reproduce.
B) Organisms that are isolated from other organisms can use this method of reproduction.
C) There's not much ability to adapt to environmental change.
D) Organisms that don't move can use this method of reproduction.
Q3) What type of evidence shows that endocrine disruptors in the water supply can cause human reproductive problems?
A) correlative
B) definitive
C) statistically significant
D) entirely absent
Q4) What are the primary female reproductive organs that are responsible for producing egg cells?
Q5) What body system allows the survival of different species?
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Chapter 23: Study Drugs: Brain Boost or Brain Drain Brain
Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sense is a special sense?
A) temperature
B) pain
C) touch
D) taste
Q2) What are the basic functional units of the nervous system?
A) muscle fibers
B) heart cells
C) neurons
D) fibroblasts
Q3) Scientists have known for centuries that we "speak" with the left hemisphere of the brain. You perform an experiment in which your subject was presented with an apple only to the left visual field. When asked to identify what he saw, the subject denied seeing anything. However, when asked to point to the correct object, he was able to see and identify the apple. Which reason would explain this deficit?
A) The subject has a brain lesion in the frontal lobes.
B) The subject suffered head trauma to the back of his head.
C) The subject has a tumor in the left parietal lobe.
D) The subject had his corpus callosum severed to control epileptic seizures.
Page 27
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Chapter 24: Feeding the World: Plant Structure and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which crops are perennial plants?
A) rice
B) wheat
C) white potatoes
D) sweet potatoes
Q2) In flowering plants, eggs are to ovules as
A) sperm are to pollen.
B) sperm are to anthers.
C) pollen is to carpels.
D) pollen is to sepals.
Q3) In a dicot stem, what is the ring of cells that includes the xylem?
A) apical meristem
B) vascular cambium
C) cork cambium
D) epidermal tissue
Q4) When does fertilization occur in flowering plants?
A) Pollen grains land on the anthers of the female flower parts.
B) The female carpels and male anthers are united.
C) Sperm join with eggs inside the ovules.
D) Pollen joins with eggs inside the stigma.
28
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Chapter 25: Growing a Green Thumb: Plant Physiology
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66 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When have many deciduous plants adapted to drop their leaves?
A) when overwatered
B) during summer
C) during droughts
D) whenever daylight cycles shorten
Q2) What are the narrow, tapering cells found in the xylem tubes of drought-adapted plant species?
Q3) Which plant is a perennial?
A) peony
B) morning glory
C) petunia
D) pansy
Q4) Which phenomena drives transpiration in a terrestrial woody plant?
A) evaporation
B) gravitropism
C) translocation
D) photoperiodism
Q5) What is the response of a plant to the proportion of light and dark in a day?
Q6) What is the tendency of a plant's uppermost bud to limit the growth of lower buds? (two words)
29
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