Course Introduction
General Biochemistry Exam Practice Tests
General Biochemistry explores the chemical principles underlying biological systems, focusing on the structure and function of biomolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, and carbohydrates. The course examines fundamental metabolic pathways, enzyme kinetics, and the regulation of metabolic processes, integrating concepts from organic and physical chemistry to explain cellular processes. Emphasis is placed on understanding how molecular interactions drive cellular functions and maintain life, laying the groundwork for more advanced studies in molecular biology, genetics, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 1st Edition by Roger L. Miesfeld
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Principles of Biochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What structural feature of DNA is attributed to the fact that the two DNA strands are antiparallel?
A) DNA is a left-handed helix.
B) DNA has the phosphate groups on the interior.
C) DNA is a right-handed helix.
D) DNA forms a pleated sheet.
Answer: C
Q2) What process replicates DNA to make more DNA?
A) DNA transcription
B) DNA replication
C) DNA translation
D) RNA transcription
Answer: B
Q3) The process of fermentation uses sugar to produce which molecules?
A) alcohol and carbon monoxide
B) alcohol and carbon dioxide
C) acid and carbon monoxide
D) acid and carbon dioxide
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Physical Biochemistry: Energy
Conversion,water,and Membranes
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Q1) Energy conversion in a biological system operates under constant __________ and constant __________.
A) heat; pressure
B) work; heat
C) pressure; volume
D) volume; heat
Answer: C
Q2) What chemical process is able to take place in the presence of solar energy?
A) anaerobic respiration
B) photosynthesis
C) hydrogenation
D) hydrolysis
Answer: B
Q3) Osmosis occurs when water diffuses through a
A) semipermeable membrane from high water to low water concentration.
B) nonpermeable membrane from high water to low water concentration.
C) semipermeable membrane from low water to high water concentration.
D) semipermeable membrane from high solute to low solute concentration.
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Nucleic Acid Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increasing the ion concentration increases the T<sub>m</sub> because the ions
A) bind to the phosphate groups of the DNA backbone and increase stability.
B) bind to the nucleic acids and disrupt the base pairs, decreasing stability.
C) increase the base length of the DNA, increasing stability.
D) associate with the ribose sugars, decreasing stability.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following expresses the relationship among the linking number,twist,and writhe?
A) Tw = Lk + Wr
B) Lk = Tw - Wr
C) Lk = Wr - Tw
D) Lk = Tw + Wr
Answer: D
Q3) Individual nucleotide changes to the genome cause a polymorphism called A) short tandem repeats.
B) variable number tandem repeats.
C) long tandem repeats.
D) single nucleotide polymorphism.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Protein Structure
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the chamber-type chaperone protein GroEL-GroES is correct?
A) GroEL-GroES requires the hydrolysis of multiple ATPs to assist in the folding of a protein.
B) GroEL-GroES recycles misfolded proteins by recovering individual amino acids.
C) GroEL-GroES assists in protein unfolding by hydrolyzing and remaking the protein peptide bonds.
D) GroEL-GroES uses GroEL as a cap, trapping an unfolded protein in the GroES chamber.
Q2) Draw the resonance structures that stabilize the peptide bonds found in proteins.
Q3) Collagen is an important structural protein in biological systems.It is formed by a repeating unit containing glycine,proline,and 4-hydroxyproline (4HyP).The synthesis of 4HyP from proline requires vitamin C.Draw the structure of 4HyP.
Q4) Draw the reaction by which a protein disulfide bond forms.
Q5) After analyzing all the structures of proteins found in the Protein Data Bank,scientists have found that four general classes of protein structures exist,based on their secondary structure themes.Name the four classes of general protein structures.
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Chapter 5: Methods in Protein Biochemistry
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Q1) What is the advantage of using monoclonal antibodies compared with polyclonal antibodies?
A) They are less labor intensive to generate.
B) They can recognize more than one epitope.
C) The process used to produce the antibodies provides unlimited supplies.
D) They can be generated without using animals.
Q2) What is the advantage of using polyclonal antibodies compared with monoclonal antibodies?
A) They are less labor intensive to generate.
B) They provide the ability to monitor quality continually.
C) The process used to produce the antibodies provides unlimited supplies.
D) They can be generated without using animals.
Q3) Why is the supply of polyclonal antibodies limited?
A) They are time consuming to produce.
B) The yield is very low.
C) The animals the antibodies are isolated from eventually die.
D) The production is limited by the government.
Q4) Compare and contrast the three MOST commonly used homogenization techniques to prepare a cell extract.
Q5) Explain the difference between polyclonal and monoclonal antibodies.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Protein Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The estrogen receptor is an example of a
A) metabolic enzyme.
B) transport protein.
C) genomic caretaker protein.
D) cell signaling protein.
Q2) Gramicidin A is involved in the __________ transport of __________ charged ions.
A) active; positively
B) active; negatively
C) passive; positively
D) passive; negatively
Q3) An E.coli strain is discovered that has a mutation in the gene encoding RecBCD.The mutation causes RecBCD to not function as effectively as the wild-type RecBCD.Hypothesize how the growth rate of this strain would compare with that of the wild type.
Q4) The E.coli maltoporin protein is a homotrimeric porin complex.A related protein is found in another bacterial species that does not form trimers but rather functions as a monomer.A comparison of the amino acid composition of a maltoporin subunit and the new porin showed similar ratios of hydrophobic/hydrophilic amino acids for the two proteins.Explain how this can be the case.
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Q5) Explain how a mutation in Asp351 of SERCA might alter Ca<sup>2+</sup> transport.
Chapter 7: Enzyme Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of reaction does not change the molecular formula of the product compared with that of the substrate?
A) condensation
B) reduction
C) hydrolysis
D) isomerization
Q2) Which answer correctly classifies the compound with its relationship to aspartate transcarbamoylase?
A) ATP; allosteric inhibitor
B) ATP; allosteric activator
C) CTP; allosteric activator
D) CTP; substrate
Q3) In a reversible covalent modification reaction involving the phosphorylation of a target protein,which of the following amino acids is LEAST likely to be modified with a phosphate group?
A) Ser
B) Phe
C) Tyr
D) Thr
Q4) What three amino acids are targeted for phosphorylation by kinases?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Cell Signaling Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define the main characteristics of a signal transduction pathway and give a specific example of such a pathway.
Q2) Which of the following list includes ONLY first messengers?
A) cortisol, insulin, prostaglandins
B) nitric oxide, estradiol, heme
C) insulin, glucagon, glucose
D) Ca<sup>2+</sup>, testosterone, protein kinase A
Q3) A response element is
A) any protein whose expression is changed in response to a signal.
B) a sequence of regulatory DNA.
C) a domain of the glucocorticoid receptor that binds DNA.
D) a sequence of DNA coding for a steroid or metabolite receptor.
Q4) Some breast cancers express estrogen receptors and are estrogen dependent.Tamoxifen is a chemotherapy agent used in the treatment of estrogen-responsive breast cancers.What is tamoxifen in relation to the estrogen receptor and why does it have this effect?
Q5) A liver cell is exposed to glucagon and epinephrine and glucose export is monitored.On addition of an adenylate cyclase inhibitor,the level of glucose export is reduced but not eliminated.Propose a reason for this partial reduction.
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Chapter 9: Glycolysis: a Paradigm of Metabolic Regulation
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Q1) During glycolysis,the steps between glucose and formation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
A) consume 2 ATP and 2 NADH.
B) consume 2 ATP.
C) produce 2 ADP and 2 NADH.
D) produce 2 ATP and 2 NADH.
Q2) Which enzyme is the main regulator of glycolysis?
A) hexokinase
B) PFK-1
C) pyruvate kinase
D) aldolase
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a reason why glycolysis is considered one of the core metabolic pathways in nature?
A) Glycolytic enzymes are hugely conserved among all living organisms.
B) It is a primary pathway for ATP generation under anaerobic conditions.
C) Metabolites of glycolysis are precursors for a large number of interdependent pathways.
D) It is a primary pathway for nitrogen generation.
Q4) Benedict's test is a redox reaction between glucose and copper.Draw the reaction between glucose and copper.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Citrate Cycle
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Q1) Coenzyme A is derived from which of the following vitamins?
A) thiamine
B) pantothenic acid
C) riboflavin
D) niacin
Q2) Compare and contrast the anaplerotic nature of the pyruvate carboxylase reaction and the phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase reaction.
Q3) Corn-rich diets in Europe in the 1700s resulted in the disease pellagra.Though Mexico also had a corn-rich diet at the time,this disease was rare there.Propose a reason for this observation.
Q4) An in vitro study shows that isocitrate dehydrogenase is activated in the citrate cycle.What is a possible explanation for the activation?
A) high levels of ATP
B) low levels of ATP
C) high levels of NADH
D) low levels of AMP
Q5) Predict the fate of acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate when the citrate cycle is inhibited.
Q6) Compare the two roles of lipoic acid in the pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction.
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Chapter 11: Oxidative Phosphorylation
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Q1) The drug oligomycin inhibits ATP synthase by preventing protons from flowing through the enzyme.Oligomycin must bind to the __________ of ATP synthase.
A) catalytic headpiece
B) F<sub>1</sub> subunit
C) ATP binding site
D) F<sub>0</sub> subunit of
Q2) Why are 2,4-dintrophenol and thermogenin referred to as uncouplers?
Q3) Which is NOT involved in the transfer of reducing equivalents from succinate to molecular oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)?
A) cytochrome c
B) coenzyme Q
C) complex I
D) complex II
Q4) Mitochondria
A) selectively transport molecules from the cytoplasm to the intermembrane space.
B) maintain a pH gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
C) are found one per cell.
D) have a matrix that is continuous with the cytoplasm.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Photosynthesis
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Q1) What is a reason for keeping photosystem I (PSI)and photosystem II (PSII)separate in the chloroplasts?
A) They are involved in different pathways and not involved with each other.
B) They would quench each other by energy transfer.
C) They have different sunlight exposure requirements.
D) They have different ATP consumption requirements.
Q2) The Biosphere 2 project,in Tucson,Arizona,was an experiment involving a large sealed terrarium with humans and photosynthetic plants living in balance.Why did the project have to be interrupted after only a few months?
A) Levels of CO<sub>2</sub> rose to dangerous levels.
B) The humans ran out of food.
C) The plants stopped producing oxygen.
D) The rate of photosynthesis was too high.
Q3) Under what condition(s)do the wasteful side reaction of O<sub>2</sub> with rubisco become significant?
A) higher levels of CO<sub>2</sub> than O<sub>2</sub>
B) at night
C) increased temperature and intense light
D) increased rubisco concentrations
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Chapter 13: Carbohydrate Structure and Function
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Q1) Which glycan is a major component of plant cell walls?
A) cellulose
B) chitin
C) starch
D) glycogen
Q2) Which glucose homopolymer would be used if a person had to sprint quickly?
A) sucrose
B) galactose
C) starch
D) glycogen
Q3) One of the functions of polysaccharides includes
A) enzymatically removing glycans through hydrolysis reactions.
B) functioning as a structural component in invertebrate exoskeletons.
C) acting as metabolic intermediates in energy conversion pathways.
D) enzymatically linking glycans to proteins and lipids.
Q4) Compare the two basic types of arrays developed for glycobiology research.
Q5) The growth rate of pigs and chickens is often decreased when they eat raffinose-series oligosaccharides that are present in soybean-based feeds.Propose a method where pigs and chickens can still eat the soybean-based feeds but also grow at the same rate.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following molecules would inhibit the regulated steps in gluconeogenesis?
A) ATP
B) ADP
C) pyruvate
D) NADH
Q2) What is the cellular role of glutathione in red blood cells?
Q3) The Cori cycle
A) transports pyruvate from working muscles to the liver, where it is converted back to glucose.
B) is important in organisms respiring aerobically.
C) involves the conversion of muscle pyruvate to alanine followed by transport to the liver.
D) relies on functioning lactate dehydrogenase in both muscle and liver tissues.
Q4) The hormone insulin stimulates __________ and inhibits __________,leading to a(n)__________ in the glucose levels.
A) glycogen synthase; glycogen phosphorylase; decrease
B) glycogen phosphorylase; glycogen synthase; decrease
C) glycogen synthase; glycogen phosphorylase; increase
D) glycogen phosphorylase; glycogen synthase; increase
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Lipid Structure and Function
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Q1) VLDLs are produced in
A) liver cells.
B) intestinal epithelial cells.
C) stomach cells.
D) adipocytes.
Q2) Lipid rafts are thought to be discrete membrane regions that contain high concentrations of
A) phosphatidylinositol.
B) gangliosides.
C) phosphatidylcholine.
D) cholesterol.
Q3) Summarize the conversion of 7-hydroxycholestrol into 1,25-hydroxyvitamin D.
Q4) Inhibition of the COX-1 enzyme results in A) reduced pain and fever.
B) reduced mucin secretion.
C) increased risk of heart disease.
D) increased platelet aggregation.
Q5) Compare and contrast chylomicrons and VLDLs.
Q6) Define lipid rafts and explain their function.
Q7) Describe the two ways triacylglycerols have been used to improve daily life.
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Chapter 16: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) How many acetyl-CoAs per ketone body are delivered to cells in need of energy?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) By what process are LDL particles removed selectively from the blood serum?
A) through targeted digestion by serum lipases
B) by receptor-mediated endocytosis
C) They are replenished with triacylglycerols and never removed.
D) They form atherosclerotic plaques.
Q3) What is the name of the enzyme that adds another carbon atom to propionyl-CoA in the degradation of odd-chain fatty acids?
Q4) What is the key enzyme involved in priming fatty acids for degradation?
A) acetyl-CoA carboxylase
B) fatty acyl-CoA synthetase
C) carnitine acyltransferase I
D) fatty acyl hydrolase
Q5) Describe the role that AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)plays in the regulation of fatty acid synthesis.
Page 18
Q6) List the five classes of lipoproteins and briefly state the body origin of each.
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Chapter 17: Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) In the production of urea,the carbon atom comes from A) water.
B) carbamoyl phosphate.
C) aspartate.
D) the citrate cycle.
Q2) When amino acids from dietary proteins enter a cell,how are they able to enter the urea cycle?
A) through conversion to glutamine
B) through conversion to aspartate
C) by degrading down to ammonia
D) by getting phosphorylated
Q3) Summarize the role of the glycine in the biosynthesis of heme,tyrosine for epinephrine and pheomelanins,and arginine for nitric oxide.
Q4) Which of the following is the key regulated enzyme in urea synthesis?
A) carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
B) glutamate dehydrogenase
C) arginase
D) argininosuccinase
Q5) Summarize the synthesis of the catecholamines.
Q6) What is the difference between nitrogen fixation and nitrogen assimilation?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) A mutation in the gene encoding which of the following enzymes would affect the synthesis of both AMP and GMP?
A) adenylosuccinate synthetase
B) PRPP synthetase
C) IMP dehydrogenase
D) GMP synthase
Q2) Which of the following is a benefit of nucleotide salvage pathways compared with de novo synthesis?
A) increased variety of nucleotides produced
B) increased half-life of mRNA
C) reduced energy expenditure
D) decreased regulation of nucleotide homeostasis
Q3) Propose a pathway by which AMP could be converted to hypoxanthine in a cell if there is a mutation that inactivated the enzyme AMP deaminase.
Q4) The carbon atoms of a purine originate from glycine and A) <sup>N</sup>10-formyl-THF.
B) aspartate.
C) glycinamide.
D) glutamate.
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Chapter 19: Metabolic Integration
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Q1) The numerical value of a food that indicates how quickly glucose is released into the blood is called the
A) calorie.
B) GRP (glucose-release point).
C) set point.
D) glycemic index.
Q2) Propose an experimental design using identical twins that would support the thrifty gene hypothesis.
Q3) Leptin is a
A) mutated form of insulin.
B) hormone receptor expressed in adipocytes.
C) adipocyte peptide hormone.
D) recessive gene that causes obesity.
Q4) Analysis of enzyme activity in both liver and muscle cells on insulin exposure would show an increase in the activity of which of the following?
A) glucokinase
B) protein phosphatase 2A
C) glycogen phosphorylase
D) pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
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Chapter 20: Dna Replication, repair, and Recombination
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Q1) Contrast missense mutations,nonsense mutations,and silent mutations.
Q2) The two key elements of the oriC include
A) three 13-bp repeats and four 9-bp repeats with enriched G-C base pairs.
B) three 13-bp repeats and four 9-bp repeats with enriched A-T pairs.
C) 20 subunits of A-T pairs.
D) the RNA primer.
Q3) How does reverse transcriptase convert RNA to DNA?
Q4) DNA photolyase specifically seeks out what kind of DNA damage?
A) base mismatch
B) abasic sites
C) pyrimidine dimers
D) phosphorylated base
Q5) An HIV infection begins with what first step?
A) fusion of the cell membrane and viral envelope
B) release of viral DNA and synthesis of cDNA
C) protein synthesis and processing
D) budding of infectious virus
Q6) Explain the trombone model of DNA synthesis.
Q7) How is an individual with Lynch syndrome at higher risk for cancer?
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Q8) What is the difference between a transposon move and a retrotransposon move?
Chapter 21: Rna Synthesis, processing, and Gene Silencing
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Q1) Describe the composition and processing of the C-terminal domain (CTD)of eukaryotic RNA polymerase II,as well as its role in transcription.
Q2) The roles of U1,U2,U4,U5,and U6 in the spliceosome complex are to
A) bind mRNA and facilitate the splicing reaction.
B) bind the small nuclear RNA.
C) carry the products from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
D) bind proteins and hold the complex together.
Q3) Long noncoding RNAs (lncRNAs)are found on
A) exons of protein-coding genes.
B) introns of protein-coding genes.
C) non-functional rRNA.
D) protein-coding mRNA.
Q4) The spliceosome
A) is a cis-acting ribozyme.
B) resembles group II introns in its mechanism and product.
C) performs the same function in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
D) is a protein enzyme.
Q5) Why must tRNA contain base modifications?
Q6) List the classes and types of noncoding RNAs that are found typically in eukaryotic organisms.
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Chapter 22: Protein Synthesis, posttranslational
Modification, and Transport
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Q1) At any time during nuclear import and export,Ran can be found associated with all EXCEPT
A) GTP.
B) exportin.
C) GMP.
D) importin.
Q2) Contrast the discrimination at the active site and at the editing site of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases,so that combined they ensure that tRNAs are charged with the correct amino acid.
Q3) Differentiate between type I and type II aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases in how they interact with the tRNA and acceptor stem.
Q4) Nirenberg and Matthaei determined the genetic code experimentally by using a cell-free translation system.Two components,however,were restricted in their system.One was the use of a single type of mRNA.What was the other component that was restricted? How did this restriction allow them to determine the genetic code?
Q5) Contrast both the structure and function of a prokaryotic initiator tRNA with a prokaryotic Met-tRNA<sup>Met</sup>.
Page 24
Q6) Explain what is meant by the statement,"The genetic code is universal."
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Chapter 23: Gene Regulation
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Q1) Compare and contrast the structures of the lac repressor protein and CRP.
Q2) What is a result of histone acetylation?
A) repression of transcription
B) increased transcriptional activity
C) no effect
D) remodeling of histone
Q3) List the chain of events that occurs after a pioneer factor binds to a cis-acting sequence.
Q4) Which of the following best describes when a pattern of gene expression is altered without change in the DNA sequence?
A) epigenetic states
B) negative autoregulation
C) positive autoregulation
D) meiosis
Q5) The eve stripe 2 enhancer can be defined as multiple __________ sites for at least four __________.
A) trans-binding; transcription factor proteins
B) cis-binding; transcription factor proteins
C) cis-binding; insulator genes
D) cis-binding; gene promoters
25
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