General Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
General Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of biological science, covering topics ranging from the molecular and cellular basis of life to the structure and function of living organisms. The course explores genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life, offering insight into the processes that govern growth, reproduction, and adaptation in both plants and animals. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, experimental design, and the application of biology to real-world issues, preparing students with a solid foundation for further studies in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Now 2nd Edition by Anne Houtman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science
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Q1) The most beautiful sunsets are those observed in deserts.
A) scientific fact
B) scientific theory
C) opinion
Answer: C
Q2) When scientists generate a single informed,logical,and plausible explanation for a question and observations of the natural world,they are proposing a scientific A) hypothesis.
B) observation.
C) theory.
D) correlation.
Answer: A
Q3) genetic material used to transfer information from parent to offspring
A)evolution
B)homeostasis
C)metabolism
D)cell
E)DNA
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Evaluating Scientific Claims
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Q1) Scientific studies that compare patients with a disease to those without the disease are referred to as
A) case-control studies.
B) clinical trials.
C) cohort studies.
D) in vitro studies.
Answer: A
Q2) A large biotech company would like to market a microbe that will help clean up oil spills in the ocean by actually consuming and detoxifying the oil.Would this research be basic or applied? Explain your answer.
Answer: This would be applied research because the scientific knowledge is being applied to a human/environmental issue with potential commercial application.There is the potential for bias on the part of the researcher if he or she stands to benefit either financially or professionally from the findings.
Q3) Claims that are characterized by scientific-sounding statements,beliefs,or practices but are not actually based on the scientific method are properly viewed as ________. Answer: pseudoscience
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4
Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Macromolecules are typically formed by repetitively adding small monomers together.Which macromolecule is properly matched with the appropriate monomer?
A) polypeptide-amino acid
B) nucleic acid-amino acid
C) polysaccharide-nucleotide
D) triglyceride-cholesterol
Answer: A
Q2) The chemical reaction that represents photosynthesis is 6 H O 6 CO C H O 6 O .What are the reactants?
A) H O and CO
B) C H O and CO
C) H O and O
D) C H O and CO .
Answer: A
Q3) The positively charged subatomic particle is located in the ________. Answer: nucleus
Q4) An atom that becomes charged due to the gain or loss of an electron is called a(n)________.
Answer: ion
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Chapter 4: Life Is Cellular
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Q1) ________ transport of molecules across a selectively permeable membrane requires the input of energy from the cell,whereas ________ transport of molecules across a selectively permeable membrane does not require the use of cellular energy.
Q2) Ribosomes are very small nonmembranous organelles that can either exist freely in the cytoplasm or be embedded in the endoplasmic reticulum of a cell.They are associated with the synthesis of A) lipids.
B) proteins.
C) nucleic acids.
D) carbohydrates.
Q3) All cells living today came from a preexisting ________.
Q4) The enzymes needed to perform photosynthesis in plant cells are closely associated with the membranes in A) chloroplasts.
B) plasma membrane. C) mitochondria.
D) ER.
Q5) Using what you know about cell theory and viruses,explain why viruses are not alive.
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Chapter 5: How Cells Work
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Q1) The role of water in photosynthesis is to
A) provide a phosphate group to ATP.
B) capture light energy and transfer it to the electron transport chain.
C) provide electrons to the chlorophyll.
D) combine with carbon dioxide (CO ) to make glucose.
Q2) The Krebs cycle produces
A) NADH, ATP, and FADH .
B) water and carbon dioxide.
C) ADP and NADP .
D) acetyl CoA and sugars.
Q3) The Krebs cycle functions to
A) accept electrons and hydrogen ions from energy carriers.
B) transform carbon from carbon dioxide into sugar.
C) use energy from sunlight to split water molecules.
D) transfer chemical energy from pyruvate to energy carriers.
Q4) Humans store sugars in the form of glycogen.Glycogen is made by linking many glucose molecules together.This process is ________.
Q5) List the three stages of cellular respiration.If the mitochondria in a eukaryotic cell are damaged,which of the three stages of cellular respiration would be impacted?
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Chapter 6: Cell Division
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Q1) When everything proceeds without error,the process of ________ produces ________ daughter cells that are genetically identical to the mother cell,while the process of ________ produces ________ daughter cells that have half the genetic information present in the mother cell.
Q2) G phase
A)Duplicated chromosomes are separated during this phase.
B)Cells prepare to divide and check that the proper steps have occurred for division.
C)phase in which cells duplicate the genetic material
D)resting stage assumed by cells that exit the cell cycle
E)Two new daughter cells grow in preparation for division.
Q3) When examining the rapidly dividing cells of a fish embryo,a researcher notices a cell that seems to contain two nuclei.The middle of the cell is pinched inward.This cell must be in ________ of mitosis.
A) prophase
B) telophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
Q4) Cells spend the bulk of their time in the ________ stage of the cell cycle.
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Chapter 7: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Differentiate between pleiotropy and polygenic traits.
Q2) Explain the relationship between the genotype and the phenotype of a given trait.
Q3) The frizzle gene in chickens affects many traits,including feather type,metabolic rate,blood flow rates,and digestion.
A)incomplete dominance
B)epistasis
C)polygenic
D)pleiotropy
E)codominance
F)Mendelian trait
Q4) If an individual is a carrier for a recessive disorder (with one copy of the recessive allele)and his or her partner is also a carrier,what is the probability that they will produce a child affected by the disorder? Explain your answer.
Q5) Which of the following does NOT represent a phenotype?
A) a person's susceptibility to Addison's disease
B) the height of a draft horse
C) the alleles in a mouse that control hair color
D) the extent to which an individual is shy
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Chapter 8: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) Explain how two brothers might have different X chromosomes,but they must share identical Y chromosomes.
Q2) An X-linked carrier is a female individual with a ________ genotype,on her X chromosomes,who does not express the recessive trait but can pass it along to offspring.
A) homozygous
B) heterozygous
C) recessive
D) dominant
Q3) Because an individual with an XX genotype is a female,is an individual with an XO (no second sex chromosome)a male?
A) No, because the X always overrides the Y and makes that embryo female.
B) No, because the Y chromosome contains the gene that makes an embryo male.
C) Yes, because if there is only one X, the embryo cannot become female.
D) Yes, because all embryos start off as males.
Q4) If an individual has two alleles at a given locus that are different,the individual is said to be ________ for the gene.
Q5) An allele that is not expressed in heterozygous carriers is called a(n)________ allele.
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Chapter 9: What Genes Are
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Q1) A segment of DNA in a test tube replicates and produces many copies of itself.What was probably in the test tube that enhanced this process?
A) repair enzymes
B) DNA polymerase
C) plasmids
D) a mutagen
Q2) If one strand of DNA has the sequence CGATT,the sequence of the other strand of the same molecule will be
A) CGATT.
B) GCTUU.
C) TACGG.
D) GCTAA.
Q3) Describe the building blocks of DNA and how they are bonded together to form the DNA double helix.
Q4) Damaged DNA may be repaired by a special class of A) nucleotides.
B) proteins.
C) deoxyribose molecules.
D) phosphate bonds.
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Chapter 10: How Genes Work
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Q1) Transforming plants with a human gene produces a protein that is identical to the original human protein.Explain how this evidence demonstrates that the genetic code is universal,and list another experiment that could be used to further support this theory.
Q2) Recognition occurs between a codon and an anticodon.
A)first B)second C)third D)fourth E)fifth
Q3) mRNA binds to a ribosome. A)first B)second C)third D)fourth E)fifth
Q4) One concern with biopharming is that genes used to produce desired proteins could "escape" a laboratory setting and spread to food crops.What does it mean for a gene to "escape?" How would food crops be affected?
Q5) The genetic code is ________,which means that all cells use the same code.
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Chapter 11: Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Pangaea is
A) the process of continental drift.
B) the combined fossil record of ancient species.
C) an ancient, giant continent.
D) the result of natural selection.
Q2) Evolution is
A) not supported by scientific evidence.
B) strongly supported by scientific evidence.
C) not supported by the fossil record.
D) too obscure to study.
Q3) Neanderthal fossils
A) are likely to be found in layers above human fossils.
B) are likely to be found in layers below human fossils.
C) provide evidence of artificial selection during ancient times.
D) disprove evolutionary theory because they are not ancestors of humans.
Q4) Which of the following statements about evolution is true?
A) Evolution only results in the addition of traits to existing organisms.
B) Evolution only results in the loss of traits from existing organisms.
C) Evolution can result in the addition or loss of traits in existing organisms.
D) Evolution has nothing to do with the addition or loss of traits.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) While on a camping trip,Brian collects a white tadpole from a pond and takes it home.The tadpole develops into a white bullfrog.When the frog gets too big,he releases it into a local pond.The next year,several white bullfrogs are observed in the pond.This is an example of
A) genetic drift.
B) natural selection.
C) gene flow.
D) sexual selection.
Q2) The result of convergent evolution is ________ traits.
Q3) When individuals with intermediate phenotypes have an advantage over all others in the population,such as the case with human birth weight in the 1930s-1940s,________ selection is the likely mechanism of evolution responsible.
Q4) Which of the following is true with regard to mutations?
A) Mutations occur in response to environmental pressures.
B) Mutations are more common in slowly growing organisms.
C) Mutations appear without regard to environmental pressures.
D) Several mutations must occur at one time for a new phenotype to appear.
Q5) Provide an example of analogous traits in two organisms and explain how/why those traits evolved in such distantly related organisms.
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Chapter 13: Adaptation and Species
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Q1) Two toad species in the same habitat breed at different times of the year.
A)hybrid sterility
B)behavioral isolation
C)ecological isolation
D)zygote death
E)gametic isolation
Q2) Explain how a change in the depth,either a lengthening or shortening,of flowers that contain nectar eaten by a particular species of hummingbird would potentially lead to a change in the hummingbird.
Q3) Summarize how genetic divergence between two populations leads to reproductive barriers that isolate species living in the same area.Give specific examples of the barriers produced.
Q4) Which of the following would NOT be expected after a population undergoes geographic isolation?
A) a decrease in gene flow
B) an increase in gene flow
C) allopatric speciation
D) formation of adaptive traits
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Chapter 14: The History of Life
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Q1) The following numbered sets each represent a distinct group of organisms: (1)three toes per foot,cold-blooded,feathers,no finger adaptations (2)three toes per foot,warm-blooded,body hair,opposable thumbs (3)three toes per foot,warm-blooded,feathers,no finger adaptation (4)three toes per foot,warm-blooded,body hair,no finger adaptations
Which of the following choices is the MOST likely to represent the order in which these groups would appear on an evolutionary tree,from oldest to most recent?
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 4, 2, 3, 1
C) 1, 3, 4, 2
D) 2, 1, 4, 3
Q2) The first eukaryotes evolved approximately ________ years ago.
A) 200,000
B) 200 million
C) 2 billion
D) 2 trillion
Q3) If Earth's current mass extinction were to end tomorrow,what would be expected to occur with adaptive radiations?
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Chapter 15: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Beginning with a single bacterium for generation 0,calculate the number of cells present at generation 4.
Q2) As a group,prokaryotes
A) live in extreme environments and lack a nucleus.
B) are single-celled and possess pili.
C) are single-celled and lack a nucleus.
D) obtain energy from inorganic chemicals.
Q3) Prokaryotes that are observed attaching onto nonliving surfaces most likely possess A) pili.
B) a capsule.
C) a flagellum.
D) a nucleus.
Q4) Microbes that make up the domains Bacteria and Archaea are most similar in their A) DNA sequences.
B) plasma membrane structures.
C) metabolism.
D) lack of membrane-enclosed organelles.
Q5) In what way do prokaryotes directly help plants?
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Chapter 16: Plants, Fungi, and Protists
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Q1) Photosynthetic ________ would NOT have chloroplasts.
A) algae
B) bacteria
C) mosses
D) flowering plants
Q2) The first land plant with a vascular system was the ancestor of present-day
Q3) <i>Paramecium caudatum</i> are unicellular organisms with a thick flexible pellicle covered in cilia and two nuclei.They ingest bacteria and other microorganisms in the environment.<i>Paramecium caudatum</i> is a(n)________ in the kingdom
A) algae; Protista
B) bryophyte; Plantae
C) zygomycete; Fungi
D) protozoan; Protista
Q4) The international Union for Conservation of Nature announced that 31 percent of cactus species,renowned for their unique forms and beautiful________,are in danger of extinction.
Q5) Fungi are similar to animals in that they store surplus food energy in the form of
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Chapter 17: Animals and Human Evolution
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Q1) Compare and contrast the three types of mammals.
Q2) Humans and polar bears are examples of ________,mammals that nourish their developing offspring through a well-developed placenta prior to birth.
Q3) Which of the following could NOT be used to describe humans?
A) eutherian
B) mammal
C) primate
D) marsupial
Q4) Egg-laying mammals that lack a placenta are ________.
Q5) An animal that can be divided by just one vertical plane into two halves that mirror each other displays ________ symmetry.
Q6) All primates have opposable thumbs.This means the thumbs can be touched A) together.
B) to each of the other fingers on the opposite hand.
C) to each of the other fingers on the same hand.
D) to each of the toes on both feet.
Q7) You and your brother share the same father but have different mothers.Compare and contrast the mitochondrial and nuclear DNA profiles of you and your brother.
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Chapter 18: General Principles of Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following choices is a major difference between human-caused global change and that which occurs naturally?
A) Human-caused global change occurs more quickly, leaving organisms less time to adapt.
B) Human-caused global changes are of a smaller scale than naturally caused changes.
C) Naturally caused global change occurs only at one place on Earth at a time.
D) Naturally caused global changes are limited to the terrestrial habitats where humans live.
Q2) Increasing carbon sinks will ________ global warming and ________ climate change.
A) increase; decrease
B) increase; increase
C) decrease; increase
D) decrease; decrease
Q3) How do trees in the Amazon act as both a carbon sink and a carbon source?
Q4) What is an ecological footprint,and what unit is used to express one's ecological footprint?
Q5) Describe how burning fossil fuels can warm the planet.
Q6) How does deforestation in a tropical rainforest affect the water cycle?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Is it possible for the carrying capacity of a population to change? If so,give an example.If not,explain why.
Q2) number of individuals within a population per unit of area
A)population size
B)population density
C)carrying capacity
D)logistic growth
E)exponential growth
Q3) What causes an S-shaped growth curve to flatten out at the top?
Q4) You are told that the population size of mosquitoes is 50.What information would you need to allow you to determine the population density?
Q5) An insecticide used to reduce mosquito populations indirectly decreases bald eagle populations.
A)density-dependent population change
B)density-independent population change
Q6) How could a researcher use historical population size data for a predator and its prey to determine whether the two strongly influence each other?
Q7) Why do logistic growth curves have an "S" shape?
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Chapter 20: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) Every healthy human digestive system is home to countless microorganisms.In a normal digestive system,what type of relationship would this be considered?
A) parasitic
B) pathological
C) competitive
D) mutualistic
Q2) Which of the following best explains why a grass species might disappear when a meat-eating species is removed from a community?
A) The meat-eating species protects grass directly as a way to provide cover for themselves while stalking their prey.
B) The grass seeds are dispersed by meat eaters who travel long distances and deposit grass seeds in their feces.
C) The meat-eating species eats organisms that eat grass. Removing the meat-eater allows an increase in the abundance of grass-eating organisms.
D) The loss of meat-eaters from a community typically causes drastic changes in the physical environment that prevent grasses from sprouting.
Q3) Provide an example of primary succession.
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Chapter 21: Ecosystems
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Q1) Energy does not cycle through an ecosystem.This is because energy enters an ecosystem through photosynthesis as it changes to chemical energy.This is then used to fuel metabolic activities in
A) plants only, and all of the excess energy is lost as metabolic heat.
B) consumers only, and all of the excess energy is lost as metabolic heat.
C) decomposers only, and all of the excess energy is lost as metabolic heat.
D) producers, consumers, and decomposers, and all of the excess energy is lost as metabolic heat.
Q2) Which of the following groups of organisms would NOT be considered consumers?
A) herbivores
B) predators
C) decomposers
D) photosynthesizers
Q3) If there are 50 kcal of energy in the tertiary consumer trophic level,how many kcal would be expected in the primary consumer level?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 500
D) 5,000
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