Course Introduction
General Biochemistry Exam Bank
General Biochemistry explores the fundamental chemical principles underlying biological processes, focusing on the structure and function of biomolecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids. The course covers enzyme kinetics and regulation, metabolic pathways, bioenergetics, and the integration of metabolism at the cellular and organismal levels. Emphasis is placed on the molecular mechanisms that govern cellular functions and how disruptions in these processes can lead to disease, preparing students for advanced studies in biology, medicine, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 1st Canadian Edition by Reginald Garrett
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33 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Facts of Life: Chemistry Is the Logic of Biological Phenomena
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of electrostatic forces?
A)They include ionic interactions between negatively charged carboxyl groups and positively charged amino groups.
B)They average about 2 kJ/mol in aqueous solutions.
C)They are typically directional,like hydrogen bonds.
D)They require a precise fit,like van der Waals interactions.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is a distinctive property of living systems?
A)Biological structures play a role in the organism's existence.
B)Living organisms are relatively simple.
C)The living state is characterized by the flow of glucose through the organism.
D)Living organisms are uncomplicated.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following describes the integration of viral genetic elements into the host chromosome and subsequent quiescence?
A)cytolytic
B)lysogeny
C)propagational
D)autonomy
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Water: the Medium of Life
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Q1) The enzyme fumarase has a pH optimum of about 7.6.Which of the following would be the buffer of choice to study this enzyme?
A)tris-hydroxymethyl aminomethane (K<sub>a</sub> = 8.32 × 10<sup>-9</sup>,pK<sub>a</sub> = 8.07)
B)lactic acid (K<sub>a</sub> = 1.38 × 10<sup>-4</sup>,pK<sub>a</sub> = 3.86)
C)bicarbonate (K<sub>a </sub>= 6.3 × 10<sup>-11</sup>,pK<sub>a </sub>= 10.24)
D)acetic acid (K<sub>a</sub> = 1.74 × 10<sup>-5</sup>,pK<sub>a</sub> = 4.76)
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following acids is NOT a weak electrolyte?
A)hydrochloric acid
B)acetic acid
C)lactic acid
D)phosphoric acid
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of pure liquid H O molecules?
A)They are held in a rigid 3-dimensional network.
B)They have local preference for linear geometry.
C)They have large numbers of strained or broken hydrogen bonds.
D)They do not switch H bonds readily.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Thermodynamics of Biological Systems
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Q1) What defines the standard-state free energy change, G?
A)positive when the reaction is unfavourable
B)an expression of Keq
C)negative when the reaction is favourable
D)equal to H - T S
Answer: B
Q2) Which energy source does virtually all life on earth depend on?
A)activation energy
B)batteries
C)the green-house effect
D)the sun
Answer: D
Q3) Which example has the greatest increase in entropy, S?
A)freezing water
B)sublimation of CO
C)melting ice
D)boiling gasoline
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Q1) Which of the following has partial double-bond character?
A)hydrogen bond
B)peptide bond
C)phosphoanhydride bond
D)van der Waals bond
Q2) Which of the following is a property of ninhydrin?
A)It produces a yellow product upon reaction with histidine.
B)It can be used to detect the location of amino acids following SDS-PAGE.
C)It produces a green product upon reaction with alanine.
D)It reacts with an amino acid by oxidatively deaminating its amino group.
Q3) Which of the following amino acids is classified as a basic amino acid?
A)leucine
B)aspartic acid
C)asparagine
D)lysine
Q4) Which of the following amino acids has more than 1 chiral carbon?
A)serine
B)lysine
C)threonine
D)cysteine
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Proteins: Their Primary Structure and Biological
Functions
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Q1) Which of the following is determined by amino acid analysis of a protein?
A)the amino acid sequence of the protein
B)the number of residues of each amino acid in the protein
C)the identification of the N-terminal and C-terminal amino acids
D)the percentage of the various amino acids in the protein
Q2) The formation of a disulfide bond is an example of what level(s)of protein structure?
A)primary and secondary
B)secondary and tertiary
C)tertiary and quaternary
D)quaternary
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of all molecules of a given protein?
A)a variable amino acid composition
B)a random amino acid sequence
C)a nucleotide sequence from which they are encoded
D)an amino acid sequence read from C-terminal end to N-terminal end
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Secondary, tertiary, and Quaternary Structure
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Q1) Which of the following is/are capable of forming hydrogen bonds with the amino acid side chains located on the surface of a protein?
A)the water solvent
B)the protein interior
C)distant surface amino acid side chains
D)interior amino acid side chains
Q2) What defines tertiary structure?
A)the sequence of amino acids
B)the folding of a single polypeptide chain in 3-dimensional space
C)hydrogen-bonding interactions between adjacent amino acid residues into helical or pleated segments
D)the way in which separate,folded,monomeric,protein subunits associate to form oligomeric proteins
Q3) What is the "Greek key" topology composed of?
A)adjacent a-helices oriented in the opposite direction
B)discreet regions of -sheet oriented in an antiparallel fashion
C)discreet regions of -turns
D)parallel -sheet structures connected by a-helices
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Chapter 7: Carbohydrates and the Glycoconjugates of Cell Surfaces
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Q1) Which of the following are proteoglycans,a group of macromolecules,formed from?
A)proteases and monosaccharides
B)proteases and glycosaminoglycans
C)proteins and monosaccharides
D)proteins and glycosaminoglycans
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristicof cellulose fibre?
A)It is a linear polymer of (1 4)glycosidic-linked glucose and galactose residues.
B)It is extremely susceptible to hydrolysis.
C)It is made up of very weak microfibrils.
D)Intermolecular hydrogen bonds play a major role in the stabilization of microfibrils.
Q3) Which of the following statements explains why cooked starch is more digestible than uncooked starch?
A)It has been partially hydrolyzed during cooking.
B)The amylopectin is converted to amylose during cooking.
C)The enzymes that hydrolyze the starch are active only when the starch is hot.
D)The starch granules take up water,swell,and are more accessible to the enzymes.
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Chapter 8: Lipids
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Q1) Which of the following products are generated when triacylglycerols undergo saponification?
A)fatty acid and glycerol
B)fatty alcohols and fatty acids
C)salts of fatty acids and fatty alcohols
D)salts of fatty acids and glycerol
Q2) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for the release of arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids?
A)phospholipase A<sub>1</sub>
B)phospholipase A<sub>2</sub>
C)phospholipase C
D)phospholipase D
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a plant steroid?
A)cortisol
B)campesterol
C)stigmasterol
D) -sitosterol
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Chapter 9: Lipid Biosynthesis
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Q1) What is the series of drugs known as "statins" used for?
A)to inhibit fatty acid synthesis in diet drugs
B)to inhibit squalene monooxygenase
C)to inhibit HMG-CoA reductase
D)to lower cholesterol levels
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a feature of aspirin?
A)It inhibits the activity of prostaglandin endoperoxide synthase (COX).
B)It stimulates ring opening in prostaglandin synthesis.
C)It acetylates the serine in the active site of the cyclooxygenase (COX).
D)It is classed as a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of squalene?
A)It requires an insoluble protein activator.
B)It is bound to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
C)It uses FAD and NADPH.
D)It requires O .
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of mixed-function oxidases?
A)They usually involve cytochrome P-450.
B)They often catalyze hydroxylation reactions on ring systems,such as sterols.
C)They use both NADPH and O .
D)One of their products is CO .
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Membranes and Membrane Transport
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Q1) Which of the following does the tandem repeat protein multiple drug resistant (MDR)-ATPase use to actively transport a wide variety of drugs out of the cell?
A)GTP hydrolysis
B)calcium gradient
C)glucose gradient
D)ATP hydrolysis
Q2) Yeast -factor ATPase and MDR ATPase are 2 members of a superfamily of transport proteins.Which of the following do they both actively transport?
A)H to dissolve bone mineral
B)Ca² into the sarcoplasm
C)a broad group of diverse organic molecules across membranes
D)Mg² against a concentration gradient
Q3) Which of the following are the 2 major phospholipids on the outer leaflet of erythrocytes?
A)phosphatidylcholine and phosphatidylethanolamine
B)phosphatidylcholine and sphingomyelin
C)phosphatidylethanolamine and sphingomyelin
D)phosphatidylserine and sphingomyelin
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Chapter 11: The Reception and Transmission of Extracellular Information
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Q1) Which of the following phospholipids is hydrolyzed to stimulate ceramide-activated protein kinase?
A)sphingomyelin
B)phosphatidylinositol-4-phosphate
C)phosphatidylcholine
D)phosphatidylinositol
Q2) It is believed that many general anesthetics work by prolonging the open time of GABA receptors.Which of the following types of channels does the GABA receptor mediate?
A)sodium
B)calcium
C)chloride
D)potassium
Q3) Which of the following is phospholipase C- homologous to with respect to the X and Y domains?
A)phospholipase C-
B)phospholipase C-
C)phospholipase A<sub>2</sub>
D)phospholipase D
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Enzymes Kinetics and Specificity
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Q1) What is malonate inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase an example of?
A)non-competitive inhibition
B)competitive inhibition
C)irreversible inhibition
D)uncompetitive inhibition
Q2) In transforming the Michaelis-Menten equation into a straight-line equation,y = mx + b,the Lineweaver-Burk double reciprocal plot is generated.Which of the following is NOT a correct representation of this plot?
A)y-intercept is 1/V<sub>max</sub>
B)y = 1/V
C)x-intercept is 1/K<sub>m</sub>
D)x = 1/[S]
Q3) Which of these antibiotics acts by forming a covalent derivative of the enzyme glycoprotein peptidase?
A)antimycin
B)neomycin
C)oligomycin
D)penicillin
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Chapter 13: Mechanisms of Enzyme Action
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Q1) Which of the following elements is involved in the mechanism of chymotrypsin?
A)deprotonation of an active site Asp residue by His to start the reaction
B)formation of an acyl-enzyme intermediate that must be hydrolyzed to complete the reaction
C)stabilization of the positively charged His by a Gln residue
D)direct deprotonation of water by His to generate a hydroxide ion for initiation of the reaction
Q2) Which of the following regarding the enzyme-transition state complex is correct?
A)The enzyme is designed to bind the transition-state structure less tightly than the substrate or product.
B)It is designated as EX .
C)The enzyme stabilizes the transition-state complex less than it stabilizes the substrate complex.
D)The energy barrier between ES and EX is more than the energy barrier between S and X .
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Chapter 14: Enzyme Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following is the reason why BPG shifts the oxygen saturation curve of Hb to the right?
A)BPG binds to deoxyHb and unloads O at tissues.
B)BPG binds to oxyHb and unloads O at tissues.
C)BPG binds to deoxyHb and unloads O at the lungs.
D)BPG binds to oxyHb and unloads O at the lungs.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding isozymes is correct?
A)They catalyze the same reaction but have vastly different structures.
B)They are always monomeric proteins.
C)Their differences are based upon the type of metal ions needed for catalysis.
D)They often respond to different inhibitors and activators.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a zymogen and its activating protease?
A)chymotrypsinogen and chymotrypsin
B)proinsulinc and insulin
C)pepsinogen and pepsin
D)trypsinogen and trypsin
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Molecular Motors
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT occur during kinesin movement along a microtubule?
A)Leading head binds a new site on tubulin,with ADP dissociation.
B)The kinesin head with ADP is bound to tubulin,and the kinesin head with ATP is ready to move ahead.
C)Conformational changes in the neck linkers flip the trailing head to the next tubulin binding site.
D)ADP and Pi dissociate and ATP binds leading head.
Q2) Which component(s)of the 6 polypeptides that make up the thick filament contain(s)the ATPase activity?
A)LC1
B)LC2
C)myosin heavy chains
D)essential light chains
Q3) What is the power stroke in muscle contraction associated with?
A)the dissociation of ADP and Pi from the ATPase
B)binding of myosin to actin
C)addition of water for ATP hydrolysis
D)the hydrolysis of ATP
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nutrition and the Organization of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following are differences between photoautotrophs and heterotrophic cells?
A)Photoautotrophs use light energy for synthesis of organic molecules,while heterotrophs metabolize organic substances for fuel and building blocks.
B)Photoautotrophs use organic compounds as a source of carbon,while heterotrophs use CO as a source of carbon.
C)Photoautotrophs synthesize CO ,while heterotrophs synthesize O .
D)Heterotrophs convert solar energy into chemical energy,while photoautotrophs break down organic molecules.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of coenzymes?
A)carry functional groups
B)maintain original structure
C)provide a broader range of catalytic properties
D)can be derived from water-soluble vitamins
Q3) Which of the following vitamins is NOT a coenzyme or a precursor of a coenzyme?
A)thiamine
B)riboflavin
C)retinol
D)niacin
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the step that commits glucose to glycolysis?
A)phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
B)hexokinase
C)phosphoglucoisomerase
D)glucokinase
Q2) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes this reaction?
ADP + ADP ATP + AMP
A)adenylate cyclase
B)protein kinase C
C)adenylate kinase
D)guanylate cyclase
Q3) Which of the following products is formed when a-D-glucose reacts with ATP?
A) -D-glucose-1-phosphate
B) -D-fructose-1-phosphate
C) -D-glucose-6-phosphate
D) -D-fructose-6-phosphate
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19
Chapter 18: The Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the reaction catalyzed by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
A)It is the link between glycolysis and the TCA cycle.
B)The activity of the complex is regulated by the phosphorylation of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
C)NAD is the direct oxidant of reduced lipoamide.
D)An FAD is covalently linked to the EDLD,the lipoamide dehydrogenase component.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a principal allosteric regulator of TCA cycle activity?
A)[FADH ]
B)NADH
C)acetyl-CoA
D)ATP
Q3) Which enzyme catalyzes citrate isomerization to isocitrate by abstracting water from citrate?
A)citrate isomerase
B)citrate synthase
C)aconitase
D)isocitrate dehydrogenase
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Chapter 19: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Which of the following is included in the model of electron transport?
A)protons driven into the matrix
B)mobile coenzyme Q releasing electrons
C)cyt c moving in the intermembrane space
D)proton gradient reduced leading to loss of ATP production
Q2) In which of the following tissues does thermogenin (UCPI)create a passive proton channel through which protons flow from the cytosol to the mitochondrial matrix?
A)myelin
B)brown adipose
C)nerve
D)cardiac
Q3) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction below?
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)+ NADH NAD + glycerol-3-phosphate
A)glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
B)triose phosphate isomerase
C)DHAP dehydrogenase
D)glycerol-3-phosphate reductase
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following best explains the involvement of light reactions in photosynthetic plants?
A)discharge of the proton gradient
B)production of ATP and consumption of NADPH
C)production of ATP and NADPH during cyclic photophosphorylation
D)the splitting of 2 water molecules to produce molecular oxygen
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of the chloroplast's ATP synthase?
A)is a homomultimer of subunits
B)contains CF<sub>1</sub>CF<sub>0</sub> complex
C)embedded in the plasma membrane
D)has 12 c-subunits in its F<sub>0</sub> rotor
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a property of photosystem II (PSII)?
A)light-driven H O evolution
B)similar photosystem in photosynthetic bacteria
C)uses quinines as terminal electron acceptors
D)found in cyanobacteria,green algae,and higher plants
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Gluconeogenesis, glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) The polyol pathway is a suspected pathway for diabetes-induced cataract formation.Which enzyme does it involve?
A)aldose reductase
B)glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
C)phosphopentose isomerase
D)transaldolase
Q2) Epinephrine elicits many physiological changes such as the initiation of the adenylyl cyclase cascade.Which of these actions is NOT seen as a result of this initiation?
A)stimulation of glycogen synthase
B)activation of glycogenolysis in liver
C)stimulation of glycolysis by 2000-fold
D)activation of glycogenolysis in muscles
Q3) Which conditions trigger the conversion of pyruvate into OAA for gluconeogenesis?
A)high levels of NADH and ATP
B)high levels of NAD and acetyl CoA
C)high levels of ATP and acetyl CoA
D)high levels of ATP and NAD
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Chapter 22: Fatty Acid Catabolism
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Q1) The first oxidation in the -oxidation of saturated fatty acids is catalyzed by acyl-CoA dehydrogenase.Which of the following chemical conversions does it catalyze?
A)a primary alcohol to an aldehyde
B)a carbon-carbon single bond to a carbon-carbon double bond
C)a secondary alcohol to a ketone
D)an aldehyde to a carboxylic acid
Q2) Which of the following is the potential major source of energy for the brain during prolonged starvation?
A)ketone bodies
B)fatty acids
C)amino acids
D)glucose
Q3) Which of the following classes of enzymes does enoyl-CoA hydratase belong to?
A)transferase
B)hydrolase
C)lyase
D)ligase
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Chapter 23: Nitrogen Acquisition and Amino Acid
Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction below?
N + 10 H + 8 e 2 NH + H
A)nitrate reductase
B)nitrogenase
C)glutamate dehydrogenase
D)glutamate synthase
Q2) Which of the following compounds is reduced to ammonia during the second step of nitrate assimilation?
A)nitrogen
B)carbon
C)nitrite
D)carbon dioxide
Q3) Which of the following is a requirement of all N -fixing systems?
A)the enzyme nitrogenase
B)GTP
C)H Ofree conditions
D)a strong oxidizer such as ferredoxin
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids
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Q1) How is a polynucleotide chain read in a nucleic acid structure?
A)from the poly(U)head to the poly(A)tail
B)from the 3'-end to the 5'-tail
C)from the 5'-end to the 3'-end
D)from the poly-p head to the 5'-end
Q2) Which of these compounds is a 6-membered heterocyclic aromatic ring?
A)pyrimidine
B)purine
C)anose
D)ribonucleotide
Q3) Which of the following is richly associated with eukaryotic chromosomes?
A)protein
B)ribosome
C)nitrogenous base
D)cytoskeleton
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an important characteristic of DNA?
A)adenine and uracil as a base pair
B)a 1:1 ratio between pyrimidine residues and purine residues
C)hydrogen bonding between base pairs
D)information accessed through transcription of the information into RNA
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Structure of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of DNA polymerase?
A)copies the sequence of nucleotides of one strand in a complementary fashion
B)requires a primer with a free 5'-OH end,but the 3'-end may be phosphorylated
C)copies the sequence of nucleotides of one strand to form two new strands
D)synthesizes new strands by adding successive nucleotides in the 3'?5' direction
Q2) Which of the following conformations do double-helical DNA:RNA hybrids and double-stranded regions of RNA chains often assume?
A)A-like conformation
B)B-like conformation
C)Z-like conformation
D)triple-helix conformation
Q3) How is radioactivity incorporated into newly synthesized DNA using the chain termination protocol for sequencing DNA?
A)One of the dNTPs is labelled with <sup>32</sup>P.
B)The primer strand is labelled with <sup>32</sup>P.
C)The 5'-end is labelled with <sup>32</sup>P.
D)The dideoxynucleotide is labelled with <sup>32</sup>P.
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Chapter 26: Synthesis and Degradation of Nucleotides
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of metabolic channelling?
A)It does not allow for substrate dilution into the milieu or the accumulation of intermediates.
B)It allows the product of one reaction to be available for a reaction later in another pathway.
C)It allows the diffusion of substrates.
D)It allows a more diverse interaction of substrates,intermediates,and enzymes.
Q2) Which of the following compounds are inhibitors of purine and pyrimidine biosynthesis?
A)eicosanoids and aspirin
B)NSAIDs and antibiotics
C)anticancer drugs and antibiotics
D)antibiotics and eicosanoids
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic characteristic of xanthine oxidase?
A)present in small amounts in liver,intestinal mucosa,and milk
B)uses H O to produce molecular oxygen
C)possesses an electron-transport chain with FAD,Fe-S cluster,and molybdenum cofactor
D)involved in production of urea
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Recombinant Dna: Cloning and Creation of Chimeric Genes
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of using the pET plasmid?
A)The genes to be expressed are under the control of a T7 operator.
B)The T7 polymerase is slower than a typical E.coli polymerase.
C)The expressed protein never accounts for more than 5% of the total cell protein.
D)The T7 polymerase is under the control of the lac operon and is thus active only when induced by an agent such as IPTG.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of YACs (yeast artificial chromosomes)?
A)can successfully propagate DNA molecules of 2 megabase pairs in length
B)have been transferred into animals
C)must include a centromere
D)must include primers
Q3) What are linkers?
A)short sequences of DNA between the promoter and the gene
B)short synthetic DNA duplexes consisting of a restriction site that is ligated onto DNA
C)enzymes that link cloning sites in a sequence of nucleotides
D)enzymes that incorporate foreign DNA into plasmids
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Page 29
Chapter 28: DNA Metabolism: Replication, recombination, and Repair
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Q1) Which of the following explains how the vast diversity of immunoglobulin sequences are created?
A)by DNA rearrangement
B)by large sections of DNA devoted to immunoglobulin formation
C)by susceptibility of the immunoglobulin genes to mutation
D)by sensitivity of formed immunoglobulin proteins to environmental factors
Q2) UV light promotes the formation of covalent bonds between nearby thymine residues in a DNA strand.Which of the following structures is created as a result of this?
A)a cyclobutyl ring called a thymidine trimer
B)a cyclohexyl ring called a thymidine trimer
C)a cyclobutyl ring called a thymidine dimer
D)a cyclohexyl ring called a thymidine dimer
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a part of homologous recombination?
A)ligation
B)nicking
C)EW or NS cleavage,resolution and re-ligation
D)strand division
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of the Zn-finger motif?
A)It binds the minor groove of DNA.
B)There is a repeated motif in DNA-binding proteins.
C)Two Cys and 2 Met coordinate the Zn.
D)It interacts with about 2 nucleotides/Zn finger.
Q2) Which of the following subunits in E.coli RNA polymerase is required for recognition of the promoter sequence?
A) (alpha)
B) (beta)
C) (sigma)
D) (beta prime)
Q3) Which of the following is the structural motif found in a number of transcriptional factors that is not a DNA-binding domain,but rather is associated with protein-protein interactions?
A)a leucine zipper
B)a zinc finger
C)a helix-turn-helix
D)an enhancer element
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Chapter 30: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) What is the minimum number of high-energy phosphoric anhydride bonds per amino acid required as energy expenditure for protein synthesis?
A)0
B)2
C)4
D)6
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a feature of the tRNA molecule with the anticodon 5'CAU?
A)It is the anticodon for tRNA<sub>fmet</sub>.
B)The wobble base in the anticodon would be cytosine.
C)Its anticodon can theoretically base pair with up to 3 different codons.
D)Its anticodon can base pair to the codon 5'AUG.
Q3) Codons representing the same amino acid or chemically similar amino acids tend to be similar in sequence,often differing only in the third base.What is this feature called?
A)home-base degeneracy
B)first-base similarity
C)second-base type similarity
D)third-base degeneracy
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Chapter 31: Post-Transcriptional Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following describes the RNA recognition motif (RRM)?
A)4 antiparallel -sheets and 2 helices
B)2 antiparallel -sheets and 4 helices
C)2 antiparallel -sheets and 2 helices
D)4 antiparallel -sheets and 4 helices
Q2) Which of the following do miRNAs binds?
A)GREs
B)seed elements
C)AREs
D)core promoters
Q3) Which of the following ARE-binding proteins (AUBPs)stabilizes ARE-mRNA?
A)KSRP
B)TTP
C)HuR
D)BRF1
Q4) Which of the following is a characteristic of RNA inference (RNAi)?
A)It is conducted by non-coding RNA (miRNAs).
B)It is mediated by cis-acting,single-stranded RNA.
C)It is conserved in a few organisms.
D)It is no longer used for conducting biological research.
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Q1) Which of the following pairs forms a common conduit for transfer of the nascent protein through the endoplasmic reticulum membrane?
A)ribosome and translocon
B)signal sequence and plasma membrane
C)EF-G and endoplasmic reticulum
D)chaperonin and plasma membrane
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the mammalian translocon?
A)It has Sec61 complex at the core.
B)It is a transmembrane,protein-conducting channel.
C)BiP carries out ATP-dependent protein folding.
D)It is composed of a single transmembrane-spanning (TMS)protein.
Q3) Eukaryotic secretory proteins are synthesized and translocated via the endoplasmic reticulum.Which of the following steps is part of this process?
A)signal sequence phosphorylation
B)glycosylation in the ER lumen
C)signal sequence addition
D)ribosome assembly
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Metabolic Integration and Organ Specialization
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT paired with their preferred substrate?
A)brain: glucose
B)heart: fatty acids
C)resting skeletal muscle: glucose
D)adipose tissue: fatty acids
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of ATP stoichiometry in metabolic pathways?
A)It is not a consequence of evolution.
B)A singular number is not required.
C)It results from biological adaptation.
D)It cannot be predicted from any chemical considerations.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the energy charge (E.C.)of a cell?
A)It is rapidly changed by adenylate kinase.
B)E.C.has a range of 0-1.0.
C)It is a ratio of adenylate phosphoric anhydride bonds to total adenylate concentration.
D)It is 1.0 when all the adenylate is ATP.
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