Course Introduction
General Biochemistry Practice Exam
General Biochemistry introduces students to the fundamental chemical processes that underpin all living organisms. The course explores the structure and function of biomolecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids, as well as the principles of enzyme action and metabolic pathways. Emphasis is placed on the molecular mechanisms of biological processes, including energy production, genetic information flow, and signal transduction. Students gain a solid foundation in topics such as bioenergetics, regulation of metabolism, and the application of biochemical techniques in modern biology and medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 7th Edition by Mary K. Campbell
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is not correct about peptide nucleic acids,PNA?
A) They are combinations of peptides and nucleic acids.
B) Scientists create them to study the origins of life
C) They were proven to be the first hereditary molecule.
D) They may combine the catalytic properties of proteins with the information transfer ability of nucleic acid
E) All of these statements apply to PNA.
Answer: C
Q2) The genetic coding material is
A) protein
B) DNA
C) polysaccharide
D) lipid
Answer: B
Q3) A spontaneous reaction is
A) exergonic.
B) endergonic.
C) at equilibrium.
D) none of the above.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Water: The Solvent for Biochemical Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following is true about ionic compounds?
A) They are more likely to dissolve in non-polar solvents than covalent compounds.
B) They always dissolve completely in water.
C) They never dissolve in polar solvents.
D) Some of them dissolve completely in water or other polar solvents, while others do not.
Answer: D
Q2) Which will dissociate most in water,a weak acid or a strong acid?
A) A weak acid.
B) A strong acid
C) They should dissociate about the same.
D) It's impossible to predict.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following characteristics makes for a good hydrogen bond donor?
A) a high electronegativity
B) a nonbonding pair of electrons
C) both of the above
D) neither of the above
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Amino Acids and Peptides
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Q1) Which amino acid is often added to other molecules to increase their water solubility?
A) Ala
B) Asp
C) Gly
D) Pro
E) Trp
Answer: C
Q2) Oxytocin and vasopressin
A) differ from each other by a single amino acid
B) do not contain sulfur
C) are peptide hormones
D) are tripeptides
Answer: C
Q3) The pK<sub>a</sub> values of the side chains of the common amino acids
A) are always at low pH
B) are always at high pH
C) depend on the chemical nature of the side chain
D) are not known
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Q1) Exhibit 4A The following question(s) refer to this peptide: Cys-Ala-Gly-Arg-Gln-Met
Refer to Exhibit 4A.The carboxyl terminal end is:
A) Arg
B) Cys
C) Gln
D) Met
E) None of these.
Q2) In the a-helix
A) there are no hydrogen bonds
B) the peptide chain is fully extended
C) the peptide chain bends back on itself
D) there are hydrogen bonds parallel to the helix axis
Q3) The structure of myoglobin consists
A) almost entirely of a-helices.
B) almost entirely of b-sheets.
C) of a mixture of a-helices and b-sheets.
D) of a unique secondary motif that is neither a-helix nor b-sheet.
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Chapter 5: Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques
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Q1) The following methods are useful for cell homogenization:
A) Sonication.
B) Freezing and thawing.
C) Detergents.
D) Enzymes.
E) All of these are correct.
Q2) Cyanogen bromide (CNBr) cleaves proteins
A) after positively charged residues, such as K & R.
B) after negatively charged residues, such as D & E
C) after aromatic residues, such as Y & W.
D) after methionine residues.
Q3) An amino acid analyzer is an instrument used to determine
A) the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain
B) the identity of N-terminal and C-terminal amino acids in a protein
C) the presence of modified amino acids in a protein
D) the identities and relative amounts of amino acids in a protein
Q4) It is impossible to sequence a protein if you do not have overlapping sequences to work with.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes
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Q1) The active site of an enzyme is the place where the following happens:
A) The enzyme substrate complex forms here.
B) The catalytic reaction happens here.
C) Allosteric regulation of enzyme rate occurs here.
D) The enzyme-substrate complex forms and the reaction occurs at the active site.
E) All of these are correct.
Q2) How much faster is a reaction with the fastest enzyme than without a catalyst?
A) About 10 times faster.
B) About 100 times faster.
C) About 1,000 times faster.
D) About 10,000 times faster.
E) About 10<sup>20</sup> times faster.
Q3) A rate constant is
A) the rate of a reaction at standard temperature and pressure.
B) the rate of a reaction at equilibrium.
C) a proportionality constant relating the rate of a reaction to the concentration(s) of the reactant(s).
D) a kind of transition state.
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8
Chapter 7: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes, Mechanisms, and
Control
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Q1) The active site of chymotrypsin contains all of the following,except:
A) Histidine residue.
B) A magnesium ion.
C) Hydrophobic pocket to bind the substrate.
D) Serine residue.
E) All of these are in the active site of chymotrypsin.
Q2) The vitamin pantothenic acid is involved in this type of reaction:
A) Carboxylation reactions
B) Decarboxylation reactions
C) Redox reactions
D) Acyl transfer reactions
E) Transamination reactions
Q3) Which of the following types of amino acids active is least likely to be involved in enzyme catalysis?
A) Those with hydrophilic, neutral side-chains.
B) Those with negatively charged side-chains.
C) Those with positively charge side-chains.
D) Those with hydrocarbon side-chains.
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Chapter 8: Lipids and Proteins Are Associated in Biological Membranes
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Q1) What kinds of bonds do lipase break in order to release fatty acids from triacylglycerols?
A) esters
B) carbon-carbon single bonds
C) carbon-carbon double bonds
D) There are no fatty acids in triacylglycerols to release.
Q2) Which of the following lipids is not found in biological membranes?
A) triacylglycerols
B) phosphoacylglycerols
C) glycolipids
D) cholesterol
Q3) Facilitated diffusion requires
A) a channel protein through which the transported substance passes without binding
B) a carrier protein to which the transported substance binds
C) a receptor protein
D) expenditure of energy by the cell
Q4) Glycolipids on the surface of cells are especially important as cell markers.
A)True
B)False
10
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acids: How Structure Conveys Information
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Q1) The A and B forms of DNA
A) both have 10 base pairs per turn of the helix
B) both have 11 base pairs per turn of the helix
C) are both left-handed helices
D) are both right-handed helices
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning transfer RNA is true?
A) It has the highest molecular weight of the commonly occurring forms of RNA.
B) It has no internal hydrogen bonding.
C) It bonds to amino acids in the course of protein synthesis.
D) All of these are true.
Q3) The most recent discoveries in RNA research are:
A) mRNA and tRNA
B) MiRNA and SiRNA
C) snRNA and snurps
D) tRNA and MiRNA
Q4) Which contains a phosphoanhydride bond?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) ATP
D) AMP
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Chapter 10: Biosynthesis of Nucleic Acids: Replication
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Q1) Eukaryotes need more types of DNA polymerases than bacteria because
A) the DNA-containing organelles have their own DNA polymerases.
B) they have linear DNA , which is harder to replicate than circular DNA.
C) because they have more kinds of bases in their DNA than the four used by prokaryotes.
D) That's not true; eukaryotes do not have more types of DNA polymerases.
Q2) In order to replicate both strands,E.coli
A) displaces one of the strands and folds it back so both strands face in the same direction, so they can be synthesized at once.
B) synthesizes each strand in the opposite direction (one 5' 3', one 3' 5'), so they can be synthesized at once.
C) only synthesizes one strand at a time.
Q3) Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes use a dimeric DNA Polymerase for DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Telomerase activity in cancer cells may explain their longevity.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Transcription of the Genetic Code: Biosynthesis of Rna
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which category of ribozymes requires an external guanosine frothier action?
A) Group I
B) Group II
C) Both Group I & Group II
D) Neither Group I nor Group II
Q2) Ribozymes
A) are more efficient catalysts than protein-based enzymes.
B) are involved in protein synthesis.
C) always use the same mechanism of catalysis.
D) probably evolved later than protein-based enzymes.
Q3) Transcription in eukaryotes differs from RNA synthesis in prokaryotes
A) by requiring a primer.
B) by simplifying the process with multifunctional enzymes.
C) in using more complex s factors.
D) by having multiple RNA polymerases rather than one.
Q4) Which of the following best describes the order of events at the promoter?
A) open complex closed complex transcription initiation
B) closed complex open complex transcription initiation
C) open complex transcription initiation closed complex
D) transcription initiation open complex closed complex
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Chapter 12: Protein Synthesis: Translation of the Genetic Message
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Q1) There is no codon for the amino acid hydroxyproline,but this amino acid is a prominent feature of collagen structure.Which of the following is a likely explanation?
A) Hydroxyproline is substituted for proline after translation by a cut and patch mechanism.
B) Proline is covalently modified to give hydroxyproline after translation.
C) There is an alternative mechanism for synthesis of proteins that contain hydroxyproline.
D) It is not possible to form a hypothesis from the information given.
Q2) N-formyl methionine
A)can be found attached to every protein in E.coli.
B)can be found attached to some proteins in E.coli.
C)is never found on proteins in E.coli.
Q3) Protein synthesis in prokaryotes always starts with
A) a methionine residue
B) a formylmethionine residue
C) a cysteine residue
D) no specific residue
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Nucleic Acid Biotechnology Techniques
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Q1) The RFLP technique
A) is of most use with prokaryotic DNA
B) is of no use on DNA that contains introns
C) is used on the DNA of organisms that have two sets of chromosomes
D) provides fewer genetic markers than classical genetic techniques
Q2) The following blotting procedure is named for the scientist who invented it:
A) Eastern.
B) Northern.
C) Southern.
D) Western.
E) More than one of these methods is named for the scientist who invented it.
Q3) One major obstacle to using bacteria to produce human proteins is bacteria do not have the cellular apparatus to splice introns out of mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The polymerase chain reaction requires
A) primers complementary to the ends of the sequence to be amplified
B) careful temperature control
C) both of these
D) neither of these
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Chapter 14: Viruses, Cancer, and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dendritic cells
A) secrete cytokines, recruiting other cells to destroy microbes.
B) display antigens associated with MHC proteins.
C) produce antibodies.
D) bind to antigens, which leads to their proliferation.
Q2) The ability of cancer cells to travel to other parts of the body and produce new tumors is called
A) immortality.
B) oncogenesis.
C) metastasis.
D) suppression.
Q3) Clonal selection is the ability of the immune system to control the proliferation of antigen-specific cells,since it has a mechanism to recognize which cells interact with that antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antibodies are the most variable protein sequences in the human body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Importance of Energy Changes and Electron
Transfer in Metabolism
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Q1) The efficiency of aerobic metabolism is greater than that of anaerobic metabolism even though much more energy is released in aerobic than in anaerobic metabolism because
A) aerobic metabolism is linked to oxygen, which is a more powerful oxidizing agent than those in anaerobic metabolism
B) aerobic metabolism produces carbon dioxide and water
C) aerobic metabolism traps much more energy in the form of ATP than does anaerobic metabolism
D) anaerobic metabolism produces two- and three-carbon compounds
Q2) Which best describes the DG for hydrolysis of creatine phosphate under cellular conditions in which the concentration of creatine phosphate,creatine,and phosphate all equal 1 mM at 25°C.The DG° for the hydrolysis of creatine phosphate at 25°C is -43 kJ/mol.
A) DG < -43 kJ/mol
B) DG = -43 kJ/mol
C) -43 kJ/mol < DG £ 0 kJ/mol
D) DG > 0 kJ/mol
Q3) Spontaneous reaction always occurs at a relatively fast rate.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning sugar polymers is false?
A) Branched polymers have one non-reducing end and many reducing ends.
B) Linear polymers are more water-soluble than branched ones.
C) Branched polymers are more water-soluble than linear ones.
D) Sugar polymers may vary both in the composition of the sugar monomers and in the types of connecting glycosidic bonds.
Q2) Glycoproteins
A) are involved in the metabolism of sugars
B) are proteins to which sugars are covalently bonded
C) occur in the bloodstream of diabetics
D) have not been found in nature, but have been synthesized in the laboratory
Q3) In bacterial cell walls
A) polysaccharides form nonspecific mixtures with proteins
B) polysaccharides are hydrogen bonded together
C) peptides form crosslinks between polysaccharides
D) oligosaccharides form crosslinks between proteins
Q4) Glycogen breakdown proceeds from the nonreducing ends.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) Which of the following is not true?
A) Corn is the only source of biofuels
B) Biofuels are related to glycolysis because fermentation is an end process of anaerobic glycolysis
C) Corn, wood, animal dung, and many other products can produce biofuels
D) Many carbohydrate sources can produce ethanol
Q2) What is the net ATP yield per glucose during glycolysis?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 6
Q3) The reactions where glucose is converted to glucose 6-phosphate and fructose 6-phosphate is converted to fructose 1,5-bisphosphate are examples of:
A) exergonic reactions
B) priming reactions
C) phosphorylation reactions
D) kinase reactions
E) all of these
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Chapter 18: Storage Mechanisms and Control in Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) If you're running away from a bear,
A) both your liver cells and my leg muscle cells will be running glycolysis.
B) both your liver cells and my leg muscle cells will be running gluconeogenesis.
C) your liver cells will be running gluconeogenesis and your leg muscle cells will be running glycolysis.
D) your liver cells will be running glycolysis and your leg muscle cells will be running gluconeogenesis.
Q2) Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of
A) glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors
B) glycogen from glucose
C) pyruvate from glucose
D) fatty acids from glucose
Q3) Glycolysis that starts with glycogen instead of glucose can be considered to have a higher energy yield because:
A) Phosphorolysis reactions cleave bonds with phosphate instead of water.
B) Phosphorylase is a better enzyme than hexokinase
C) Phosphorylase produces a glucose phosphate without spending an ATP to do it
D) All of these
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Chapter 19: The Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following describes a use for acetyl-CoA as an important intermediate in metabolism?
A) Breakdown to CO<sub>2</sub> and water, yielding much energy.
B) Synthesis of terpenes and steroids.
C) Synthesis of oxaloacetate in plants.
D) Synthesis of fatty acids.
E) All of these are reasons why acetyl-CoA is a central molecule in metabolism.
Q2) Glyoxysomes are named for the fact that they contain the glyoxylate pathway. A)True
B)False
Q3) The citric acid cycle is the only metabolic pathway that can be used both as an anabolic and as a catabolic pathway.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Release of succinate from succinyl-CoA can be coupled to GTP synthesis because:
A) The amide bond between succinate and CoA has a large -DG of hydrolysis.
B) The thioester bond between succinate and CoA has a large -DG of hydrolysis.
C) The link between succinate and CoA involves an acid anhydride to phosphate.
D) Coenzyme A is a "high energy" compound, just like GTP.
E) None of these explains why GTP can be formed during this reaction.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Which of the following is true?
A) Uncoupling agents can work by disrupting the flow of protons during ATP synthesis.
B) Uncoupling agents prevent the flow of electrons during electron transport
C) Uncoupling agents always block the flow of protons through the ATPase
D) none of these is true
Q2) Another name for Complex III in the mitochondria is
A) Cytochrome C oxidase.
B) NADH-CoQ reductase.
C) succinate-CoQ reductase.
D) Cytochrome A oxidase.
E) Cytochrome bc<sub>1</sub> complex.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the process of oxidative phosphorylation?
A) protons flow into the mitochondrial matrix through ion channels in the ATP synthase
B) the F<sub>0</sub> part of the ATP synthase serves as a proton channel
C) the F<sub>1</sub> part of the ATP synthase is the site of ATP formation
D) iron-sulfur proteins bind to the ATP synthase
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Chapter 21: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) The conversion of methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl-CoA involves which of these cofactors?
A) thiamine pyrophosphate
B) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
C) NAD
D) biotin
Q2) "Ketone bodies" are formed when
A) oxaloacetate is converted to acetoacetyl-CoA.
B) there is a deficiency of acetyl-CoA.
C) there is not enough oxaloacetate to react with available acetyl-CoA.
D) an organism consumes excessive amounts of carbohydrate compared to its lipid intake.
Q3) Which of the following is not a product of the activation of fatty acids?
A) A thioester
B) ADP
C) Pyrophosphate
D) Phosphate
E) All of these are products of the activation of a fatty acid.
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Chapter 22: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Light energy absorbed in chloroplasts is used in the light phase for all of these reactions,except:
A) To reduce water.
B) To make ATP.
C) To generate NADPH.
D) To reduce water and to generate oxygen, O<sub>2</sub>.
E) All of these occur during the light phase.
Q2) The terminal electron acceptor during the light phase of photosynthesis in green plants is
A) Hydrogen (H<sub>2</sub> H<sub>2</sub>O).
B) NAD<sup>+</sup> ( NADH).
C) NADP<sup>+</sup> ( NADPH).
D) Oxygen (O<sub>2</sub> H<sub>2</sub>O).
E) Sulfur ( H<sub>2</sub>S).
Q3) Accessory pigments
A) transfer electrons to reaction center chlorophylls.
B) transfer energy to reaction center chlorophylls.
C) transfer electrons from reaction center chlorophylls to phaeophytins.
D) transfer electrons from reaction center chlorophylls to ferredoxin.
E) All of these statements are true.
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Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Nitrogen
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Q1) Humans produce these as the major nitrogen waste products.
A) Ammonia.
B) Urea.
C) Uric Acid.
D) Both Urea and Uric Acid.
E) All three of these are used to dispose of nitrogen wastes by humans.
Q2) Which of the following compounds does not serve as an intermediate for the entry of amino acid carbon chains into the major metabolic pathways?
A) Alpha-ketoglutarate.
B) Pyruvate.
C) Glyceraldehyde.
D) Acetyl CoA.
E) All of these are entry points for amino acid catabolism.
Q3) The initial,common intermediate in purine catabolism for both AMP and GMP is
A) xanthine
B) hypoxanthine
C) inosine
D) uric acid
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Chapter 24: Integration of Metabolism: Cellular Signaling
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Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of catabolic pathways?
A) ATP is generated by catabolism
B) reducing equivalents are most often released in the form of hydrogen atoms
C) NAD<sup>+</sup> is one of the major electron carriers in catabolic reactions
D) NADH produced in catabolic reactions is reoxidized to NAD<sup>+</sup> in the mitochondria
Q2) For which of the following is there no RDA (recommended daily allowance)?
A) calcium
B) fluoride
C) iodine
D) iron
Q3) Regulatory cascades have what advantage over direct action by the signal molecule?
A) Amplification.
B) Fine tuning of regulatory effects.
C) Coordinated response among multiple systems.
D) All of these
Q4) Low levels of iodide in the diet can lead to an enlarged thyroid.
A)True
B)False
26
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