General Biochemistry Final Exam
Course Introduction
General Biochemistry is an introductory course that explores the fundamental chemical principles underlying biological systems. The course covers the structure and function of biomolecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids, as well as the mechanisms of enzymatic activity and regulation. Key topics include metabolism and energy production, biochemical signaling, and the molecular basis of genetic information flow. Through lectures, laboratory work, and problem-solving exercises, students gain a deep understanding of the chemical processes essential for life and the experimental techniques used to study them. This foundational knowledge prepares students for advanced studies in biological, medical, and chemical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 7th Edition by Mary K. Campbell
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Chapter 1: Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells
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Q1) How do the molecules that play a role in living cells compare to those encountered in organic chemistry?
A) They are the same, just operating in a different context.
B) Biological molecules are organic molecules, but the similarity ends there.
C) Biological molecules aren't similar to organic molecules at all.
D) Biology isn't based on molecules at all, but a "vital force".
Answer: A
Q2) The following cellular component is the defining component of most plant cells:
A) Nucleus
B) Ribosomes
C) Chloroplasts
D) Mitochondria
E) Cell walls
Answer: C
Q3) According to thermodynamics,favored processes are
A) ones that require energy.
B) ones that release energy.
C) oxidations.
D) reductions.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Water: The Solvent for Biochemical Reactions
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Q1) Hydrogen bonds
A) play an important role in the solvent properties of water
B) are not involved in protein structure
C) play a role in the properties of DNA, but not of RNA
D) give water a lower boiling point than expected
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following molecules will not form hydrogen bonds?
A) CH<sub>4</sub>
B) NH<sub>3</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>O
D) HF
Answer: A
Q3) The pOH a solution of 0.04 M HCl is:
A) 1.4
B) 10
C) 12.6
D) 13.6
E) The pOH cannot be determined
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Amino Acids and Peptides
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Q1) Which group consists only of amino acids with basic side chains?
A) leucine and lysine
B) arginine and leucine
C) lysine and arginine
D) arginine and isoleucine
Answer: C
Q2) Which amino acid would have the greatest negative charge at pH = 7.0?
A) Glutamic Acid
B) Histidine
C) Isoleucine
D) Serine
E) Tyrosine
Answer: A
Q3) Which group consists only of amino acids with carboxylate side chains?
A) glutamate and cysteine
B) aspartate and glycine
C) glutamate and lysine
D) aspartate and glutamate
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Q1) Two amino acids frequently found in reverse turns are
A) tyrosine and tryptophan
B) serine and threonine
C) glycine and proline
D) leucine and isoleucine
Q2) A single amino substitution can give rise to a malfunctioning protein.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following best describes what happens when hemoglobin binds bisphosphoglyceric acid (BPG)?
A) Binding of BPG leads to tighter binding of oxygen.
B) Binding of BPG allows maternal (adult) Hb to bind oxygen more tightly than fetal Hb.
C) Binding of BPG causes oxygen to dissociate from Hb.
D) Binding of BPG causes the subunits of hemoglobin to separate.
Q4) Proteins that aid in the correct and timely folding of other proteins are called A) motifs.
B) chaperones.
C) liposomes.
D) cooperative.
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Chapter 5: Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques
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Q1) Which would be best to separate a protein that binds strongly to its substrate?
A) Gel filtration
B) Affinity chromatography
C) Cation exchange
D) Anion exchange
E) Cation or anion exchange
Q2) How many bands would be produced when hemoglobin is subjected to SDS-PAGE?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 2, but only if the size of the pores in the gel would allow two proteins of slightly different size to be separated
Q3) Using differential centrifugation it is possible to separate
A) nuclei, mitochondria, and ribosomes into three separate fractions
B) organelles from contaminating salts
C) proteins that differ in charge
D) proteins from membranes
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Chapter 6: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes
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Q1) The substrate-enzyme (E-S) complex
A) always proceeds to form the products rapidly.
B) always breaks down to form free enzyme and substrate.
C) always breaks down to form free enzyme and product.
D) may break down to form free enzyme and substrate, or free enzyme and product.
Q2) If an inhibitor changes the slope of the Lineweaver-Burk graph,but not the y-intercept,it is this type of inhibition:
A) Competitive.
B) Non-competitive.
C) Mixed Inhibition (uncompetitive inhibition).
D) You cannot tell from the data given.
E) More than one answer is correct.
Q3) What effect is seen on a Lineweaver-Burk graph when a competitive inhibitor is added?
A) The y-intercept is changed, but not change the slope of the line.
B) The slope of the line is changed, but not the y-intercept.
C) Both the y-intercept and the slope of the line are changed.
D) Neither the y-intercept not the slope of the line is changed.
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Chapter 7: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes, Mechanisms, and Control
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Q1) Where do allosteric inhibitors bind on an enzyme?
A) They always bind at a site different from the active site.
B) They always bind at the active site.
C) They can bind at either active site or another site.
Q2) Inhibitors which bind covalently to specific amino acids are useful in determining which amino acids are in the active site of an enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the concerted model the binding of the first substrate molecule will achieve all except
A) facilitation of the binding of other substrate molecules.
B) facilitation of the conversion of other subunits to the active state.
C) facilitation of the binding of inhibitors to the enzyme.
D) All of these are facilitated by the binding of the first substrate molecule.
E) None of these answers is correct.
Q4) Which of the following can function as coenzymes?
A) lead ion, biotin, and lipoic acid.
B) copper ion, p-hydroxymercuribenzoate, diisopropylphophofluoridate.
C) zinc ion, pyridoxal phosphate, and nicotinamide adenine nucleotides.
D) lead ion, p-hydroxymercuribenzoate, diisopropylphophofluoridate.
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Chapter 8: Lipids and Proteins Are Associated in Biological Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the sodium-potassium pump
A) sodium is transported out of the cell and potassium into the cell, both against concentration gradients
B) sodium is transported into the cell and potassium out of the cell, both against concentration gradients
C) sodium is transported out of the cell and potassium into the cell, both in the same direction as concentration gradients
D) sodium and potassium are both transported out of the cell against concentration gradients
Q2) Which of the following groups is not present in a phosphatidic acid?
A) Choline
B) Fatty acids
C) Glycerol
D) Phosphate
E) All of these are components of phosphatidic acid.
Q3) The HDL class of lipoprotein is generally believed to be preventative of heart disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acids: How Structure Conveys
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics is associated with the B form of DNA?
A) the sugars are located in the interior of the double helix
B) the distance between base pairs along the axis of the helix is 8 Å
C) the major and minor grooves are readily apparent
D) the planes of the bases make about a 20 degree angle with the helix axis
Q2) The fundamental differences between RNA and DNA are
A) the organic bases only
B) bases, ribose units, and the phosphodiester linkage
C) bases, ribose units, and the glycosidic bond type
D) bases and the ribose units only
Q3) Where can drugs or polypeptides bind to DNA?
A) The minor groove only.
B) The major groove only.
C) Either the minor or major groove.
D) Neither the minor or major groove.
Q4) Eukaryotic mRNA requires
A) less processing after synthesis than prokaryotic mRNA.
B) more processing after synthesis than prokaryotic mRNA.
C) about the same amount of processing after synthesis as prokaryotic mRNA.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Biosynthesis of Nucleic Acids: Replication
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Q1) The following enzyme is responsible for the bulk of DNA synthesis during replication.
A) DNA Polymerase I
B) DNA Polymerase II
C) DNA Polymerase III
D) DNA Polymerases IV
E) All four can make lots of DNA rapidly.
Q2) DNA polymerase III from E.coli
A) is a large, multisubunit protein
B) has a sliding clamp portion that anchors it to DNA
C) has a polymerization site separate from the DNA binding site
D) all of these
Q3) Since DNA Polymerase II has endonuclease activity,it is able to proofread its product when it is used in DNA repair.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Telomerase activity in cancer cells may explain their longevity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Transcription of the Genetic Code: Biosynthesis of Rna
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Q1) Which ends of prokaryotic mRNA are protected from degradation?
A) 5' end only
B) 3' end only
C) Both ends
D) Neither end
E) The RNA is circular and has no ends.
Q2) Inducers allow for a system in which an enzyme is not made unless it is needed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a common modification occurring after polymerization of RNA?
A) Methylation of bases.
B) Addition of phosphate to the bases.
C) Removal of bases from the polymer.
D) Addition of bases to the polymer.
E) All of these changes are common.
Q4) Post-transcription processing of mRNA in prokaryotes is required.
A)True
B)False
13
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Chapter 12: Protein Synthesis: Translation of the Genetic Message
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Q1) HIF-1 is related to which process?
A) How we adapt to high altitude
B) Pain tolerance
C) Transcription attenuation
D) all of these
Q2) Which of the following is not true?
A) A single activating enzyme can interact with all the tRNAs for its corresponding amino acid
B) The selectivity of the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases for their tRNA molecules is often called the second genetic code
C) There are two major classes of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
D) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases link amino acids to tRNA molecules without the need for an energy source
Q3) The initial step in the formation of an aminoacyl-tRNA is
A) esterification of the tRNA
B) activation of the amino acid by reaction with ATP
C) activation of the tRNA by reaction with ATP
D) interaction of the mRNA with the tRNA
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Chapter 13: Nucleic Acid Biotechnology Techniques
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Q1) Which of the following plants have been genetically modified?
A) Soy beans
B) Corn.
C) Cotton
D) Tomatoes
E) All of these plants have been genetically modified.
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning restriction endonucleases is true?
A) They attack RNA, not DNA.
B) They can produce "sticky ends".
C) They attack single-stranded sequences only.
D) They do not display sequence specificity in their site of attack.
Q3) The use of the Bt gene is prohibited in corn plants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A gene from Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is used to make plants resistant against all insects which might feed on the plant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Viruses, Cancer, and Immunology
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Q1) An epitope is
A) a disease-causing organism.
B) a binding site for an antigen on an antibody.
C) a class of plasma cell.
D) a protein secreted by T cells to activate the growth of other cells.
Q2) Antibodies are the most variable protein sequences in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following cell types engulf invaders and display portions of their proteins to other cells?
A) NK cells
B) dendritic cells
C) T cells
D) B cells
Q4) Viruses can be genetically engineered to specifically target cancer cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Antibodies have two binding sites to react with antigens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Importance of Energy Changes and Electron
Transfer in Metabolism
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Q1) The conversion of NAD<sup>+</sup> to NADH is an example of reduction because
A) the pyridine ring loses electrons (and a hydrogen)
B) the pyridine ring gains electrons (and a hydrogen)
C) the adenine ring loses electrons
D) the adenine ring gains electrons
Q2) Consider this rxn which has a DG° = +0.4 kJ/mol. A + B « C + D
1 M A,1 M B,0.1 M C and 0.1 M D are added to a container at room temperature.Which of the following statements is true?
A) DG < 0 (i.e., it's negative)
B) DG = 0
C) DG > 0 (i.e., it's positive)
D) Cannot be determined from the information provided.
Q3) The linking of an exergonic reaction to drive an endergonic reaction is called:
A) coupling
B) a state function
C) resonance
D) catabolsim
Q4) Spontaneous reaction always occurs at a relatively fast rate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Cell walls
A) occur in plants, animals, and bacteria
B) are found in plants and bacteria, but have different chemical compositions
C) have the same chemical composition in plants and bacteria
D) have the same chemical composition in plants and animals
Q2) The simplest aldotriose is:
A) acetone
B) dihydroxyacetone
C) glyceraldehyde
D) threose
Q3) Lactose intolerance
A) arises from inability to metabolize the disaccharide lactose
B) depends on a deficiency of sucrose in the diet
C) is based on the composition of lactose, consisting glucose and fructose in glycosidic linkage
D) arises because lactose is a dimer of galactose
Q4) Plant starch includes amylopectin and cellulose
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) How many enzymes of glycolysis are control points for the pathway?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) All the enzymes serve as control points.
Q2) The fate of pyruvate produced during glycolysis depends primarily on the availability of
A) NAD<sup>+</sup> to keep the pathway going.
B) molecular oxygen.
C) ADP for conversion to ATP.
D) coenzyme A for further metabolism of pyruvate.
E) phosphoric acid for the synthesis of ATP.
Q3) If glycolysis did not lead to the production of ATP,the overall process would
A) release less energy
B) release more energy
C) absorb energy
D) not take place in aerobic organisms
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Chapter 18: Storage Mechanisms and Control in Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is not a control mechanism for glycogen phosphorylase?
A) Covalent modification.
B) Inhibition by glucose.
C) Subunit association and dissociation.
D) Allosteric stimulation by AMP.
E) All of these mechanisms regulate the activity of glycogen synthase.
Q2) The formation and breakdown of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
A) is catalyzed by the same protein dependant upon whether it is phosphorylated or not. B) is catalyzed by the same protein dependant allosteric regulators.
C) is catalyzed by different proteins.
Q3) Control of the entry of glucose or fructose into the oxidative portions of the pentose phosphate pathway is mostly dependent on a cell's need for NADPH,rather than on the cell's need for pentoses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Generally speaking,the same mechanisms that activate glycogen phosphorylase will turn off glycogen synthase.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: The Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which of the reactions of the citric acid cycle requires FAD as a coenzyme?
A) the conversion of isocitrate to a-ketoglutarate
B) the conversion of citrate to isocitrate
C) the conversion of succinate to fumarate
D) the conversion of malate to oxaloacetate
Q2) In the classical equation for respiration: Glucose + 6O<sub>2</sub> --> 6CO<sub>2</sub> + 6H<sub>2</sub>O,the following molecules are found directly in the citric acid cycle:
A) O<sub>2 </sub>
B) Glucose and O<sub>2</sub>
C) CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O
D) all of these arae found directly in the citric acid cycle
Q3) Which enzymes in the citric acid cycle catalyze oxidative decarboxylation reactions?
A) isocitrate dehydrogenase and the a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
B) aconitase and succinate dehydrogenase
C) the a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex and succinate thiokinase
D) fumarase and succinate dehydrogenase
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Chapter 20: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Another name for Complex III in the mitochondria is
A) Cytochrome C oxidase.
B) NADH-CoQ reductase.
C) succinate-CoQ reductase.
D) Cytochrome A oxidase.
E) Cytochrome bc<sub>1</sub> complex.
Q2) A characteristic of the glycerol phosphate shuttle is
A) it shuttles NADH across the mitochondrial membrane to yield 5 ATP/NADH
B) it shuttles the electrons from NADH across the mitochondrial membrane to FADH<sub>2</sub>, yielding 5 ATP/NADH
C) it only operates efficiently at high levels of NADH
D) malate is a key component in the shuttle process
Q3) Reduction potentials (E°) are measured by reading a voltmeter,which measures the electron flow between two reaction chambers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pH of the mitochondrial matrix is ____ the pH of the intermembrane space. A) higher than B) lower than C) the same as
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Chapter 21: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) The acyl carrier used in fatty acid synthesis is similar to coenzyme A.
A. True
B. False
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many NAD<sup>+</sup> are reduced in the degradation of palmitoyl-CoA to form eight molecules of acetyl-CoA?
A) 1
B) 7
C) 8
D) 14
E) 16
Q3) During fatty acid synthesis,the growing fatty acid is always bound to a protein.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What effect do high concentrations of ketone bodies have on blood pH?
A) They tend to lower blood pH.
B) They tend to increase blood pH.
C) They have no effect on blood pH.
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Chapter 22: Photosynthesis
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Q1) A specialized pair of chlorophylls exists at A) the antenna complexes.
B) the accessory pigments.
C) the reaction centers.
D) the stroma.
Q2) Presence of oxygen can poison the reaction of Rubisco,due to an alternate reaction in which the ribulose 1,5 bisphosphate is oxidized,rather than reacting with CO<sub>2</sub>
A)True
B)False
Q3) For the net synthesis of one six-carbon sugar from CO<sub>2</sub> in photosynthesis there is a requirement for
A) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH.
B) 18 ATP and 18 NADPH.
C) 12 ATP and 18 NADPH.
D) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH.
Q4) The nuclear gene for Rubisco codes for the catalytic subunit,while the regulatory gene is found in the chloroplast.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Nitrogen
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Q1) Cancer treatments which disrupt the function of folic acid have significant side effects,since this therapy also affects the growth of such rapidly dividing tissues as all of the following,except:
A) Skin cells.
B) Red and white blood cells.
C) Nerve tissue.
D) Sperm.
E) All of these cell types are affected by this therapy.
Q2) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome involves a genetic error in the pyrimidine salvage pathways.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not associated with purine synthesis?
A) Synthesis of the base while ribose is attached.
B) Stimulation of ATP synthesis by GTP and of GTP synthesis by ATP
C) An Inosine intermediate.
D) Inhibition by pyrimidines.
E) All of these are features of purine synthesis.
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Chapter 24: Integration of Metabolism: Cellular Signaling
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Q1) Which of the following fats are linked with high cholesterol and heart disease?
A) saturated fats
B) monounsaturated fats
C) polyunsaturated fats
D) all fats, regardless of saturation
Q2) Which of the following best describes protein kinases?
A) Protein kinases act by transferring a phosphate from a protein to ADP to make ATP.
B) Protein kinases act by transfering a phosphate from a donor molecule, like ATP, to a protein molecule, thereby changing its activity
C) Protein kinases phosphorylate enzymes and activate them
D) Protein kinases phosphorylate key tyrosine residues on receptors
Q3) Chronic high carbohydrate diets can result in over-release of insulin,which actually causes hypoglycemia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Many hormones come in pairs,which have opposing metabolic activity.
A)True
B)False
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