General Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
General Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of biology, encompassing the study of living organisms at multiple levels of organization. The course covers key topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will explore the molecular and cellular processes that underpin all biological systems, the mechanisms of inheritance and gene expression, and the principles of natural selection and adaptation. Emphasis is placed on the interconnections among organisms and their environments, experimental design, and the scientific method, providing a foundation for advanced study in the biological sciences.
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Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition by Jane
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B. Reece
Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Q1) Which of the following is true about the diversity of life?
A)Biologists have identified and named about 5 million species of organisms.
B)At least 500,000 fungi have been identified.
C)Researchers identify thousands of additional species each year.
D)Estimates of the total number of species on Earth range from 8-10 million.
E)More vertebrate species have been identified than plant species.
Answer: C
Q2) Which theme(s)is/are illustrated when a biology class is comparing the rates of photosynthesis between leaves of a flowering plant species (Gerbera jamesonii)and a species of fern (Polypodium polypodioides)?
A)I only
B)II only
C)I and III
D)I and VII
E)I, III, and V
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is true for this reaction?
3 H + N 2 NH
A)The reaction is nonreversible.
B)Hydrogen and nitrogen are the reactants of the reverse reaction.
C)Hydrogen and nitrogen are the products of the forward reaction.
D)Ammonia is being formed and decomposed.
E)Hydrogen and nitrogen are being decomposed.
Answer: D
Q2) Which drawing in the figure above depicts the most electronegative atom?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Q1) Plants transport water through their vascular system utilizing what property of water?
A)Hydrogen bonds allowing for surface tension.
B)Hydrogen bonds allowing for increased structure of water.
C)Hydrogen bonds allowing for adhesion and cohesion of molecules.
D)Evaporative cooling.
E)Its ability to function as a solvent.
Answer: C
Q2) Temperature usually increases when water condenses.Which behaviour of water is most directly responsible for this phenomenon?
A)the change in density when it condenses to form a liquid or solid
B)reactions with other atmospheric compounds
C)the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds
D)the release of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
E)the high surface tension of water
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) Which molecule shown above has a carbonyl functional group in the form of a ketone?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Organic molecules with only hydrogens and five carbon atoms can have different structures in all of the following ways except
A)by branching of the carbon skeleton.
B)by varying the number of double bonds between carbon atoms.
C)by varying the position of double bonds between carbon atoms.
D)by forming a ring.
E)by forming enantiomers.
Q3) Which model best depicts a molecule's volume?
A)atomic
B)molecular
C)structural
D)ball-and-stick
E)space-filling
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) Which molecule is a saturated fatty acid?
A)1
B)5
C)6
D)8
E)9
Q2) Which of these classes of biological molecules consist of both small molecules and macromolecular polymers?
A)lipids
B)carbohydrates
C)proteins
D)nucleic acids
E)lipids, carbohydrates, proteins, and nucleic acids all consist of only macromolecular polymers
Q3) Polysaccharides,triacylglycerides,and proteins are similar in that they
A)are synthesized from monomers by the process of hydrolysis.
B)are synthesized from subunits by dehydration reactions.
C)are synthesized as a result of peptide bond formation between monomers.
D)are decomposed into their subunits by dehydration reactions.
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E)all contain nitrogen in their monomer building blocks.
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) How do Amoebae move by crawling over a surface?
A)Growth of actin filaments form bulges in the plasma membrane.
B)Microtubule extensions are set up that vesicles can follow.
C)Pseudopods are reinforced with intermediate filaments.
D)use of cytoplasmic streaming
E)Intermediate filaments condense and decondense in the direction of travel.
Q2) What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein that will be secreted by a cell?
A)ER Golgi nucleus
B)Golgi ER lysosome
C)nucleus ER Golgi
D)ER Golgi vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
E)ER lysosomes vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
Q3) Ions can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through
A)plasmodesmata.
B)intermediate filaments.
C)tight junctions.
D)desmosomes.
E)gap junctions.
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) A bacterium engulfed by a white blood cell through phagocytosis will be digested by enzymes contained in A)peroxisomes.
B)lysosomes.
C)Golgi vesicles.
D)vacuoles.
E)secretory vesicles.
Q2) In most cells,there are electrochemical gradients of many ions across the plasma membrane even though there are usually only one or two electrogenic pumps present in the membrane.The gradients of the other ions are most likely accounted for by A)cotransport proteins.
B)ion channels.
C)carrier proteins.
D)passive diffusion across the plasma membrane.
E)cellular metabolic reactions that create or destroy ions.
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9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) For living organisms,which of the following is an important consequence of the first law of thermodynamics?
A)The energy content of an organism is constant.
B)The organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy for life from its environment.
C)The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity.
D)Organisms grow by converting energy into organic matter.
E)Life does not obey the first law of thermodynamics.
Q2) A reaction that absorbs free energy from its surroundings is a(n)________ reaction.
A)spontaneous
B)endothermic
C)exothermic
D)endergonic
E)exergonic
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located?
A)cytosol
B)mitochondrial outer membrane
C)mitochondrial inner membrane
D)mitochondrial intermembrane space
E)mitochondrial matrix
Q2) Which step in the figure above shows a split of one molecule into two smaller molecules?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) The ATP made during fermentation is generated by which of the following?
A)the electron transport chain
B)substrate-level phosphorylation
C)chemiosmosis
D)oxidative phosphorylation
E)aerobic respiration
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following best describes decomposers?
A)They are autotrophs that feed off of organic litter.
B)They are autotrophs that decompose inorganic litter.
C)They are heterotrophs that obtain nutrition from items such as leaves.
D)They are heterotrophs that obtain nutrition from light.
E)They are producers that obtain nutrition from decomposition.
Q2) From his experiments,van Niel concluded that
A)he must have done something wrong.
B)something else was being used to provide hydrogen.
C)CO was not being split to produce O .
D)CO was directly involved in O production.
E)H O was being used to provide hydrogen.
Q3) What is the relationship between wavelength of light and the quantity of energy per photon?
A)They have a direct, linear relationship.
B)They are inversely related.
C)They are logarithmically related.
D)They are separate phenomena.
E)They are only related in certain parts of the spectrum.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Apoptosis protects healthy "neighbours" from a dying cell by preventing A)cell death spreading from one cell to the next via paracrine signals.
B)lysosomal enzymes exiting the dying cell that would damage surrounding cells.
C)release of cellular energy that would interfere with the neighbours' energy budget.
D)bits of membrane from the dying cell merging with neighbours and bringing in foreign receptors.
E)neighbouring cells activating immunological responses.
Q2) In C.elegans,ced-9 prevents apoptosis in a normal cell in which of the following ways?
A)It prevents the caspase activity of ced-3 and ced-4.
B)Ced-9 remains inactive until it is signalled by ced-3 and other caspases.
C)Ced-9 cleaves to produce ced-3 and ced-4.
D)Ced-9 enters the nucleus and activates apoptotic genes.
E)Ced-9 prevents blebbing by its action on the cell membrane.
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Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) A research team began a study of a cultured cell line.Their preliminary observations showed them that the cell line did not exhibit either density-dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence.What could they conclude right away?
A)The cells originated in the nervous system.
B)The cells are unable to form spindle microtubules.
C)They have altered series of cell cycle phases.
D)The cells show characteristics of tumours.
E)They were originally derived from an elderly organism.
Q2) At which of the numbered regions would you expect to find cells at metaphase?
A)I and IV
B)II only
C)III only
D)IV only
E)V only
Q3) If there are 20 chromatids in a cell,how many centromeres are there? A)10
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) Which sample might represent an animal cell which is at the end of meiosis II?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)both I and II
E)either II or III
Q2) Crossing over normally takes place during which of the following processes?
A)meiosis II
B)meiosis I
C)mitosis
D)mitosis and meiosis II
E)mitosis, meiosis I, and meiosis II
Q3) If a female of this species has one chromosome 12 with a blue gene and another chromosome 12 with an orange gene,and has both number 19 chromosomes with short genes,she will produce which of the following egg types?
A)only blue short gene eggs
B)only orange short gene eggs
C)one-half blue short and one-half orange short gene eggs
D)three-fourths blue short and one-fourth orange short gene eggs
E)three-fourths orange short and one-fourth blue short gene eggs
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) Which of the following calculations requires that you utilize the addition rule?
A)Calculate the probability of black offspring from the cross AaBb × AaBb, when B is the symbol for black.
B)Calculate the probability of children with both cystic fibrosis and polydactyly when parents are each heterozygous for both genes.
C)Calculate the probability of each of four children having cystic fibrosis if the parents are both heterozygous.
D)Calculate the probability of a child having either sickle-cell anemia or cystic fibrosis if parents are each heterozygous for both.
E)Calculate the probability of purple flower colour in a plot of 50 plants seeded from a self-fertilizing heterozygous parent plant.
Q2) How many different types of gametes would be possible in this system?
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Red-green colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans.Two people with normal colour vision have a colour-blind son.What are the genotypes of the parents?
A) XcXc and XcY
B) XcXc and XCY
C) XCXC and XcY
D) XCXC and XCY
E) XCXc and XCY
Q2) What is the source of the extra chromosome 21 in an individual with Down syndrome?
A)nondisjunction in the mother only
B)nondisjunction in the father only
C)duplication of the chromosome
D)nondisjunction in either parent
E)It is impossible to detect with current technology.
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17
Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) In his work with pneumonia-causing bacteria and mice,Griffith found that
A)the protein coat from pathogenic cells was able to transform nonpathogenic cells.
B)heat-killed pathogenic cells caused pneumonia.
C)some substance from pathogenic cells was transferred to nonpathogenic cells, making them pathogenic.
D)the polysaccharide coat of bacteria caused pneumonia.
E)bacteriophages injected DNA into bacteria.
Q2) Which of the following statements describes chromatin?
A)Heterochromatin is composed of DNA, whereas euchromatin is made of DNA and RNA.
B)Both heterochromatin and euchromatin are found in the cytoplasm.
C)Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact.
D)Euchromatin is not transcribed, whereas heterochromatin is transcribed.
E)Only euchromatin is visible under the light microscope.
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18
Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Rank the following one-base point mutations (from most likely to least likely)with respect to their likelihood of affecting the structure of the corresponding polypeptide.
1)insertion mutation within an intron
2)substitution mutation at the third position of an exonic codon
3)substitution mutation at the second position of an exonic codon
4)deletion mutation within the first exon of the gene
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)4, 3, 2, 1
C)2, 1, 4, 3
D)3, 1, 4, 2
E)4, 1, 3, 2
Q2) If,after irradiating and growing cultures in enriched media,you see some red colonies,what is the easiest way to confirm that the phenotype observed is due to a lack of adenine metabolism?
A)Grow them with and without adenine in the media.
B)Grow them with and without the adenine precursor.
C)You would have to see the DNA sequences.
D)Look for the protein products and compare them to wild type.
E)See if the colonies could survive with a higher dosage of UV irradiation.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Where would B be located in the cell?
A)cytoplasm
B)ER
C)nucleus
D)attached to ribosomes
E)in a vesicle
Q2) Most repressor proteins are allosteric.Which of the following binds with the repressor to alter its conformation?
A)inducer
B)promoter
C)RNA polymerase
D)transcription factor
E)cAMP
Q3) Which gene is definitely functioning in the mother of this larva?
A)ras
B)p53
C)bicoid
D)myoD
E)You cannot tell from this larva.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) How many nucleotides of the genome would you expect to find in one capsid?
A)1
B)~6
C)~20
D)~180
E)~6300
Q2) RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because
A)host cells rapidly destroy the viruses.
B)host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome.
C)these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins.
D)these enzymes penetrate host cell membranes.
E)these enzymes cannot be made in host cells.
Q3) Given Baltimore's scheme,a positive sense single-stranded RNA virus such as the polio virus would be most closely related to which of the following?
A)T-series bacteriophages
B)retroviruses that require a DNA intermediate
C)single-stranded DNA viruses such as herpes viruses
D)nonenveloped double-stranded RNA viruses
E)linear double-stranded DNA viruses such as adenoviruses
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Page 21
Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) A researcher has used in vitro mutagenesis to mutate a cloned gene and then has reinserted this into a cell.In order to have the mutated sequence disable the function of the gene,what must then occur?
A)recombination resulting in replacement of the wild type with the mutated gene
B)use of a microarray to verify continued expression of the original gene
C)replication of the cloned gene using a bacterial plasmid
D)transcription of the cloned gene using cDNA
E)attachment of the mutated gene to an existing mRNA to be translated
Q2) In animals,embryonic stem cells differ from adult stem cells in that
A)embryonic stem cells are totipotent, and adult stem cells are pluripotent.
B)embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, and adult stem cells are totipotent.
C)embryonic stem cells have more genes than adult stem cells.
D)embryonic stem cells have fewer genes than adult stem cells.
E)embryonic stem cells are localized to specific sites within the embryo, whereas adult stem cells are spread throughout the body.
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22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) What is most likely if genes from different species are determined to be homologous?
A)The genes descended from a common ancestor.
B)Homology is observed because of convergent evolution.
C)The homology is a result of chance mutations.
D)Homology is found in gene structure but the function of the gene products will be different.
E)The species being compared will also have a similar genome size and structure.
Q2) What is an early step in shotgun sequencing?
A)break genomic DNA at random sites
B)map the position of cloned DNA fragments
C)randomly select DNA primers and hybridize these to random positions of chromosomes in preparation for sequencing
D)sequence fragments
Q3) The large common repository for genetic sequences hosted by NCBI is called A)GenBank.
B)BLAST.
C)GenesRus.
D)Prodata.
E)TreeNoMix.
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Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) If Darwin had been aware of genes,and of their typical mode of transmission to subsequent generations,with which statement would he most likely have been in agreement?
A)If natural selection can change one gene's frequency in a population over the course of generations then, given enough time and enough genes, natural selection can cause sufficient genetic change to produce new species from old ones.
B)If an individual's somatic cell genes change during its lifetime, making it more fit, then it will be able to pass these genes on to its offspring.
C)If an individual acquires new genes by engulfing, or being infected by, another organism, then a new genetic species will be the result.
D)A single mutation in a single gene in a single gamete will, if perpetuated, produce a new species within just two generations.
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes theories?
A)They are nearly the same things as hypotheses.
B)They are supported by, and make sense of, many observations.
C)They cannot be tested because the described events occurred only once.
D)They are predictions of future events.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) You are maintaining a small population of fruit flies in the laboratory by transferring the flies to a new culture bottle after each generation.After several generations,you notice that the viability of the flies has decreased greatly.Recognizing that small population size is likely to be linked to decreased viability,the best way to reverse this trend is to
A)cross your flies with flies from another lab.
B)reduce the number of flies that you transfer at each generation.
C)transfer only the largest flies.
D)change the temperature at which you rear the flies.
E)shock the flies with a brief treatment of heat or cold to make them more hardy.
Q2) Which of the following represents the treatment option most likely to avoid the production of drug-resistant HIV (assuming no drug interactions or side effects)?
A)using a series of NAs, one at a time, and changed about once a week
B)using a single PI, but slowly increasing the dosage over the course of a week
C)using high doses of NA and a PI at the same time for a period not to exceed one day
D)using moderate doses of NA and two different PIs at the same time for several months
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) A hybrid zone is properly defined as
A)an area where two closely related species' ranges overlap.
B)an area where mating occurs between members of two closely related species, producing viable offspring.
C)a zone that features a gradual change in species composition where two neighbouring ecosystems border each other.
D)a zone that includes the intermediate portion of a cline.
E)an area where members of two closely related species intermingle, but experience no gene flow.
Q2) What keeps the two populations separate?
A)temporal reproductive isolation
B)lack of hybrid viability
C)behavioural reproductive isolation
D)habitat isolation
E)C and D
Q3) Which species is most closely related to species W?
A)V is most closely related to species W.
B)X is most closely related to species W.
C)Y and Z are equally closely related to W.
D)It is not possible to say from this tree.
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Approximately how far back in time does the fossil record extend?
A)3)5 million years
B)5)0 million years
C)3)5 billion years
D)5)0 billion years
Q2) Which organisms would you expect to be most poorly represented in the fossil record?
A)common, soft-bodied slugs
B)rare, soft-bodied worms
C)bony fish
D)marine crabs
E)flightless birds
Q3) The existence of evolutionary trends,such as increasing body sizes among horse species,is evidence that
A)a larger volume-to-surface area ratio is beneficial to all mammals.
B)larger animals are better adapted than smaller ones.
C)evolution always tends toward increased complexity or increased size.
D)in particular environments, similar adaptations can be beneficial in more than one species.
E)evolution generally progresses toward some predetermined goal.
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) The legless condition that is observed in several groups of extant reptiles is the result of
A)their common ancestor having been legless.
B)a shared adaptation to an arboreal (living in trees)lifestyle.
C)several instances of the legless condition arising independently of each other.
D)individual lizards adapting to a fossorial (living in burrows)lifestyle during their lifetimes.
Q2) Placing whales and hippos in the same clade means
A)that these organisms are phenotypically more similar to each other than to any others shown on the trees in the above figure.
B)that their morphological similarities are probably homoplasies.
C)that they had a common ancestor.
D)that all three of the responses are correct.
E)that two of the responses are correct.
Q3) Which of the following pairs are the best examples of homologous structures?
A)bones in the bat wing and bones in the human forelimb
B)owl wing and hornet wing
C)bat wing and bird wing
D)eyelessness in the Australian mole and eyelessness in the North American mole
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Bacteria perform each of the following ecological roles.Which role typically does not involve a symbiosis?
A)skin commensalist
B)decomposer
C)aggregates with methane-consuming archaea
D)gut mutualist
E)pathogen
Q2) Which question,arising from the results depicted in the above figure,is most interesting from a genetic perspective,and has the greatest potential to increase our knowledge base?
A)If reciprocal crossing over could occur even if the piece of donated Hfr DNA were identical to the homologous portion of the recipient's chromosome, what prevents this from occurring?
B)What forces are generally responsible for disrupting the sex pilus?
C)How is it that a recipient cell does not necessarily become an Hfr cell as the result of conjugation with an Hfr cell?
D)What makes a cell an Hfr cell?
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Living diatoms contain brownish plastids.If global warming causes blooms of diatoms in the surface waters of Earth's oceans,how might this be harmful to the animals that build coral reefs?
A)The coral animals, which capture planktonic organisms, may be outcompeted by the diatoms.
B)The coral animals' endosymbiotic dinoflagellates may get "shaded out" by the diatoms.
C)The coral animals may die from overeating the plentiful diatoms, with their cases of silica.
D)The diatoms' photosynthetic output may over-oxygenate the water.
Q2) Including the membrane of the surrounding vesicle,how many phospholipid (NOT lipopolysaccharide)bilayers should be found around each cyanelle,and which one of these bilayers should have photosystems embedded in it?
A)two; innermost
B)two; outermost
C)three; innermost
D)three; middle
E)three; outermost
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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93 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be most helpful in distinguishing the clades depicted on the tree in the above figure from each other?
A)the types of conducting tissues that are present
B)the types of photosynthetic pigments that are present
C)the details of reproduction
D)the concentration of stomata present on leaves of the saprophyte generation
E)whether it is the sporophyte generation or the gametophyte generation that is dominant
Q2) Arrange the following terms from most inclusive to least inclusive.
1)embryophytes
2)green plants
3)seedless vascular plants
4)ferns
5)tracheophytes
A)1, 2, 5, 3, 4
B)2, 1, 5, 3, 4
C)2, 5, 1, 3, 4
D)1, 4, 2, 5, 3
E)2, 1, 5, 4, 3
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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119 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shell of an animal egg is what type of angiosperm analogue?
A)endosperm
B)pollen tube and sperm nuclei
C)carpels
D)fruit
E)integuments
Q2) It would be best for these students,and for society in the long run,if their biology professor responds by
A)acknowledging their concern, and promising not to hold them responsible for any material on plants.
B)chiding them for their careerist attitudes, and advising them to whine less and study more.
C)offering extra credit for a research paper on plants that harm humans, as well as plants that heal humans.
D)lowering the stress level by providing them with the relevant test questions from the upcoming test so they can research the answers ahead of time.
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32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given the eukaryotic structures they lack,it should be expected that microsporidians also lack
A)the "9 + 2 pattern" of microtubules. B)chitin.
C)lysosomes.
D)nuclei.
E)centrosomes.
Q2) At which location is the mycelium currently absorbing the most nutrients per unit surface area,per unit time?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q3) Mycorrhizae are to the roots of vascular plants as endophytes are to vascular plants' A)leaf mesophyll.
B)stem apical meristems.
C)root apical meristems
D)xylem.
E)waxy cuticle.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) Which of these,if discovered among cycliophorans,would cause the most confusion concerning our current understanding of cycliophoran taxonomy?
A)if the ciliated feeding ring is a lophophore
B)if embryos are diploblastic
C)if the body cavity is actually a pseudocoelom
D)if the organisms show little apparent cephalization
Q2) The blastopore is a structure that first becomes evident during A)fertilization.
B)gastrulation.
C)the eight-cell stage of the embryo.
D)coelom formation.
E)cleavage.
Q3) According to the evidence collected so far,the animal kingdom is A)monophyletic.
B)paraphyletic.
C)polyphyletic.
D)euphyletic.
E)multiphyletic.
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is found only among annelids?
A)a hydrostatic skeleton
B)segmentation
C)a clitellum
D)a closed circulatory system
E)a cuticle made of chitin
Q2) A land snail,a clam,and an octopus all share
A)a mantle.
B)a radula.
C)gills.
D)embryonic torsion.
E)distinct cephalization.
Q3) The antennae of insects have a function most similar to that of A)rhinophores.
B)dorsal plummules.
C)cerata.
D)more than one of these.
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Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) In order for the four-chambered hearts of birds and mammals to be homologous,which other organisms would have to have had four-chambered hearts?
A)dinosaurs
B)thecodonts
C)plesiosaurs
D)synapsids
E)stem reptiles
Q2) Which of these statements about human evolution is correct?
A)The ancestors of Homo sapiens were chimpanzees.
B)Human evolution has proceeded in an orderly fashion from an ancestral anthropoid to Homo sapiens.
C)The evolution of upright posture and enlarged brain occurred simultaneously.
D)Different species of the genus Homo have coexisted at various times throughout hominin evolution.
E)Mitochondrial DNA analysis indicates that modern humans are genetically very similar to Neanderthals.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure,Growth,and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct sequence from the growing tips of the root upward?
A)I, II, V, III, IV
B)III, V, I, II, IV
C)II, IV, I, V, III
D)IV, II, III, I, V
E)I, V, III, II, IV
Q2) Leaf thickness represents a trade-off between
A)light collection and carbon dioxide absorption.
B)water retention and carbon dioxide absorption.
C)water retention and oxygen absorption.
D)light collection and oxygen absorption.
Q3) When you eat Brussels sprouts,what are you eating?
A)immature flowers
B)large axillary buds
C)petioles
D)storage leaves
E)storage roots
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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plant diversity is very high in the tropics,but plants are found in the many different biomes and show specific adaptations to cold,hot,wet,and dry environments.You are working in a greenhouse and have just received a large shipment of desert plants.Which feature/characteristic would you not find in your desert plants?
A)small leaves
B)fleshy green stems
C)leaves covered by a thick cuticle
D)stomata concentrated on the upper surface of leaves
E)reflective and hairy leaves
Q2) Loss of water from the aerial parts of plants is called A)dehydration.
B)respiration.
C)gas exchange.
D)transpiration.
Q3) Active transport of amino acids in plants at the cellular level requires A)NADP and channel proteins.
B)xylem membranes and channel proteins.
C)sodium/potassium pumps and xylem membranes.
D)ATP, transport proteins, and a proton gradient.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) For this pair of items,choose the option that best describes their relationship.
I.the amount of molybdenum in a gram of dried plant material
II.the amount of sulphur in a gram of dried plant material
A)Item I is greater than item II.
B)Item I is less than item II.
C)Item I is exactly or very approximately equal to item II.
D)There is not enough information to make a meaningful comparison.
Q2) The data in the above figure indicate that the plant
A)grows best at the lower levels of air in the soil.
B)grows about the same in 15% and 20% soil air levels.
C)grows best in soil air levels above 15%.
D)grows about the same in 15% and 20% soil air levels, and grows best in soil air levels above 15%.
E)grows about the same in 15% and 20% soil air levels, grows best in soil air levels above 15%, and grows best at the lower levels of air in the soil.
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about clonal reproduction in plants?
A)Clones of plants do not occur naturally.
B)Cloning, although achieved in animals, has not been demonstrated in plants.
C)Making cuttings of ornamental plants is a form of fragmentation.
D)Reproduction of plants by cloning may be either sexual or asexual.
E)Viable seeds can result from sexual reproduction only.
Q2) The primary function of the integument of an ovule is to
A)protect against animal predation.
B)ensure double fertilization.
C)form a seed coat.
D)direct development of the endosperm.
E)produce hormones that ensure successful pollination.
Q3) Which of the following developmental processes in a seed is the most evolutionarily advantageous for the initial establishment of a viable seedling?
A)The emergence of the radical.
B)The coleoptiles in monocots.
C)The protective layer of cutin outside of the seed coat.
D)The emergence of the first photosynthetically active leaves.
E)The development of a nutrient-rich hypocotyl.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following plant hormones would most likely be found in high concentrations in a mature,slightly overripe fruit?
A)auxins and cytokinins
B)auxins and abscisic acid
C)gibberellins and cytokinins
D)cytokinins and ethylene
E)abscisic acid and ethylene
Q2) When growing plants in culture,IAA is used to stimulate cell enlargement.Which plant growth regulator has to now be added to stimulate cell division?
A)ethylene
B)indoleacetic acid
C)gibberellin
D)cytokinin
E)abscisic acid
Q3) Plant hormones
A)in plant cells naturally exist in very large amounts.
B)change their shape in response to stimulus.
C)are unable to move from one cell to another.
D)affect only cells with the appropriate receptor.
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a multicellular animal,the circulatory system exchanges materials with the external environment using specialized exchange surfaces.Which of the following is not an example of such an exchange surface?
A)lung
B)muscle
C)skin
D)intestine
E)kidney
Q2) The specialized function shared by the cells that line the lungs and those that line the lumen of the gut is that both types of cells
A)receive their oxygen directly from inhaled air and ingested foods.
B)provide abundant exchange surface.
C)have exceptionally high numbers of cellular organelles in the cytoplasm.
D)offer greater protection due to increased membrane thickness.
E)have a lowered basal metabolic rate due to cooperative exchange between cells.
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42
Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ingested dietary substances must cross cell membranes to be used by the body,a process known as A)ingestion.
B)digestion.
C)hydrolysis.
D)absorption.
E)elimination.
Q2) Historically inaccurate diagnosis of acid reflux disorders and gastric ulcers has been improved by A)pH monitoring.
B)X-ray technology.
C)the diagnosis and treatment of H. pylori infection.
D)colonoscopy.
E)sonography.
Q3) Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that A)is manufactured by the pancreas.
B)helps stabilize fat-water emulsions.
C)splits maltose into monosaccharides.
D)begins the hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach.
E)is denatured and rendered inactive in solutions with low pH.
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Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) An "internal reservoir" of oxygen in rested muscle is found in oxygen molecules bound to
A)hemoglobin.
B)bicarbonate ions.
C)carbonic acid.
D)actin and myosin.
E)myoglobin.
Q2) Hemoglobin and hemocyanin
A)are both found within blood cells.
B)are both red in colour.
C)are both freely dissolved in the plasma.
D)both transport oxygen.
E)are both found in mammals.
Q3) Circulatory systems have the primary benefit of overcoming the shortcomings of
A)temperature differences between the lungs and the active tissue.
B)the slow rate at which diffusion occurs across cells.
C)communication systems involving only the nervous system.
D)having to cushion animals from trauma.
E)fetal organisms maintaining an optimal body temperature.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mammals have Toll-like receptors (TLRs)that can recognize a kind of macromolecule that is absent from vertebrates but present in/on certain groups of pathogens,including viral
A)lipopolysaccharides.
B)double-stranded DNA.
C)double-stranded RNA.
D)glycoproteins.
E)phospholipids.
Q2) Clonal selection is an explanation for how
A)a single type of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells.
B)V, J, and C gene segments are rearranged.
C)an antigen can provoke production of high levels of specific antibodies.
D)HIV can disrupt the immune system.
E)macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells.
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many marine and freshwater bony fish achieve osmoregulation via
A)loss of water through the gills.
B)gain of salt through the gills.
C)loss of water in the urine.
D)no drinking of water.
E)gain of water through food.
Q2) Which nitrogenous waste requires hardly any water for its excretion?
A)amino acids
B)urea
C)uric acid
D)ammonia
E)nitrogen gas
Q3) Excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules are present in A)earthworms.
B)flatworms.
C)insects.
D)jellyfish.
E)sea stars.
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypothalamus
A)functions only as an endocrine target, by having lots of receptors on its cells.
B)functions only in neuronal transmission.
C)does not have any hormone receptors on its cells.
D)secretes tropic hormones that act directly on the gonads.
E)includes neurosecretory cells that terminate in the posterior pituitary.
Q2) Which hormone is incorrectly paired with its action?
A)oxytocin - stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth
B)thyroxine - stimulates metabolic processes
C)insulin - stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver
D)ACTH - stimulates the release of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex
E)melatonin - affects biological rhythms, seasonal reproduction
Q3) Which category of signal exerts its effects on target cells by binding to membrane-bound receptor proteins?
A)neurohormones
B)estrogens
C)androgens
D)vitamin D
E)neurohormones, estrogens, androgens, and vitamin D
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about human reproduction is false?
A)Fertilization occurs in the oviduct.
B)Effective hormonal contraceptives are currently available only for females.
C)An oocyte completes meiosis after a sperm penetrates it.
D)The earliest stages of spermatogenesis occur closest to the lumen of the seminiferous tubules.
E)Spermatogenesis and oogenesis require different temperatures.
Q2) The primary function of the corpus luteum is to
A)nourish and protect the egg cell.
B)produce prolactin in the alveoli.
C)maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation has occurred.
D)stimulate the development of the mammary glands.
E)support pregnancy in the second and third trimesters.
Q3) Tubal ligation
A)reduces the incidence of ovulation.
B)prevents fertilization by preventing sperm from entering the uterus.
C)prevents implantation of an embryo.
D)prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra.
E)prevents oocytes from entering the uterus.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two primary factors in shaping the polarity of the body axes in chick embryos are
A)light and temperature.
B)salt gradients and membrane potentials.
C)gravity and pH.
D)moisture and mucus.
E)location of sperm penetration and cortical reaction.
Q2) Symptoms of Kartagener's syndrome include frequent sinus and bronchial infections,reversal of chest and abdominal organs,and afflicted males produce immotile sperm.This syndrome is a result of A)deformation of the ZPA.
B)immotile cilia.
C)immotile flagella.
D)motile flagella.
E)motile cilia.
Q3) Testgen questions still do not copy to other applications.
A)blastula gastrula cleavage
B)cleavage gastrula blastula
C)cleavage blastula gastrula
D)gastrula blastula cleavage
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Neurons,Synapses,and Signalling
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Sample Questions
Q1) The membrane potential that exactly offsets an ion's concentration gradient is called the
A)graded potential.
B)threshold potential.
C)equilibrium potential.
D)action potential.
E)inhibitory postsynaptic potential.
Q2) Neurons and support cells in the CNS have a limited ability to repair themselves; however,those of the PNS have a higher capacity for reparation.To slow or inhibit the breakdown of the myelin sheath,which type of cell could remyelinate the neurons?
A)astrocytes
B)oligodendrocytes
C)microglia
D)Schwann cells
E)ependymal cells
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Central coordination of vertebrate biological rhythms in physiology and behaviour reside in the
A)pituitary gland.
B)hypothalamus.
C)cerebrum.
D)cerebellum.
E)thalamus.
Q2) Patients with damage to Wernicke's area have difficulty
A)coordinating limb movement.
B)generating speech.
C)recognizing faces.
D)understanding language.
E)experiencing emotion.
Q3) Which of the following shows a brain structure correctly paired with one of its primary functions?
A)frontal lobe-decision making
B)occipital lobe-control of skeletal muscles
C)temporal lobe-visual processing
D)cerebellum-language comprehension
E)occipital lobe-speech production
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Artificial electrical stimulation of a human's capsaicin-sensitive neurons would likely produce the sensation of
A)cold temperature.
B)hot temperature.
C)tactile stimulus.
D)odour of pepper.
E)deep pressure.
Q2) A rod exposed to light will
A)fire action potentials that will increase its release of glutamate.
B)undergo a graded depolarization that will increase its release of glutamate.
C)undergo a graded hyperpolarization that will increase its release of glutamate.
D)undergo a graded depolarization that will decrease its release of glutamate.
E)undergo a graded hyperpolarization that will decrease its release of glutamate.
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52
Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) Circannual rhythms in birds are influenced by
A)periods of food availability.
B)reproductive readiness.
C)periods of daylight and darkness.
D)magnetic fields.
E)lunar cycles.
Q2) Which of the following is not a display of altruistic behaviour?
A)Richardson's ground squirrel emitting an alarm call to unaware neighbours
B)worker honeybee stinging an intruder and subsequently dying
C)non-reproductive naked mole rat protecting the queen from predation
D)vervet monkey alarm calling when spotting an eagle
E)green lacewing producing a hybrid courtship song
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of a fixed action pattern?
A)honey-bee waggle dance
B)aggressive response to the colour red in the threespine stickleback
C)courtship behaviour of the fruit fly
D)a dog begging for food
E)the mating dance of the male bird of paradise
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which level of ecological study focuses the most on abiotic factors?
A)speciation ecology
B)population ecology
C)community ecology
D)ecosystem ecology
Q2) The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes?
A)savanna
B)temperate broadleaf forest
C)temperate grassland
D)tropical rain forest
E)coniferous forest
Q3) In the figure above,which number would designate the arctic tundra biome?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
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54
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample
Questions
Q1) In 2008,the population of New Zealand was approximately 4 275 000 people.If the birth rate was 14 births for every 1000 people,approximately how many births occurred in New Zealand in 2008?
A)6000
B)42 275
C)60 000
D)140 000
E)600 000
Q2) An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer,Odocoileus virginianus,per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile in another woodlot.What was the ecologist comparing?
A)density
B)dispersion
C)carrying capacity
D)cohorts
E)range
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55
Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the McDonaldland scenario,which of the following would best define an ecological community?
A)all of the sandwiches sold at McDonaldland
B)the entire menu at McDonaldland
C)all of the fast-food restaurants in North America
D)the condiments served at McDonaldland
E)the breakfast menu at McDonaldland
Q2) Species richness increases
A)as we increase in altitude in equatorial mountains.
B)as we travel southward from the North Pole.
C)on islands as distance from the mainland increases.
D)as depth increases in aquatic communities.
E)as community size decreases.
Q3) Which letter represents an organism that could be a primary consumer?
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which data is most useful to measure primary productivity in a terrestrial ecosystem?
A)temperature readings
B)potential evapotranspiration
C)intensity of solar radiation
D)annual precipitation
E)amount of carbon fixed
Q2) Why do logged tropical rain forest soils typically have nutrient-poor soils?
A)Tropical bedrock contains little phosphorous.
B)Logging results in soil temperatures that are lethal to nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
C)Most of the nutrients in the ecosystem are removed in the harvested timber.
D)The cation exchange capacity of the soil is reversed as a result of logging.
E)Nutrients evaporate easily into the atmosphere in the post-logged forest.
Q3) Which of the following properly links the nutrient to its reservoir?
A)nitrogen-ionic nitrogen in the soil
B)water-atmospheric water vapour
C)carbon-dissolved CO in aquatic ecosystems
D)phosphorous-sedimentary rocks
E)All of the options are correct.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Estimates of current rates of extinction
A)indicate that we have reached a state of stable equilibrium in which speciation rates equal extinction rates.
B)suggest that one-half of all animal and plant species may be gone by the year 2100.
C)indicate that rates may be greater than the mass extinctions at the close of the Cretaceous period.
D)indicate that only 1% of all of the species that have ever lived on Earth are still alive.
E)suggest that rates of extinction have decreased globally.
Q2) The main goal of sustainable development is to
A)involve more countries in conservation efforts.
B)use only natural resources in the construction of new buildings.
C)use natural resources such that they do not decline over time.
D)reevaluate and re-implement management plans over time.
Q3) Which of the following ecological locations has the greatest species diversity?
A)deciduous forests
B)tropical rain forest
C)grasslands
D)islands
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