General Biology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
General Biology is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts and principles of living organisms. Topics covered include the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life forms. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, experimental design, and the application of biological knowledge to real-world issues. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and discussions, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how organisms interact with each other and their environments, laying a strong foundation for further studies in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition by Michael D. Johnson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Human Biology, Science, and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does scientific information in peer-reviewed journals differ from that in newspapers?
A) Information is more technical; readers usually require a background in the field in order to understand the article.
B) The article is written by a reporter, not a researcher.
C) Articles often include political, ethical, and economic ramifications of the scientific findings.
D) Information is less in-depth and easily understood by the average reader.
E) Information is not approved by other scientists before its publication.
Answer: A
Q2) Because the natural world includes all energy and matter, it also includes all living organisms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Organisms made up of one cell are said to be ________.
Answer: unicellular
Q4) The ability to stand upright and walk on two legs is termed ________.
Answer: bipedalism
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Living Things
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mad scientist has ripped apart an atom and collected all the subatomic particles located in the nucleus of the atom. Which one of the following has he collected?
A) electrons
B) protons
C) protons and neutrons
D) electrons and protons
E) neutrons and electrons
Answer: C
Q2) Each of the following statements is TRUE regarding hydrogen bonds EXCEPT which one?
A) Hydrogen bonds hold the two strands of DNA together.
B) Hydrogen bonds are responsible for the attraction of Na to Cl .
C) Hydrogen bonds are responsible for some aspects of the three-dimensional structure of proteins.
D) Hydrogen bonds form between different water molecules.
Answer: B
Q3) In order for this atom to develop a positive charge, it would have to lose ________.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Structure and Function of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where in a typical human cell does glycolysis occur?
A) mitochondrion
B) Golgi apparatus
C) cytoplasm
D) nucleus
E) rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C
Q2) To move solutes like amino acids into a cell by active transport, the cell
A) must possess appropriate transport proteins in the plasma membrane
B) must have a net gain in energy resulting from active transport
C) maintains a lower concentration of the amino acids in the cytoplasm
D) must move water out of the cytoplasm at the same time
Answer: A
Q3) The plasma membrane regulates the transport of molecules into and out of the cell by allowing only certain substances to pass, thus it is said to be ________.
Answer: selectively permeable
Q4) Most cells are very small in order to maximize their ________ with respect to their volume.
Answer: surface area
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Chapter 4: From Cells to Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Connective tissue is unique because the cells secrete a(n) ________ that can be semiliquid or hardened.
Q2) The abdominal cavity is separated from the thoracic cavity by the
A) stomach
B) diaphragm
C) liver
D) heart
E) lungs
Q3) The type of epithelial cells most commonly associated with absorption in the small intestine is ________.
Q4) Epithelial tissues are classified according to the cell ________ as well as the number of cell layers making up the tissue.
Q5) Which one of the following types of junctions in an epithelium allows the tissue to stretch and bend, as in the epithelium of the skin?
A) tight junction
B) adhesion junction
C) glandular junction
D) stratified junction
E) gap junction
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following disorders of the skeletal system results from the "wearing out" of the cartilage that covers the ends of bones?
A) bursitis
B) osteoarthritis
C) tennis elbow
D) rheumatoid arthritis
E) sinusitis
Q2) Late in puberty, the sex hormones signal the growth plate of a bone to stop growing; once this happens, the bone cannot get longer, but it can grow in width.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bones of trained athletes may be visibly thicker and heavier than those of nonathletes because
A) athletes have lower blood calcium levels than nonathletes
B) weight-bearing exercise increases bone mass and strength
C) nonathletes have a low parathyroid hormone rate
D) athletes produce more growth plates
E) nonathletes produce fewer osteoids
Q4) epiphysis
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since contraction of the hamstrings causes the knee to bend and contraction of the quadriceps causes the knee to extend, these muscles are said to be ________.
Q2) Isometric contractions usually result in no movement of the skeleton or objects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Once a muscle cell has depleted its small supply of ready-made ATP, what will it use next for energy?
A) fats
B) phospholipids
C) proteins
D) creatine phosphate
E) glycogen
Q4) Muscle soreness several days after exercise is an indication that some sarcomeres were permanently damaged.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A protein that stores oxygen in slow-twitch muscle fibers is ________.
Q6) To minimize muscle stiffness and soreness, undertake a new exercise activity in ________ for the first few days.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrients are absorbed into the blood from the ________ system.
Q2) In addition to the circulatory system, the ________ system is also characterized by possessing a series of fluid-filled vessels.
Q3) Individuals involved in relatively minor accidents may suffer cuts and bruises, but generally do not suffer from excessive blood loss. What features does blood posses that limit blood loss during minor accidents?
Q4) Most of the time, Rh incompatibility between mother (Rh-) and fetus (Rh+) doesn't cause fetal health problems with the woman's first pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Fragments of cells that are important in blood clotting are called ________.
Q6) Calcium must activate prothrombin to its enzyme form before it can participate in the clotting mechanism.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The hormone ________, secreted by the ________, stimulates the production of red blood cells when the level of oxygen in the body decreases.
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Chapter 8: Heart and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the force of blood on the walls of blood vessels drops below normal, the condition is referred to as
A) blood pressure
B) hypotension
C) hypertension
D) aneurysm
E) angina
Q2) The ________ division of the nervous system causes the rate of heart contraction to increase.
Q3) Following damage to his heart, Jim is having a pacemaker implanted. Which one of the following components of the heart does this device replace the activity of?
A) atrioventricular node
B) sinoatrial valve
C) atrioventricular bundle
D) Purkinje fibers
E) sinoatrial node
Q4) The force exerted by blood on the wall of a blood vessel is known as ________.
Q5) The rapid expansion and recoil of the wall of an artery close to the skin's surface is a(n) ________.
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Chapter 9: The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once a macrophage engulfs a bacterium, what happens to the foreign cell?
A) It is released into the lymph system for removal from the body.
B) It is released into the digestive tract for removal from the body.
C) The macrophage is attacked by antibodies, killing the cell and bacterium.
D) Antibodies penetrate the macrophage to lyse the bacterial cell.
E) The bacterium is killed by digestive enzymes released from lysosomes.
Q2) Antibodies are classified by size, location, and function, and which one of the following represents the most common type of immunoglobulin?
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) MHC
Q3) All of the following are involved in the inflammatory response EXCEPT
A) antibodies
B) mast cells
C) histamine
D) basophils
E) phagocytes
Q4) The main cell of the immune system targeted by HIV is the ________.
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Chapter 10: The Respiratory System: Exchange of Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs with each breath is the
Q2) Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged with blood directly across the alveoli wall.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When air entering the respiratory tract leaves the pharynx, it next enters the
A) bronchioles
B) larynx
C) alveoli
D) bronchi
E) sinuses
Q4) Hemoglobin binds more tightly to carbon monoxide than to oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The anatomical design of the paired lungs makes them easy to distinguish; the right lung has ________ lobes, whereas the left side has ________ lobes.
Q6) Contraction of this structure causes it to flatten out, increasing lung volume.
Q7) The respiratory system functions to ________ with the environment.
Q8) Site of the vocal cords; the glottis is the opening to this structure.
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Chapter 11: The Nervous System: Integration and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student noticed that every time he smelled a certain perfume in the hallway, it reminded him of his mother. This is due largely to the activity of the limbic system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A neuron at rest has a charge difference across its cell membrane, with the interior of the cell negative relative to the exterior. This difference in charge across the plasma membrane is referred to as ________ potential A) action
B) resting C) graded
D) refractory
E) depolarization
Q3) The neurotransmitter released by the postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system is ________.
Q4) The nervous system is capable of using some neurotransmitters for more than one function. For example, some neurotransmitters may be excitatory in one pathway yet inhibitory in another. Discuss what accounts for the same neurotransmitter having different functions in alternate pathways.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Sensory Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure of the cochlea that converts pressure waves to nerve impulses is the ________; it is composed of hair cells and a tectorial membrane.
Q2) Each of the following statements about cones is TRUE, EXCEPT which one?
A) Cones enable humans to see color.
B) Color vision is enabled by the presence of three types of cones.
C) Cones are evenly distributed throughout the retina, accounting for visual acuity.
D) Cones require more intense light for activation than rods do.
E) Visual acuity is dependent upon cones and bright light.
Q3) Accommodation enabling us to switch from focusing on something nearby to something more distant is accomplished by the ________ muscle.
Q4) The ________ sorts sounds by tone and converts them into electrical impulses.
Q5) Hyperopia or farsightedness can be corrected with the use of ________ lenses.
Q6) The retina is composed of four layers of cells, which are the pigmented cells, photoreceptor cells, bipolar cells, and the ganglion cells. Axons of the ganglion cells become the optic nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The ________ regulates the amount of light entering the eye.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insufficient production of growth hormone by the anterior pituitary may result in
A) diabetes insipidus
B) a drop in blood glucose levels
C) acromegaly
D) dwarfism
E) gigantism
Q2) Calcitonin and PTH have opposing effects on blood calcium levels.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Insulin helps regulate blood sugar levels by stimulating the release of glucose from glycogen stores.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which one of the following parts of the brain links to the endocrine system?
A) hypothalamus
B) thyroid
C) anterior pituitary
D) thymus
E) posterior pituitary
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Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diets that include complex carbohydrates instead of simple carbohydrates are recommended because sugar is released more slowly into the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Natural sugars such as those from fruit and honey are classified as ________.
Q3) Once a bolus of food has been formed in the mouth, it is passed by the tongue and jaws to the
A) esophagus
B) stomach
C) pharynx
D) nasal passageway
E) small intestine
Q4) Saturated fats differ from unsaturated fats in that saturated fats
A) store energy
B) are found only in plant products
C) are liquid at room temperature
D) are made up of glycerol and fatty acids
E) have two hydrogen atoms for every carbon atom in their fatty acid tails
Q5) Gastrin is a hormone secreted by the ________.
Q6) Fats that are liquids at room temperature are ________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chloride ions passively follow sodium that has been actively transported out of tubular cells, due to the attraction of negatively charged ions to positively charged ions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The internal urethral sphincter is composed of smooth muscle, and the external urethral sphincter is composed of skeletal muscle; together, they control the process of urination.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Urine formation initiates with glomerular filtration, a process that relies on filtering large quantities of protein-free plasma into the Bowman's capsule by
A) passive diffusion through porous capillaries
B) active transport from interstitial fluid
C) active transport from paratubular capillaries
D) osmotic transport from lymph fluid
E) micelle transport
Q4) Sodium is moved out of tubular cells by ________.
Q5) stores urine until it is excreted out of the body
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The production and secretion of testosterone depends on the secretion of three other hormones; GnRH is secreted by the ________, and FSH and LH are secreted by the
A) hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland
B) testes, scrotum
C) posterior pituitary gland, anterior pituitary gland
D) seminal vesicle, prostate gland
E) posterior pituitary gland, hypothalamus
Q2) Sperm and egg cells contain half the number of chromosomes found in somatic cells, and are referred to as ________.
Q3) Which one of the following forms of birth control reduces the risk of transmission of sexually transmitted diseases?
A) IUD
B) hysteroscopy
C) cervical cap
D) condom
E) birth control pill
Q4) FSH in males targets ________ cells, although the function of the hormone is not fully understood.
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Chapter 17: Cell Reproduction and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which cells become specialized from one another is called
A) differentiation
B) mitosis
C) pluripotency
D) meiotic specialization
E) cleavage
Q2) Meiosis in females is not complete until ________ occurs.
Q3) Mitosis in mammals usually takes less than an hour.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Differentiation is the process of sister chromatids separating from each other during meiosis II.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All cells that make up the body other than germ cells are referred to as ________.
Q6) Differentiation of embryonic cells begins immediately upon the first division of the fertilized egg.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider an individual undergoing cancer chemotherapy, taking a drug that slows or stops cell division. Which one of the following is a likely side effect of such chemotherapy?
A) improved hair growth
B) anemia
C) weight gain
D) headaches
E) fluid retention
Q2) A technique that could possibly be used in the future for the treatment of cancer involves replacing defective genes with normal genes. This procedure is known as ________ therapy.
Q3) A mutation in either BRCA1 or BRCA2 is the most common cause of breast cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The dietary carcinogen aflatoxin can be found in
A) fresh fruits
B) red meats
C) salt
D) alcohol
E) raw peanut butter
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Genetics and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person born with Edwards syndrome has a genotypic condition identified as
A) trisomy 21
B) trisomy 18
C) nondisjunction
D) XO
E) XXY
Q2) A couple is planning to have a child. The female is a carrier for hemophilia; the male does not have hemophilia. What is the chance that a female child will never develop hemophilia?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 33%
D) 50%
E) 100%
Q3) Alleles are alternative versions of chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to Mendel's law of ________, genes of a gene pair separate from one another during the formation of gametes.
Q5) A phenotype is determined by ________ and ________.
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Chapter 20: DNA Technology and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms that can contain genes introduced from other species are referred to as
A) bacteria
B) plasmids
C) manipulated
D) genomic
E) transgenic
Q2) Transgenic bacteria are presently used to produce ________ that can be administered to humans or other animals to prepare the immune system for a possible infection by a disease-causing organism.
Q3) Producing transgenic animals is much easier than generating transgenic plants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which one of the following is an example of "gene pharming"?
A) the production of human insulin by E. coli
B) the production of beta carotene in golden rice
C) the production of goat milk that contains human antithrombin III protein
D) the production of HBV vaccines in yeast
Q5) Organisms that have been genetically engineered to carry one or more foreign genes are known as ________ organisms.
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Chapter 21: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The figure above shows a human sperm. Which part of the sperm contains the most mitochondria for generating ATP?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) A and B
E) B and C
Q2) In the fetus, the ductus arteriosus shunts blood from the pulmonary artery directly to the lung.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As the onset of labor approaches, estrogen is released by the placenta, and increases the number of oxytocin receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If an embryo implants in an organ other than the uterus, the pregnancy is said to be ________.
Q5) Following fertilization, if a ball of embryonic cells splits into two masses before differentiation has begun, ________ twins result.
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Chapter 22: Evolution and the Origins of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first self-replicating molecule hypothesized to have formed on Earth was ________.
Q2) The best-known extinction during which all dinosaurs died out completely occurred during the ________ time period.
Q3) The ability to extract oxygen from the environment and use it to make energy is called
A) photosynthesis
B) comparative biochemistry
C) anaerobic metabolism
D) self-replication
E) aerobic metabolism
Q4) Life began on Earth approximately ________ years ago.
A) 100,000
B) 1 million
C) 5 million
D) 3.8 billion
E) 4.6 billion
Q5) Darwin's proposal that organisms that are better suited to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce is termed ________.
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Chapter 23: Ecosystems and Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A population is comprised of one or more species of organisms that may interact but do not interbreed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Population sizes begin to stabilize near the carrying capacity when A) zero population is achieved
B) the number of species in the environment begins to decrease
C) environmental resistance begins to limit the population's biotic potential
D) the replacement fertility rate reaches 2.1
E) a population's biotic potential becomes unlimited
Q3) The total living component of an ecosystem is its A) niche
B) biotic potential
C) carrying capacity
D) biomass
E) geographic range
Q4) For an organism reaching its biotic potential, the growth rate is characterized by a(n)________ curve.
Q5) The size of a population of a given species that can be indefinitely sustained by an ecosystem is its ________.
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Chapter 24: Human Impacts, Biodiversity, and Environmental Issues
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Q1) Urbanization typically increases the extent of biodiversity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although humans have had a negative impact on biodiversity in the past, the present global extinction rate is 20 times lower now than at any other time in the past.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Destruction of the ozone due to pollutants is limited to layers located only above North America.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Commercial logging by European countries in the Ivory Coast has reduced the pristine 70 million acres of forests that once existed to about
A) fewer than 1 million acres
B) 5-7 million acres
C) 15-20 million acres
D) 30 million acres
E) 50 million acres
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