General Biochemistry
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
General Biochemistry provides a foundational understanding of the chemical processes that underlie biological systems. The course covers the structure and function of biomolecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids, and explores key metabolic pathways, enzymatic mechanisms, and the regulation of biochemical reactions. Topics include cellular energetics, signal transduction, and the molecular basis of heredity and gene expression. Through lectures and laboratory experiences, students gain both theoretical knowledge and practical skills in analyzing biochemical phenomena relevant to medicine, biotechnology, and modern life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 1st Canadian Edition by Reginald Garrett
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Chapter 1: The Facts of Life: Chemistry Is the Logic of Biological Phenomena
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Q1) Which of the following describes the integration of viral genetic elements into the host chromosome and subsequent quiescence?
A)cytolytic
B)lysogeny
C)propagational
D)autonomy
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
A)Some have flagella.
B)They have a simple plasma or cell membrane.
C)They possess a distinct nuclear area,but no nucleus.
D)They have mitochondria,but no ribosomes.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following forces primarily maintain membrane structures?
A)hydrophobic interactions
B)covalent bonds
C)hydrogen bonds
D)ionic interactions
Answer: A
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Water: the Medium of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is a feature of micelles?
A)Hydrocarbon tails form hydrophobic interactions with water.
B)Polar ends form hydrophobic interactions with water.
C)Hydrocarbon tails are excluded from the water into hydrophobic domains.
D)Polar ends are hydrophobic,and non-polar ends are hydrophilic.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following pairs would be the best buffer at pH 10.0?
A)acetic acid and sodium acetate (pK<sub>a </sub>= 4.76)
B)H CO3 and NaHCO (pKas are 3.77 and 10.4)
C)lactic acid and sodium lactate (pK<sub>a</sub> = 3.86)
D)NaH PO4 and Na2HPO4 (pK<sub>a</sub>s are 2.1,7.2,12.4)
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following compounds is included in amphiphilic molecules?
A)salts of fatty acids
B)sugars
C)acidic amino acids
D)inorganic salts
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Thermodynamics of Biological Systems
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Q1) At what temperature is entropy,S,exactly zero?
A)0K
B)0°C
C)25K
D)25°C
Answer: A
Q2) Which thermodynamic property of a biochemical process is measured by calorimetry?
A)heat absorbed or given off,?H
B)overall change in ?G°
C)entropy change,?S
D)volume change,?V
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following can ADP accept from higher energy molecules,while ATP can donate to lower energy molecules of metabolism?
A)phosphates
B)reactants
C)products
D)energy
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Q1) Which of the following amino acids has a side-chain pK near neutrality and therefore plays an important role as proton donor and acceptor in many enzyme-catalyzed reactions?
A)histidine
B)cysteine
C)aspartic acid
D)arginine
Q2) Which of the following is an intrinsic property of the commonly occurring 20 amino acids?
A)asymmetrical a-carbon
B)the inability to polymerize
C)polarity
D)non-chirality
Q3) Which of the following amino acids has more than 1 chiral carbon?
A)serine
B)lysine
C)threonine
D)cysteine
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Chapter 5: Proteins: Their Primary Structure and Biological Functions
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Q1) Which of the following products are formed from the acid hydrolysis of a simple amide?
A)aldehyde and alcohol
B)acid and amine
C)ester and alcohol
D)amine and aldehyde
Q2) Which of the following does NOT apply to the amino acid sequence of proteins?
A)It is encoded by the nucleotide sequence of DNA.
B)It is a form of genetic information.
C)It is read from N-terminal end to C-terminal end.
D)It is constant for proteins with the same function from different organisms.
Q3) Which of the following proteases can be used to identify the C-terminal residue of a polypeptide?
A)chymotrypsin
B)carboxypeptidase
C)trypsin
D)elastase
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Secondary, tertiary, and Quaternary Structure
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Q1) Which characteristic is NOT a structural and functional advantage to quaternary structure?
A)cooperativity
B)instability
C)bringing catalytic sites together
D)genetic economy and efficiency
Q2) What type of amino acids can be found on the surface of a protein?
A)only polar
B)only non-polar
C)mostly non-polar
D)both polar and non-polar
Q3) Which non-covalent interaction between tightly packed amino acid side chains in the interior of the protein is a major contributor to protein structure?
A)hydrogen bonding
B)electrostatic interactions
C)covalent ester bonding
D)van der Waals interactions
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Chapter 7: Carbohydrates and the Glycoconjugates of Cell Surfaces
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Q1) Which of the following structures does glucose most commonly form?
A)a pyranose using the hydroxyl group on carbon 4
B)a pyranose using the hydroxyl group on carbon 5
C)a furanose using the hydroxyl group on carbon 3
D)a furanose using the hydroxyl group on carbon 4
Q2) If carbon 1 is the carbonyl group of an aldohexose,which of the following carbons determines if the sugar is a D- or an L-stereoisomer?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
Q3) Which of the following are proteoglycans,a group of macromolecules,formed from?
A)proteases and monosaccharides
B)proteases and glycosaminoglycans
C)proteins and monosaccharides
D)proteins and glycosaminoglycans
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Chapter 8: Lipids
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Q1) Which of the following best characterizes plant sterols?
A)so similar to cholesterol that they undergo the same physiology and metabolism
B)different isomers of cholesterol at the double bond location only
C)to be avoided in your diet because they elevate blood cholesterol levels
D)highly effective in blocking the absorption of cholesterol by intestinal cells
Q2) Which of the following is a correct definition of a lipid?
A)Triacylglycerol is formed from glycerol and 3 fatty acids,and is the primary lipid of membranes.
B)A phospholipid contains glycerol with 2 fatty acids and a phosphate,and very often forms bilayers.
C)Wax contains a fatty acid and alcohol,and is used primarily for energy storage.
D)Palmitic acid is the most commonly produced unsaturated fatty acid in animals.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a terpene?
A)squalene
B) -tocopherol (vitamin E)
C)coenzyme Q (UQ)
D)cetyl palmitate (spermaceti)
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Chapter 9: Lipid Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which components constitute the core of lipoproteins?
A)proteins and triacylglycerols
B)triacylglycerols and cholesterol esters
C)phospholipids and cholesterol esters
D)cholesterol esters and proteins
Q2) Which of these hormones is an intermediate on the biosynthetic pathway from cholesterol to both male and female hormones?
A)aldosterone
B)testosterone
C)estradiol
D)progesterone
Q3) Which of these lipoproteins is NOT correctly defined?
A)chylomicron: transporter of dietary lipids to the liver
B)HDL: scavenger of extrahepatic cholesterol
C)LDL: transporter of cholesterol to extrahepatic tissue
D)VLDL: transporter of triacylglycerols from the liver
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Chapter 10: Membranes and Membrane Transport
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Q1) The system A,for alanine transport into liver,can be activated by alanine and hormones.Which of the following terms defines the transport mechanism of system A?
A)Na+ symport
B)K symport
C)H antiport
D)ATP antiport
Q2) Which of the following properties of lipids allows them to spontaneously form micelles,monolayers,and bilayers?
A)polyisoprenoid nature
B)polar nature
C)amphipathic nature
D)bipolar nature
Q3) Bacteriorhodopsin affects a light-driven outward proton transport that results in a proton gradient.Which of the following processes can sufficiently be driven by this proton gradient?
A)Na+ import
B)ATP synthesis
C)K export
D)light emission
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Chapter 11: The Reception and Transmission of Extracellular Information
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase?
A)sarin
B)malathion
C)cortisol
D)tabun
Q2) Which of the following steroids induces the acrosome reaction involving ion channel-induced release of acrosomal enzymes used by sperm to attack the egg?
A)estrogen
B)testosterone
C)dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
D)progesterone
Q3) Which of the following receptor superfamilies are G proteins associated with?
A)oligomeric ligand-gated ion channels
B)7-transmembrane segment (7-TMS)receptors
C)cell adhesion protein receptors
D)single-transmembrane segment catalytic receptors
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Chapter 12: Enzymes Kinetics and Specificity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding competitive inhibition?
A)For a group-specific enzyme,one substrate would be a competitive inhibitor of reactions of the other possible substrate.
B)Sometimes a product of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is a competitive inhibitor of its own production.
C)Competitive inhibitors usually interact with the enzyme at the binding site for a substrate.
D)In the presence of a competitive inhibitor,the apparent Km would be altered and V<sub>max</sub> would be decreased.
Q2) Against which type of antigen is a catalytic antibody (abzyme)generated?
A)an analog of the transition-state intermediate in the reaction
B)the substrate of the reaction
C)an analog of the product of the reaction
D)an analog of the transition-state intermediate in the reaction.
Q3) How do catalysts work to accelerate a chemical reaction?
A)They raise the average energy of the reactants.
B)They raise the overall free energy change of the reaction
C)They lower the energy of activation.
D)They lower the overall free energy change of the reaction.
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Chapter 13: Mechanisms of Enzyme Action
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Q1) Which of the following values is the estimated approximate lifetime of the transition state?
A)microseconds (10<sup>-6</sup> s)
B)nanoseconds (10<sup>-9</sup> s)
C)(10<sup>-14</sup> to 10<sup>-13</sup> s)
D)(10<sup>-20</sup> s)
Q2) Which of the following inhibitors is effective as a transition-state analog?
A)competitive
B)non-competitive
C)allosteric
D)irreversible
Q3) Which of the following regarding the hydrolysis of p-nitrophenyl acetate by chymotrypsin is correct?
A)The active site contains a serine residue,an unprotonated histidine,and an unprotonated aspartate residue at pH 7.0 prior to binding the substrate.
B)The first product is acetic acid.
C)An actyl-enzyme tetrahedral intermediate forms during the mechanism.
D)Attack of a water molecule on the acyl-enzyme intermediate yields the first product.
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Chapter 14: Enzyme Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following terms describes the regulation of metabolism by activation of the gene encoding a particular enzyme?
A)covalent modification
B)repression
C)induction
D)allosteric activation
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding isozymes is correct?
A)They catalyze the same reaction but have vastly different structures.
B)They are always monomeric proteins.
C)Their differences are based upon the type of metal ions needed for catalysis.
D)They often respond to different inhibitors and activators.
Q3) Why are we are protected to some extent against low level CO poisoning?
A)His F8 on Hb distorts the heme iron atom out of the heme plane and attracts O ,but not CO.
B)Affinity of Hb for O is much greater than for CO.
C)His E7 blocks perpendicular binding of CO to heme iron,allowing for better binding competition by O .
D)The competition of O for heme is much greater than CO for heme.
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Chapter 15: Molecular Motors
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Q1) Which component(s)of the 6 polypeptides that make up the thick filament contain(s)the ATPase activity?
A)LC1
B)LC2
C)myosin heavy chains
D)essential light chains
Q2) Which protein component in the troponin complex shows 70% homology to calmodulin and is involved in Ca² binding?
A)TnT
B)TnC
C)TnI
D)TnA
Q3) Myofibrils are the basic structural unit in the contraction of striated muscle.What is the linear array of cylindrical structures they made of?
A)t-tubules
B)sarcomeres
C)sarcolemmas
D)sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)
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17
Chapter 16: Nutrition and the Organization of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is formed from acetate units to provide metabolic fuel for the brain and other tissue when carbohydrate intake is low?
A)fatty acids
B)ketone bodies
C)amino acids
D)sterols
Q2) The dehydrogenase enzymes facilitate the direct transfer of hydride anion.Which of the following coenzymes is required for this transfer?
A)biotin
B)folic acid
C)NAD
D)lipoic acid
Q3) What of the following arenutritional benefit(s)provided by foods high in fibre?
A)increased speed of digestion
B)stimulation of regular functions of the colon and slowing the rate of absorption of certain foods
C)growth of microorganisms that utilize fibre
D)increased vitamin release from complexes with fibre
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18
Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) Which of the following products is formed when a-D-glucose reacts with ATP?
A) -D-glucose-1-phosphate
B) -D-fructose-1-phosphate
C) -D-glucose-6-phosphate
D) -D-fructose-6-phosphate
Q2) Which of the following enzymes of glycolysis is NOT allosterically regulated?
A)phosphofructokinase-1
B)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
C)hexokinase
D)pyruvate kinase
Q3) Which enzyme is NOT involved in the first 5 steps of glycolysis?
A)phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
B)phosphoglycerate kinase
C)fructose bisphosphate aldolase
D)triose phosphate isomerase (TPI)
Q4) Which of the following is a characteristic of phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)?
A)ATP increases the affinity of the enzyme for fructose-6-phosphate.
B)It is the most important regulatory site in glycolysis.
C)PFK-1 activity is a function of the lipid content of the cell.
D)ATP decreases the K<sub>m</sub> of PFK-1 for fructose-6-phosphate.
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Chapter 18: The Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
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Q1) How many NADH molecules are produced in the TCA cycle per molecule of acetyl-CoA oxidized?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q2) Which of these enzymes catalyzes the only reaction of the citric acid cycle that provides substrate-level phosphorylation?
A)malate dehydrogenase
B)succinyl-CoA synthetase
C)citrate synthase
D)isocitrate dehydrogenase
Q3) Which feature of electron transport is NOT involved in the succinate dehydrogenase reaction mechanism?
A)coenzyme Q (UQ)
B)NADH
C)[FAD]
D)iron-sulfur clusters
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Chapter 19: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Which of the following complexes will be affected if rotenone is added?
A)Complex I
B)Complex II
C)Complex III
D)Complex IV
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of the F unit of ATP synthase?
A)The - and -subunits are not homologous
B)It consists of 6 different kinds of subunits.
C)It catalyzes ATP synthesis but not ATP hydrolysis.
D)The -subunits have catalytic sites for ATP synthesis.
Q3) Which of the following reaction classifications has a standard reduction potential that is positive under standard conditions?
A)restrained
B)structured
C)planned
D)spontaneous
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21
Chapter 20: Photosynthesis
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Q1) In light reactions,which of the following is the reducing agent and the ultimate oxidizing agent respectively?
A)NADP<sup>+</sup> and NADPH
B)ADP and ATP
C)H?O and NADP<sup>+</sup>
D)NADPH and NADP<sup>+</sup>
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a feature of cyclic photophosphorylation?
A)Oxygen is evolved.
B)It utilizes cyt b<sub>6 </sub>of cyt f / cyt b<sub>6</sub> complex.
C)It does not utilize ferredoxin.
D)PS I is involved.
Q3) Many chlorophyll molecules absorb light and direct the energy to the reactive centres.Which of the following describes the term for the transfer of this absorbed energy?
A)fluorescence transfer
B)resonance energy transfer
C)photochemical emission
D)energy transduction
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Chapter 21: Gluconeogenesis, glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) Which enzyme-catalyzed reaction is analogous to the phosphopentose isomerase reaction and mechanism?
A)UDP-glucose epimerase
B)phosphoglycerate isomerase
C)phosphopentose epimerase
D)phosphoglucoisomerase
Q2) Which process occurs when a cell with the pentose phosphate pathway has need for more pentose phosphates,but no additional NADPH?
A)Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is activated.
B)The oxidative and non-oxidative enzymes of the pentose phosphate pathway are active.
C)The non-oxidative enzymes produce pentose phosphates from fructose-6-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
D)All enzymes of glycolysis and pentose phosphate pathway are activated.
Q3) What class of enzymes does transketolase belong to?
A)oxidoreductases
B)isomerases
C)transferases
D)ligases
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Fatty Acid Catabolism
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Q1) Where are ketone bodies synthesized?
A)cytosol of muscle
B)mitochondria of liver
C)endoplasmic reticulum of heart
D)plasma membrane of brain
Q2) Which of the following regarding methylmalonyl-CoA mutase is correct?
A)does hemolytic cleavage of C-C bond
B)is vitamin B -dependent
C)has classic B -enzyme catalyzed rearrangement
D)produces succinyl-CoA
Q3) Which of the following regarding the activation of a fatty acid to an acyl-CoA is correct?
A)It involves the formation of a high-energy thioester linkage.
B)Activation is accompanied by the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and P<sub>i</sub>.
C)An acyl-adenylate intermediate is formed.
D)Hydrolysis of ATP produces AMP and PP<sub>i</sub>,with further hydrolysis of PP<sub>i</sub> to drive the reaction.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Nitrogen Acquisition and Amino Acid
Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following amino acids is classified as an essential amino acid?
A)proline
B)valine
C)glutamine
D)aspartate
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of maple syrup urine disease?
A)non-hereditary enzyme defect
B)decreased levels of Val,Leu,and Ile and their corresponding a-keto acids in blood and urine
C)elevated blood levels of acetoacetate and b-hydroxybutyrate
D)fatal without detection and treatment
Q3) Which of the following molecules is NOT a convergent metabolic intermediate of a-amino acid carbon skeletons?
A)citrate
B) -ketoglutarate
C)oxaloacetate
D)succinyl-CoA
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT correct for enzymes that cleave nucleic acids?
A)They are of the lyase class of enzymes.
B)They are called proteases.
C)They belong to the subclass of acyltransferases.
D)They are found in all cells for "housekeeping."
Q2) Which of the following purine derivatives is NOT found in nucleic acids?
A)guanine
B)adenine
C)xanthine
D)uric acid
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pyrimidines?
A)6-membered ring
B)heterocyclic
C)fused 5-membered rings
D)2 nitrogens separated by a carbonyl
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Chapter 25: Structure of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a DNA intercalating agent?
A)ethidium bromide
B)actinomycin D
C)acridine orange
D)streptomycin
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of DNA gyrase in E.coli?
A)It hydrolyzes GTP during its reaction mechanism.
B)It cuts only one strand of a dsDNA.
C)It is classified as a topoisomerase.
D)It works to induce positive supercoiling in DNA.
Q3) Which of the following features of DNA is analogous to twisting or untwisting a 2-stranded rope so that it is torsionally stressed?
A)b-sheet
B)hairpin turn
C)cloverleaf
D)supercoiling
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Chapter 26: Synthesis and Degradation of Nucleotides
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Q1) Which of the following is characteristic characteristic of xanthine oxidase?
A)present in small amounts in liver,intestinal mucosa,and milk
B)uses H O to produce molecular oxygen
C)possesses an electron-transport chain with FAD,Fe-S cluster,and molybdenum cofactor
D)involved in production of urea
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT correct concerning the regulation of the purine biosynthetic pathway?
A)PRPP competitively inhibits the enzyme Gln:PRPP amidotransferase.
B)ADP and GDP are feedback inhibitors of ribose-5-phosphate pyrophosphokinase.
C)"A" and "C" nucleotides allosterically inhibit glutamine phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate amidotransferase (Gln:PRPP amidotransferase).
D)The rate of IMP formation is dependent on the levels of the adenine and guanine nucleotides produced.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?
A)gouty arthritis due to excessive uric acid degradation
B)severe malfunctions of the nervous system
C)complete deficiency in HGPRT activity
D)congenital,recessive,sex-linked trait manifested only in males
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Recombinant Dna: Cloning and Creation of Chimeric Genes
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT required to perform in vitro cloning to produce a library of eukaryotic genomic DNA?
A)DNA ligase
B)a vector such as a plasmid
C)restriction endonuclease
D)mRNA
Q2) Which procedure looks at all the genes that are activated during a major metabolic shift or during embryogenesis and development of organisms?
A)fractional expression
B)genetic fractionation
C)functional genomics
D)mutagenesis
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of YACs (yeast artificial chromosomes)?
A)can successfully propagate DNA molecules of 2 megabase pairs in length
B)have been transferred into animals
C)must include a centromere
D)must include primers
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Chapter 28: DNA Metabolism: Replication, recombination, and Repair
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Q1) Which of the following carries out removal of RNA primer,followed by replacement with DNA?
A)DNA polymerase I
B)DNA gyrase
C)DNA polymerase III
D)DNA ligase
Q2) Which of the following enzymes seals nicks in dsDNA where a 3'-OH and 5'-phosphate are juxtapositioned?
A)DNA polymerase I
B)DNA gyrase
C)DNA polymerase III
D)DNA ligase
Q3) Which of the following actions does the methyl-directed repair system take when it detects a mismatch in dsDNA?
A)It resynthesizes the newly replicated strand.
B)It corrects the DNA strand that is methylated.
C)It corrects the mismatch by changing the base on the not-yet-methylated strand.
D)It changes the base that is methylated.
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Chapter 29: Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heat shock element (HSE)is a response element found in the promoter region of genes.How is transcription of the HSE activated?
A)in response to cold
B)in response to elevated temperature
C)in response to sunlight
D)in response to darkness
Q2) Which of the following is thought to be generated by transcription chain elongation?
A)positive supercoils behind the transcription bubble
B)positive supercoils in front of the transcription bubble
C)negative supercoils in front of the transcription bubble
D)a relaxed DNA during the transcription process
Q3) Which of the following is a property of the lac repressor?
A)dimeric protein expressed constitutively
B)binding site for PKA
C)blocks elongation so initiation is aborted
D)binding site for mRNA
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Chapter 30: Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The central domain of the 30S ribosomal subunit serves as the decoding centre.What is it composed of?
A)5S rRNA
B)16S rRNA
C)23S rRNA
D)50S rRNA
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the genetic code?
A)Each single amino acid is represented by several codons.
B)Codons are read 5' to 3'.
C)There are 20 total "sense" codons,1 for each amino acid.
D)There are 3 nonsense codons;these are "stop" signals.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the "wobble position"?
A)It is the first base of the codon.
B)A certain amount of play might occur in base pairing at this position.
C)The first-base anticodon U could recognize either an A or G in the wobble position.
D)The first-base anticodon G could recognize either a U or C in the wobble position.
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Chapter 31: Post-Transcriptional Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT stored in P-bodies?
A)CCR4-NOT
B)DCP1/DCP2
C)repressed mRNAs
D)AREs
Q2) Which of the following specifies the order of assembly for some of the EJC proteins with target mRNAs?
A)UPF3;REF;UPF1;UPF2
B)UPF2;UPF1;REF;UPF3
C)REF;UPF3;UPF2;UPF1
D)UPF1;REF;UPF3;UPF2
Q3) Which of the following repeating nucleotide motifs are contained in AREs?
A)UAAAU
B)AUAUA
C)UAUAU
D)AUUUA
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33
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Q1) Which of the following is a highly conserved protein that is involved in protein degradation?
A)Met-aminopeptidase
B)ubiquitin
C)degradase
D)peptidyl transferase
Q2) Which of the following amino acids in a protein targeted for destruction is most commonly the receptor for ubiquitin?
A)Ser
B)Lys
C)Asn
D)Tyr
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of HtrA proteases?
A)chaperones at low temperatures
B)ATP-dependent
C)proteases at low temperatures
D)bind folded proteins
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Metabolic Integration and Organ Specialization
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Q1) The brain prefers to use glucose as fuel.What does it use as it adapts to prolonged fasting or starvation?
A)glucose
B) -hydroxybutyrate
C)fatty acids
D)amino acids
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the liver?
A)production of insulin to regulate metabolism
B)conversion of amino acids into metabolic fuel
C)production of ketone bodies
D)detoxification of poisons and drugs
Q3) Muscle contractions occur when a motor nerve impulse causes Ca² release from specialized compartments.To which regulatory protein does Ca² bind to initiate events that result in sliding of myosin thick filaments along actin thin filaments?
A)myoglobin
B)calmodulin
C)troponin C
D)Na<sup>+</sup>/K ATPase
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