General Biochemistry Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
General Biochemistry provides an in-depth exploration of the chemical processes and substances that occur within living organisms. This course covers the structure and function of biological macromolecules such as proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids, as well as the principles of enzyme action, metabolism, and bioenergetics. Students will gain an understanding of the molecular mechanisms underlying vital biochemical pathways and how these processes are regulated within cells. Emphasis is placed on the applications of biochemistry in health, disease, and biotechnology, preparing students for advanced study or careers in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 1st Canadian Edition by Reginald Garrett
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Chapter 1: The Facts of Life: Chemistry Is the Logic of Biological Phenomena
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Q1) The structural integrity of supramolecular complexes (assemblies)of multiple components is a result of bonding to each other.Which of the following is responsible for such bonding?
A)covalent bonds
B)hydrogen bonds
C)hydrophobic interactions
D)ionic interactions
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
A)Some have flagella.
B)They have a simple plasma or cell membrane.
C)They possess a distinct nuclear area,but no nucleus.
D)They have mitochondria,but no ribosomes.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following regarding the nature of the hydrogen bond is correct?
A)The donor is a hydrogen atom bonded to a carbon.
B)The more linear the bond,the stronger the interaction.
C)The acceptor must be similar in electronegativity to hydrogen.
D)A hydrogen bond is weaker than van der Waals forces.
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Water: the Medium of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following weak acids would make the best buffer at pH = 5.0?
A)acetic acid (K<sub>a </sub>= 1.74 × 10-5,pK<sub>a </sub>= 4.76)
B)bicarbonate (K<sub>a</sub> = 6.3 × 10-11,pK<sub>a</sub> = 10.24)
C)tris-hydroxymethyl aminomethane (K<sub>a</sub> = 8.32 × 10-9,pK<sub>a</sub> = 8.07)
D)lactic acid (K<sub>a</sub> = 1.38 × 10-4,pK<sub>a</sub> = 3.86)
Answer: A
Q2) A plasma pH of 6.8 does not seem too far away from a normal pH of 7.4.How many times greater is the H concentration at pH 6.8 compared to pH 7.4?
A)0.1
B)0.6
C)4
D)10
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is NOT soluble in water?
A)salts
B)sugars
C)aldehydes
D)hydrocarbons
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Thermodynamics of Biological Systems
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Q1) By which factor do equilibrium constants change for reactions coupled to ATP hydrolysis?
A)10<sup>2</sup>
B)10<sup>4</sup>
C)10<sup>6</sup>
D)10<sup>8</sup>
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following best describes living systems?
A)They are closed systems exchanging only energy with the surroundings.
B)They are isolated systems that are totally contained.
C)They are open systems exchanging only energy with the surroundings.
D)They are open systems exchanging both energy and matter with their surroundings.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an open system?
A)a chemical reaction taking place in a closed beaker
B)a steam radiator
C)an insulated bomb reactor
D)a pot of boiling water
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Q1) Of the following four amino acids which one absorbs light most strongly between 250 and 300 nm?
A)histidine
B)phenylalanine
C)tryptophan
D)tyrosine
Q2) Which of the following amino acids has more than 1 chiral carbon?
A)serine
B)lysine
C)threonine
D)cysteine
Q3) Which of the following amino acids most likely to be present if the pI of a peptide is 4.6?
A)glutamic acid
B)histidine
C)arginine
D)cysteine
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Chapter 5: Proteins: Their Primary Structure and Biological
Functions
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Q1) Which of the following protein terms describes collagen?
A)regulatory
B)transport
C)storage
D)structural
Q2) Which of the following techniques involves using a strongly acidic,polystyrene resin,chromatography column?
A)gas-liquid chromatography
B)ion exchange chromatography
C)partition chromatography
D)liquid-liquid partition chromatography
Q3) Which of the following is a feature of membrane proteins?
A)They have membrane-associated amino acids with polar side chains.
B)They are much more soluble in detergents than in water.
C)They have hydrophobic amino acids that are oriented inward.
D)They have a globular structure.
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Secondary, tertiary, and Quaternary Structure
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Q1) Which combination of atoms forms the resonance structure within the "amide plane"?
A)C<sub> </sub>H-NH-CO-C-C<sub> </sub>H
B)C<sub> </sub>H-NH-CO
C)C<sub> </sub>-NH-CO-C<sub> </sub>
D)NH-CO-C<sub> </sub>
Q2) What type of polypeptide chains produces long fibres or large sheets in fibrous proteins?
A)those with an abundance of aromatic amino acids
B)those with an abundance of hydrophilic amino acids
C)those organized approximately parallel along a single axis
D)those with amino acids arranged in a repeating (-a-b-c-d-)<sub>n</sub> sequence
Q3) Which molecule is an example of an antiparallel -helix protein?
A)pyruvate kinase
B)flavodoxin
C)hemoglobin
D)papain
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Carbohydrates and the Glycoconjugates of Cell Surfaces
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Q1) Which of the following are important components of the vitreous humour of the eye and of synovial fluid that lubricates the joints?
A)heparins
B)hyaluronates
C)chondroitins
D)keratin sulfates
Q2) Which of the following dissaccharides represents trehalose,blood sugar in hemolymph of insects?
A)Glc Glc
B)Glc 4Glc
C)Gal 4Glc
D)Glc 4Glc
Q3) Neither -amylase nor -amylase can cleave the (1 6)glycosidic bonds of amylopectin.Which of the following enzymes is required to completely hydrolyze starch?
A) (1 6)-glucosidase
B)glycogen phosphorylase
C)maltase
D)sucrase
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Chapter 8: Lipids
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Q1) Which of the following is a feature of terpenes?
A)components of wool wax
B)made up of isoprene dimers
C)formed from 2 or more 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene molecules
D)trimer units linked head to tail
Q2) Which of the following steroid hormones participate in the control of carbohydrate,protein,and lipid metabolism?
A)progestins
B)androgens
C)estrogens
D)glucocorticoids
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a terpene?
A)squalene
B) -tocopherol (vitamin E)
C)coenzyme Q (UQ)
D)cetyl palmitate (spermaceti)
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Chapter 9: Lipid Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which of these enzymes catalyzes the committed step in cholesterol biosynthesis?
A)HMG-CoA synthase
B)mevalonate kinase
C)HMG-CoA reductase
D)squalene monooxygenase
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a feature of fatty acid elongation?
A)addition of acetyl-CoAs
B)uses both NADH and NADPH
C)requires ATP and biotin
D)uses CoA rather than ACP
Q3) Which enzyme catalyzes the formation of acetoacetyl-ACP?
A) -ketoacyl-ACP synthase (KSase)
B)acetyl-CoA carboxylase
C)acetyl transacylase
D) -ketoacyl reductase
Q4) Which compound is NOT synthesized from CDP-diacylglycerol precursors?
A)phosphatidylethanolamine
B)phosphatidylglycerol
C)cardiolipin
D)phosphatidylinositol
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Membranes and Membrane Transport
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Q1) Which of the following variables influences transport by mobile carriers and pores (or channels)?
A)pH
B)ionic strength
C)proton gradient
D)temperature
Q2) Which of the following would be the most likely interaction between a membrane and a peripheral membrane protein that contained high lysine content?
A)ionic interaction
B)hydrophobic interaction
C)hydrogen bonding
D)covalent bonding
Q3) Which of the following mechanisms associates the Ras proteins to the membrane?
A)thioester-linked fatty acyl anchor
B)thioether-linked prenyl anchor
C)carboxy-terminal ester-linked prenyl anchor
D)insertion of a portion of an amphipathic helix into the membrane
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Chapter 11: The Reception and Transmission of Extracellular Information
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Q1) Which of the following does the amount of cAMP generated in the cytoplasm depend upon?
A)the amount of PKA present
B)the activity of phospholipase C
C)the amount of ATP
D)the length of time the GTP remains bound to the Ga protein
Q2) Which of the following occurs when voltage-gated Na channels have just closed in a neuron?
A)The membrane becomes less polarized than when at rest.
B)The membrane becomes more polarized than when at rest.
C)The membrane becomes polarized to the same degree as when at rest.
D)The membrane becomes hyperpolarized.
Q3) Which of the following actions of nitroglycerine occurs when NO is released?
A)antioxidant
B)vasoconstrictor
C)vasodilator
D)muscle tensor
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Enzymes Kinetics and Specificity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding non-competitive inhibition?
A)Non-competitive inhibitors interact with the enzyme as well as the enzyme-substrate complex.
B)Increasing the concentration of [S] can overcome the inhibition.
C)The V<sub>max</sub> value does not remain the same as for a reaction that is not inhibited.
D)The inhibitor can cause a conformational change in the enzyme.
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of uncompetitive inhibition?
A)I combines only with ES.
B)I combines only with E.
C)I combines with E and ES.
D)I combines with EP.
Q3) Against which type of antigen is a catalytic antibody (abzyme)generated?
A)an analog of the transition-state intermediate in the reaction
B)the substrate of the reaction
C)an analog of the product of the reaction
D)an analog of the transition-state intermediate in the reaction.
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Chapter 13: Mechanisms of Enzyme Action
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Q1) Which of the following amino acid side chains is often involved in general acid-base catalysis because its pK is near 7?
A)cysteine
B)aspartate
C)histidine
D)lysine
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of metal ion catalysis?
A)increased acidity of a nucleophile with an ionizable proton
B)metal ion requirement to maintain the stable,native state of the enzyme
C)strongly metal binding,perhaps not only during the catalytic cycle
D)electrophilic catalysis,stabilizing the increased electron density or negative charge that can develop during a reaction
Q3) The catalytic triad common to many serine proteases involves shuttling of protons between the amino acids in the catalytic triad.Which of the following amino acid sequences is in the correct order for this process?
A)Ser-His-Asp
B)His-Ser-Asp
C)Ser-His-His
D)Asp-His-Ser
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Enzyme Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following is a feature of an enzyme that displays negative cooperativity?
A)Enzyme activity is increased when [S] >>> than the value of K<sub>0</sub>.<sub>5</sub>.
B)Enzyme activity is increased when [S] <<< than the value of K<sub>0</sub>.<sub>5</sub>.
C)Enzyme activity is decreased when [S] <<< than the value of K<sub>0</sub>.<sub>5</sub>.
D)Enzyme activity is unchanged when [S] >>> than the value of K<sub>0.5</sub>
Q2) Which of the following amino acid residues of the PDH complex is the target of phosphorylation?
A)serine of E<sub>1</sub>
B)tyrosine of E<sub>1</sub>
C)serine of E<sub>2</sub>
D)tyrosine of E<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of allosteric enzymes?
A)Effectors may show stimulatory or inhibitory activity.
B)They have multiple subunits.
C)They obey Michaelis-Menten kinetics.
D)Binding of 1 subunit impacts binding of substrate to other subunits.
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Chapter 15: Molecular Motors
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of microtubules?
A)They are made up of 2 repeating subunits.
B)They grow at one end and are degraded at the other end.
C)They are static,helical structures.
D)They are hollow,cylindrical structures.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT occur during kinesin movement along a microtubule?
A)Leading head binds a new site on tubulin,with ADP dissociation.
B)The kinesin head with ADP is bound to tubulin,and the kinesin head with ATP is ready to move ahead.
C)Conformational changes in the neck linkers flip the trailing head to the next tubulin binding site.
D)ADP and Pi dissociate and ATP binds leading head.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the bands observed by electron microscopy of myofibrils?
A)I bands show a hexagonal array of thick filaments.
B)Thin filaments are composed mainly of actin,troponin,and tropomyosin.
C)H zones contain an array of thick filaments that are composed mainly of myosin.
D)Thick filaments are joined by cross-bridges.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nutrition and the Organization of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic difference between FAD and NAD ?
A)NAD is a stronger oxidizing agent than FAD.
B)NAD is reoxidized easily by molecular oxygen,while FAD is not.
C)NAD binds tightly to its enzyme,while FAD only binds loosely.
D)NAD transfers 2 electrons,while FAD can transfer 1 or 2.
Q2) Which of the following 2 energy-rich primary products are generated from the transformation of light energy into chemical energy in phototrophs?
A)ATP and NAD
B)NADPH and ATP
C)NADH and NADPH
D)ATP and NADH
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of anabolism?
A)formation of new covalent bonds
B)breakdown of complex molecules
C)formation of ATP
D)acceptance of electron by NADPH
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) Which of the of the following covalent modifications does cAMP-dependent protein kinase carry out on pyruvate kinase?
A)carboxylation
B)phosphorolysis
C)phosphorylation
D)decarboxylation
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an allosteric regulator of phosphofructokinase-1?
A)glucose-6-phosphate
B)ATP
C)AMP
D)?-D-fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
Q3) Which of the following is the first intermediate of glycolysis with free energy of hydrolysis more negative than that of ATP?
A)glucose-6-phosphate
B)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
C)dihydroxyacetone phosphate
D)1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
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Chapter 18: The Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which alcohol group of isocitrate is oxidizable?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Q2) Which enzyme carries out a reaction of the citric acid cycle with the largest negative G value?
A)citrate synthase
B)succinyl-CoA synthetase
C)succinyl-CoA dehydrogenase
D)malate dehydrogenase
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of succinyl-CoA synthetase?
A)Succinyl-CoA can be used to drive phosphorylation of GDP or ADP.
B)The enzyme is named for the forward reaction.
C)It provides an example of substrate-level phosphorylation.
D)Succinyl-phosphate is an intermediate in the reaction catalyzed by succinyl-CoA synthetase.
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Chapter 19: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the glycerophosphate shuttle?
A)It shuttles NADH across the mitochondrial membrane to yield 2.5 ATP/ADH.
B)It shuttles "NADH electron equivalents" across the mitochondrial membrane to yield 1.5 ATP/NADH.
C)It operates efficiently only when the [NADH] in the cytoplasm is higher than in the matrix.
D)The molecule malate is a key component in the shuttle process.
Q2) Which of the following is a property of uncouplers?
A)They enhance the proton gradient.
B)Electron transport continues.
C)ATP/ADP ratio increases.
D)Water is produced.
Q3) Which of the following is another term used to define Complex II in the electron-transport chain?
A)cytochrome c oxidase
B)NADH-CoQ reductase
C)succinate-CoQ reductase
D)cytochrome b<sub>c1 </sub>complex
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT involved with the function of the photosynthetic unit ?
A)antenna chlorophyll
B)the reactive centre
C)oxidation of chlorophyll to a cationic free radical,Chl.+
D)the cationic free radical is the Mg² ion
Q2) Which of the following products is generated when light energy is transduced into chemical energy during photosynthesis?
A)CO
B)hexose
C)acetyl CoA
D)NADP+
Q3) Light-dependent electron flow with the production of ATP can occur without the formation of NADPH.Which of the following photosystems is involved in this cyclic photophosphorylation?
A)P700
B)photosystem II
C)P680
D)ferredoxin
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Chapter 21: Gluconeogenesis, glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) Which of these effectors is required for glycogen synthase activity when the enzyme is phosphorylated?
A)glucose-1-phosphate
B)glucose-6-phosphate
C)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
D)fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
Q2) Which of the following results can a blood test for "glycated hemoglobin" determine?
A)present blood glucose concentration
B)average glucose concentration in the blood over the past several months
C)level of AGEs in the blood stream
D)blood glucose concentration over the past month
Q3) Where is glucose from UDP-glucose transferred to so that the initiation of glycogen synthesis occurs?
A)to the tyrosine-OH group of glycogenin
B)to the 4-position of free glucose
C)to the 2-position of fructose
D)to the serine-OH group of glycogen synthase
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Fatty Acid Catabolism
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Q1) Absorbed lipids are condensed with glycerol in the epithelial cells to make triacylglycerols.Which of the following lipid particles are they repackaged into,and then transported by the lymphatic system?
A)VLDLs
B)HDLs
C)LDLs
D)chylomicrons
Q2) Which of the following steps is NOT a part of the sequence of events for activation of the release of fatty acids from adipose cells?
A)triacylglycerol lipase inactivation
B)adenylyl cyclase activation
C)cAMP production
D)hormone binding to the receptor
Q3) Which of the following regarding methylmalonyl-CoA mutase is correct?
A)does hemolytic cleavage of C-C bond
B)is vitamin B -dependent
C)has classic B -enzyme catalyzed rearrangement
D)produces succinyl-CoA
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Chapter 23: Nitrogen Acquisition and Amino Acid
Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following amino acids are referred to as the ketogenic amino acids?
A)those that are precursors for glucose synthesis
B)those degraded to yield acetyl-CoA or acetoacetate
C)those that cannot be converted to fatty acids or ketone bodies
D)those degraded to yield succinyl-CoA,pyruvate,a-ketoglutarate,fumarate,and oxaloacetate
Q2) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction below?
Glutamate + NAD(P) + H O NH + -ketoglutarate + NAD(P)H + H
A)nitrogenase
B)carbamoyl-phosphate synthetase (CPS-I)
C)glutamine synthetase (GS)
D)glutamate dehydrogenase (GDH)
Q3) Which of the following reactions are denitrifying bacteria NOT capable of?
A)reducing NO - to N
B)using NO - as an electron acceptor in their energy-producing pathways
C)oxidizing NH to NO -
D)reducing the combined-nitrogen levels
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids
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Q1) What is the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is complementary to 5'-ATCGCAACTGTCACTA-3'?
A)5'-TAGCGTTGACAGTGAT-3'
B)5'-UAGUGACAGUUGCGAU-3'
C)5'-TAGTGACAGTTGCGAT-3'
D)5'-ATCACTGTCAACGCTA-3'
Q2) Which of these compounds is a 6-membered heterocyclic aromatic ring?
A)pyrimidine
B)purine
C)anose
D)ribonucleotide
Q3) Which -OH group in ribonucleotides makes the 3'-phosphodiester bond susceptible to nucleophilic cleavage during alkaline hydrolysis?
A)1'-OH
B)2'-OH
C)3'-OH
D)4'-OH
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Chapter 25: Structure of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a property of nucleosomes?
A)protein spools neatly wrapped with DNA
B)fundamental structural unit in chromatin
C)protein spools made up of single histones H2A,H2B,H3,and H4 octameric aggregates
D)DNA binding of histones by ionic bonds of positively charged amino acids and the negatively charged phosphate groups
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a secondary structure component of tRNA?
A)acceptor stem
B) -turn l
C)anticodon loop
D)TYC loop
Q3) The UV absorption decrease associated with ssDNAs reannealing can be plotted on a c t curve.Which of the following does this graph indicate?
A)that more complex DNAs take longer to renature
B)that more double-stranded RNAs take longer to renature
C)that more simple DNAs take longer to renature
D)that more single-stranded RNAs take longer to renature
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Chapter 26: Synthesis and Degradation of Nucleotides
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of metabolic channelling?
A)It does not allow for substrate dilution into the milieu or the accumulation of intermediates.
B)It allows the product of one reaction to be available for a reaction later in another pathway.
C)It allows the diffusion of substrates.
D)It allows a more diverse interaction of substrates,intermediates,and enzymes.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a substrate of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II (CPS-II)?
A)H O
B)NH
C)HCO -
D)glutamine
Q3) Which of the following is a result of high ATP levels with respect to the regulation of ribonucleotide reductase?
A)an increase in the concentration of dADP
B)decreased dTTP concentration
C)oxidation of UDP and CDP to dUDP and dCDP
D)a rise in dGTP levels
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Recombinant Dna: Cloning and Creation of Chimeric Genes
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of YACs (yeast artificial chromosomes)?
A)can successfully propagate DNA molecules of 2 megabase pairs in length
B)have been transferred into animals
C)must include a centromere
D)must include primers
Q2) Which in vitro process makes it possible to systematically alter the nucleotide sequence of a cloned gene?
A)protein synthesis
B)mRNA synthesis
C)hybridization
D)mutagenesis
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a step in the sequence for construction of a chimeric plasmid?
A)annealing the ends of the vector and foreign DNA
B)cutting the source of the foreign DNA with a restriction endonuclease
C)reannealing the ends of the vector back together
D)cutting the vector plasmid with the same restriction endonuclease
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Chapter 28: DNA Metabolism: Replication, recombination, and Repair
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of E.coli DNA polymerase I?
A)a 5'?3' exonuclease activity
B)a 3'?5' DNA polymerase activity
C)modest processivity (approximately 20 nucleotides)
D)does not require a primer for initiation
Q2) Which of the following actions does the methyl-directed repair system take when it detects a mismatch in dsDNA?
A)It resynthesizes the newly replicated strand.
B)It corrects the DNA strand that is methylated.
C)It corrects the mismatch by changing the base on the not-yet-methylated strand.
D)It changes the base that is methylated.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a step in mammalian nucleotide excision repair?
A)Lesions are recognized by XPA protein.
B)Sugar-phosphate backbone is cut in 1 place.
C)The resulting gap is filled in by DNA polymerases.
D)DNA backbone is closed with DNA ligase.
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Chapter 29: Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following may NOT be a constituent of RNA polymerase II promoters?
A)the core element where general transcription factors bind
B)the site where enhancers bind transcriptional activators
C)the site where silencers bind inducers
D)a TATA box indicating the transcription start site
Q2) In order for transcription to begin,the DNA-duplex must be "opened" to allow RNA polymerase access to single-stranded template.Which of the following facilitates "opening" of DNA-duplex?
A)high melting temperature,Tm,in the Pribnow box
B)G:C-rich DNA duplex
C)binding of RNA polymerase s-subuni
D)positive supercoiling
Q3) Which of the following DNA-binding motifs common to many prokaryotic regulatory proteins is the lac repressor an example of?
A)a homeobox
B)a zinc finger
C)a basic region-leucine finger
D)a helix-turn-helix
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Chapter 30: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an anatomical characteristic of the 30S subunit of E.coli ribosomes?
A)"head"
B)"body" or "base"
C)"platform"
D)"legs"
Q2) By what factor is protein synthesis faster in prokaryotic cells than in eukaryotic cells?
A)2
B)10
C)30
D)40
Q3) Approximately how much of the dry cell mass of an E.coli cell consists of ribosomes?
A)1%
B)5%
C)10%
D)20%
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32
Chapter 31: Post-Transcriptional Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following describes the physiological significance of AMD?
A)AMD can serve as a regulator of gene expression during a drop in blood pH.
B)Removal of the ARE located in the 3'UTR of c-fos mRNA leads to increased oncogenicity of c-Fos.
C)Neuroblastoma has been linked to a significant decrease in c-myc and c-fos mRNA half-lives.
D)Blocking the access of AMD machinery to AREs inversely correlates with life-threatening diseases.
Q2) What does the -55 boundary rule signify with respect to NMD?
A)Only stop codons at least 55 nt downstream of the final intron trigger NMD.
B)Only stop codons at least 55 nt upstream of the final intron trigger NMD.
C)Only stop codons at least 55 nt downstream of the first intron trigger NMD.
D)Only stop codons at least 55 nt upstream of the first intron trigger NMD.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the term mRNA half-life?
A)the length of time an mRNA molecule takes to degrade
B)the length of time an mRNA molecule takes to be modified
C)the length of time an mRNA molecule is stable inside the cell
D)the length of time an mRNA molecule takes to be synthesized
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Q1) Which of the following describes the functional role of the 19S cap in proteasome?
A)disposal
B)regulatory
C)ubiquitination complex
D)electron transport
Q2) Which of the following types of sequences is required for proteins to remain embedded in the ER membrane with their C-termini on the cytosolic face of the ER?
A)translocator
B)leader
C)translocational
D)stop-transfer
Q3) Which of the following is a highly conserved protein that is involved in protein degradation?
A)Met-aminopeptidase
B)ubiquitin
C)degradase
D)peptidyl transferase
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Chapter 33: Metabolic Integration and Organ Specialization
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of energy metabolism in the heart?
A)The preferred fuel is fatty acids.
B)The range of activity is much less than that in muscle (200-fold).
C)It is unusually rich in mitochondria.
D)The heart consumes over 90% of the total oxygen supply during maximal physical exertion.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of resveratrol?
A)produced in plants,particularly in grape skins,in response to stress
B)activates SIRT1 NAD -dependent deacetylase activity
C)inhibits AMPK in the brain
D)has many of the same effects as caloric restriction
Q3) What is the term for the constant availability of fuels in the blood,and what is the order of preference for fuel usage?
A)phosphorylation potential;glycogen > triacylglycerols > protein
B)fuel dynamics;triacylglycerols > glycogen > protein
C)metabolic regulation;triacylglycerols > glycogen > protein
D)caloric homeostasis;glycogen > triacylglycerols > protein
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