General Biochemistry
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
General Biochemistry is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the fundamental principles governing the chemistry of living organisms. The course covers the structure and function of biomolecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids, and explores critical biochemical processes including enzyme kinetics, metabolism, bioenergetics, and cellular signaling. By examining both the molecular mechanisms and physiological roles of these biological molecules and pathways, students gain a foundational understanding of how chemical processes underlie the structure and function of cells and organisms. The course also emphasizes the experimental methods used in biochemical research, preparing students for advanced study and applications in related biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 8th Edition by Mary K. Campbell
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Chapter 1: Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells
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Q1) The heat of a reaction at constant pressure is
A) its change in entropy.
B) its change in enthalpy.
C) its change in free energy.
D) its spontaneity.
Answer: B
Q2) The synthesis of urea from ammonium cyanate.
A) was a critical component of the Miller-Urey experiment.
B) requires a protein as a catalyst.
C) helped dispel the vital force theory.
D) supported the vital force theory.
Answer: C
Q3) According to thermodynamics, favored processes are
A) ones that require energy.
B) ones that release energy.
C) oxidations.
D) reductions.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Water: the Solvent for Biochemical Reactions
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Q1) If a solution has a pH = 6, the [H<sup>+</sup>] is
A) 6 M
B) 10<sup>6</sup> M
C) 10 <sup>6</sup> M
D) 0.6 M
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following molecules will not form hydrogen bonds?
A) CH<sub>4</sub>
B) NH<sub>3</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>O
D) HF
Answer: A
Q3) When a carboxylate side-chain of one amino acid in a protein is in close proximity to a charged amino group of another amino acid, we call the resulting interaction a(n)
A) ion - dipole bond
B) ionic bond
C) van der Waal's bond
D) salt bridge
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Amino Acids and Peptides
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Q1) Which of the following correctly lists the isoelectric pH's of asp, asn, and arg from lowest to highest?
A) D N R
B) D R N
C) R N D
D) R D N
E) N R D
F) N D R
Answer: A
Q2) Which amino acid is classified as polar?
A) L
B) H
C) P
D) I
Answer: B
Q3) What is the predominant form of the amino acid abbreviated R at pH 7?
A) positive
B) neutral
C) negative
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Q1) Refer to Exhibit 4B. Which one shows covalent bonding of R-groups?
A) K
B) L
C) O
D) K and L
E) All of these
Q2) Hydrogen bonds are most important in this type of structure in proteins:
A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure
E) All of these
Q3) Which of the following is true?
A) The peptide bonds in the -sheet are extended.
B) The peptide bonds in the -helix coil back on themselves.
C) Both -helices and -sheets can be found as part of tertiary structure.
D) All of these
Q4) A single amino substitution can give rise to a malfunctioning protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques
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Q1) In electrophoresis experiments
A) the separation must be carried out in bright light
B) the polarity of substances to be separated is more important than their charge or size
C) the sample can be badly degraded as a result of the separation
D) an electric field must be applied to the mixture to be separated
Q2) Elution of proteins by means of a pH gradient would work best with this type of column:
A) Gel filtration
B) Affinity chromatography
C) Cation exchange
D) Anion exchange
E) Cation or anion exchange
Q3) Differential centrifugation at low speeds (several thousand RPM) is a useful step when
A) organelles have been lysed.
B) enzymes of interest have different sizes.
C) cell membranes must be left intact.
D) ribosomes need to be broken down.
E) there are either organelles or debris to separate.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes
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Q1) Which of the following is true?
A) The E-S complex often dissociates with no reaction taking place.
B) The E-S complex must form before a reaction can take place
C) Once the E-S complex forms, it can go on to form product or dissociate to E + S
D) All of these are correct
Q2) Inhibitors can have the following effects on enzyme kinetics:
A) Modifying the K<sub>M</sub> value.
B) Changing the value for V<sub>max</sub>.
C) Interfering with substrate binding.
D) An inhibitor can change the K<sub>M</sub> and interfere with substrate binding.
E) All of these are correct.
Q3) Which of the following inhibitors binds to the enzyme at a site other than the active site?
A) competitive inhibitor
B) noncompetitive inhibitor
C) irreversible inhibitor
D) all of these
E) none of these
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Chapter 7: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes, Mechanisms, and Control
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Q1) The active site of chymotrypsin contains all of the following, except:
A) Histidine residue.
B) A magnesium ion.
C) Hydrophobic pocket to bind the substrate.
D) Serine residue.
E) All of these are in the active site of chymotrypsin.
Q2) The initial bond formation in the covalent intermediate in the reaction catalyzed by chymotrypsin is between
A) serine and the carbonyl carbon in the peptide backbone
B) serine and the nitrogen in the peptide backbone
C) histidine and the carbonyl carbon in the peptide backbone
D) histidine and the nitrogen in the peptide backbone
Q3) Refer to Exhibit 7A. Which two enzymes would be the most likely ones to regulate if this pathway is dedicated to the formation of only one product?
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 1 and 5
D) 2 and 4
E) 4 and 5
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Lipids and Proteins Are Associated in Biological Membranes
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Q1) Which of the following groups is not present in sphingomyelin?
A) Sphingosine
B) Fatty acid
C) Phosphate
D) Sugar
Q2) Rickets is caused by a deficiency in
A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin D.
C) vitamin E.
D) vitamin K.
Q3) Membrane lipids in a lipid bilayer are held together by
A) hydrophobic interactions
B) hydrogen bonds
C) electrostatic forces
D) covalent bonds
Q4) The degree of membrane fluidity depends on
A) the percentage of lipids that contain choline
B) the percentage of glycolipids
C) the percentage of fatty acids
D) the percentage of unsaturated fatty acids
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acids: How Structure Conveys Information
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Q1) The oligonucleotide AGGUCCAUUGAAp, is best described as
A) an RNA oligonucleotide with a 3'phosphate
B) an RNA oligonucleotide with a 5'phosphate
C) a DNA oligonucleotide with a 3'phosphate
D) a DNA oligonucleotide with a 5'phosphate
Q2) Which of the following is the most common modification of nucleic acid bases?
A) addition of a methyl group
B) addition of a carboxylic acid
C) addition of a fluorine
D) reduction of a carbonyl to an alcohol
Q3) In DNA structure, hydrophobic bonding via pi-clouds is referred to as
A) base stacking.
B) propeller twist.
C) hyperchromicity.
D) supercoiling.
E) denaturation
Q4) Comparison of DNA sequences between widely diverse organisms indicates that all organisms have genetic similarity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Biosynthesis of Nucleic Acids: Replication
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Q1) The direction of synthesis of a DNA strand is
A) from the 5' end to the 3' end on both strands.
B) from the 3' end to the 5' end on both strands.
C) from the 5' end to the 3' end on one strand and from the 3' end to the 5' end on the other strand.
D) none of the above.
Q2) In eukaryotic replication, the RNA primers are degraded by:
A) the 5' to 3' exonuclease activity of pol ä
B) DNA ligase
C) Helicase
D) FEN-1 and RNase H1
Q3) Eukaryotic DNA polymerases differ from those of prokaryotes in that
A) they do not require a primer
B) they do not always have exonuclease activity
C) there is no equivalent to the sliding clamp in prokaryotic replication
D) they produce longer Okazaki fragments
Q4) The DNA polymerases in eukaryotes have similar functions to those found in bacteria, but they are not identical.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Transcription of the Genetic Code: Biosynthesis of RNA
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Q1) The weakness of A U base pairs at the end of the RNA molecule may help in dissociation of the new RNA product.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the best description of an operon?
A) An enhancer that positively regulates gene expression.
B) An silencer that negatively regulates gene expression.
C) A binding element for the sigma ( ) factor.
D) A group of genes under the control of a common promoter.
Q3) Which category of ribozymes requires an external guanosine frothier action?
A) Group I
B) Group II
C) Both Group I & Group II
D) Neither Group I nor Group II
Q4) Which ends of prokaryotic mRNA are protected from degradation?
A) 5' end only
B) 3' end only
C) Both ends
D) Neither end
E) The RNA is circular and has no ends.
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Chapter 12: Protein Synthesis: Translation of the Genetic Message
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Q1) There is no codon for the amino acid hydroxyproline, but this amino acid is a prominent feature of collagen structure. Which of the following is a likely explanation?
A) Hydroxyproline is substituted for proline after translation by a cut and patch mechanism.
B) Proline is covalently modified to give hydroxyproline after translation.
C) There is an alternative mechanism for synthesis of proteins that contain hydroxyproline.
D) It is not possible to form a hypothesis from the information given.
Q2) Which of the following is necessary for chain termination in protein synthesis?
A) termination codons of mRNA
B) release factors
C) GTP
D) all of these
E) none of these
Q3) An aminoacyl-tRNA is initially bound to the ribosome
A) at the A site on the 50S subunit
B) at the P site on the 50S subunit
C) at the A site on the 30S subunit
D) at the P site on the 30S subunit
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Nucleic Acid Biotechnology Techniques
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Q1) When fluorescence detection methods are used in biotechnology they
A) have limitations due to low sensitivity
B) can be used for only one substance at a time
C) are not used in DNA sequencing
D) do not present the hazards associated with radioactivity
Q2) Which of the following is a unique feature of qPCR compared to the original PCR?
A) qPCR uses a DNA polymerase from a heat stable source
B) qPCR requires a primer
C) qPCR allows the reaction to run until all of the primers have been exhausted
D) In qPCR, the speed with which the DNA is produced is used to estimate how much of the original template was in the reaction vessel
Q3) A multiple cloning site is also known as:
A) a polylinker
B) an origin of replication
C) a restriction enzyme site
D) a selectable marker
Q4) Microarrays allow the analysis of thousands of samples of DNA or protein to be performed simultaneously.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Viruses, Cancer, and Immunology
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Q1) Which of the following is the most direct reason that AIDS is deadly?
A) HIV is a retrovirus
B) HIV enters helper T-cells
C) Budding HIV particles damage helper T-cell membranes lowering the helper T-cell count
D) HIV has an RNA genome
E) none of these explain why HIV is deadly
Q2) Herpes viruses are examples of _______ viruses.
A) non-enveloped DNA containing B) enveloped DNA containing C) enveloped RNA containing D) non-enveloped RNA containing E) none of these
Q3) Which of the following descriptions of T cells is true?
A) They produce interleukins.
B) They display MHCs.
C) They produce antibodies.
D) They act as either helper or killer cells.
E) They carry out all these functions.
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Chapter 15: The Importance of Energy Changes and Electron
Transfer in Metabolism
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Q1) Consider this rxn which has a G° = +0.4 kJ/mol. A + B C + D 1 M A, 1 M B, 0.1 M C and 0.1
M D are added to a container at room temperature. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The reaction will proceed in the forward direction to reach equilibrium.
B) The reaction will proceed in the backward direction to reach equilibrium.
C) The reaction will not proceed in either direction; it is already at equilibrium.
D) Cannot be determined from the information provided.
Q2) In biological redox reactions, hydrogen ions are usually transferred along with electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Refer to Exhibit 15A. Which is the oxidizing agent?
A) Ethanol
B) NAD<sup>+</sup>
C) Acetaldehyde
D) NADH
E) H<sup>+</sup>
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Chapter 16: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Lactose intolerance
A) arises from inability to metabolize the disaccharide lactose
B) depends on a deficiency of sucrose in the diet
C) is based on the composition of lactose, consisting glucose and fructose in glycosidic linkage
D) arises because lactose is a dimer of galactose
Q2) How many enantiomeric pairs are possible for a aldohexose?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
Q3) A furanose is a sugar that
A) contains a five-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure.
B) contains a six-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure.
C) is a five-carbon open-chain sugar.
D) is a six-carbon open-chain sugar.
Q4) Insoluble fiber in the diet is better at binding toxic substances than soluble fiber.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) The equilibrium for isomerization of dihydroxyacetone phosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is favored because
A) the standard free energy is negative
B) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is being continuously drained off for the subsequent reaction in the glycolytic pathway
C) the value of the equilibrium constant favors the reaction
D) it is driven by the hydrolysis of ATP
Q2) Which enzyme is the key regulatory enzyme in glycolysis?
A) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
B) Enolase
C) Phosphofructokinase
D) Aldolase
Q3) Which of the following is required for substrate-level phosphorylation?
A) The substrate must contain multiple phosphate groups.
B) Molecular oxygen must present.
C) The standard free energy of the hydrolysis reaction is more negative than that for hydrolysis of the new phosphate compound being formed.
D) All of the above are necessary for substrate-level phosphorylation.
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Chapter 18: Storage Mechanisms and Control in Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) Gluconeogenesis differs from glycolysis because
A) the irreversible steps of glycolysis are bypassed
B) different enzymes are involved
C) biotin is required for gluconeogenesis and not for glycolysis
D) all of these
E) none of these
Q2) Which of the following molecules does not directly regulate the activity of glycogen synthase?
A) Glucose
B) Glucose-6-phosphate
C) AMP
D) ATP
E) Concentration of all of these affects glycogen synthase.
Q3) The same enzymes are responsible for covalent modifications of both glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase in regulating their activity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Properly used, glycogen loading by athletes is a safe process.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) Most of the products of the catabolism of sugars, fats and amino acids enter the citric acid cycle as:
A) pyruvate
B) acetyl-CoA
C) malate
D) all of these
E) none of these
Q2) The glyoxylate cycle occurs in
A) plants and animals.
B) bacteria and animals.
C) plants and bacteria.
D) plants, animals, and bacteria.
Q3) The citric acid cycle is the only metabolic pathway that can be used both as an anabolic and as a catabolic pathway.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each of the enzymes of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex requires a different vitamin.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Electron flow in the mitochondria follows this pathway:
A) Complex I complex II complex III complex IV.
B) Complex IV complex III complex II complex I.
C) Complex I complex III complex IV.
D) Complex II complex III complex IV.
E) Both complex I III IV and complex II III IV.
Q2) The pH of the mitochondrial matrix is ____ the pH of the intermembrane space.
A) higher than
B) lower than
C) the same as
Q3) The reference reaction for determining reduction potentials (E° = 0) is the reduction of
A) oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>) to water.
B) NAD<sup>+</sup> to NADH.
C) H<sup>+</sup> to H<sub>2</sub> gas.
D) FAD to FADH<sub>2</sub>.
E) none of these
Q4) The F<sub>1</sub>F<sub>0</sub> complex is actually a transmembrane complex.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning the anabolism and catabolism of fatty acids is true?
A) Biotin is required for oxidation of fatty acids but not for anabolism.
B) NADPH is required for anabolism of fatty acids and not for catabolism.
C) Anabolism occurs in the intermembrane space of mitochondria while catabolism takes place in the mitochondrial matrix.
D) Acetyl-CoA is not required for anabolism.
Q2) Phospholipases break down fats by
A) adding a phosphate group to them.
B) reducing the double bonds to single bonds.
C) hydrolyzing them.
D) removing acetyl-CoA units.
E) none of these
Q3) Where in the cell does -oxidation occur?
A) Cytoplasm.
B) Outer mitochondrial membrane.
C) Mitochondrial intermembrane space.
D) Inner mitochondrial membrane.
E) Mitochondrial matrix.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Chlorophyll differs from heme because it
A) has a cyclohexene ring fused to the tetrapyrrole ring system.
B) has a 16-carbon unbranched side chain.
C) contains magnesium rather than iron.
D) has a fully saturated tetrapyrrole ring.
E) none of these
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an intermediate in the C<sub>4</sub> pathway?
A) phosphoenolpyruvate
B) oxaloacetate
C) malate
D) fumarate
Q3) Wavelengths of what color are mostly responsible for the reactions in the light phase of photosynthesis?
A) Blue.
B) Green.
C) Red
D) Blue and red.
E) All three colors.
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24
Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Nitrogen
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Q1) The carbon skeleton used to make serine is:
A) 3-phosphoglycerate
B) glutamate
C) á-ketoglutarate
D) oxaloacetate
E) pyruvate
Q2) Which of the following is not associated with pyrimidine synthesis?
A) Synthesis of the base while ribose is attached.
B) Stimulation of synthesis by purines.
C) An orotic acid intermediate.
D) Inhibition by pyrimidines.
E) All of these are features of pyrimidine synthesis.
Q3) Which of the following is not an interconversion of nitrogen performed by living organisms?
A) Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.
B) Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen into nitrate.
C) Nitrification of soil nitrate into ammonia
D) Denitrification of nitrogen oxides to gaseous nitrogen.
E) All of these are common bioconversions in the nitrogen cycle.
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Chapter 24: Integration of Metabolism: Cellular Signaling
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Q1) Intracellular second messengers include all of the following except
A) Ca<sup>2+</sup>
B) DAG
C) cATP
D) nitric oxide (NO)
Q2) Which of the following best describes protein kinases?
A) Protein kinases act by transferring a phosphate from a protein to ADP to make ATP.
B) Protein kinases act by transfering a phosphate from a donor molecule, like ATP, to a protein molecule, thereby changing its activity
C) Protein kinases phosphorylate enzymes and activate them
D) Protein kinases phosphorylate key tyrosine residues on receptors
Q3) Many hormones come in pairs, which have opposing metabolic activity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A hormone is defined as a substance which is made in one tissue, but actually acts on a different tissue.
A)True
B)False
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