General and Systemic Pathology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
General and Systemic Pathology is a foundational course that explores the mechanisms, causes, and effects of disease at both the cellular and organ system levels. The course covers basic pathological processes such as inflammation, necrosis, and tissue repair, and progresses to systemic pathology, which examines how these processes manifest in organ-specific diseases. Students will gain an understanding of disease etiology, pathogenesis, morphologic changes, and clinical consequences, equipping them with essential knowledge for diagnosing and managing human diseases in clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
495 Verified Questions
495 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1009 Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20000
Sample Questions
Q1) Metastatic calcification is associated with the:
A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Brain
D) Pancreas
E) Kidney
Answer: E
Q2) All of the following are signs of irreversible cell injury except:
A) Apoptosis
B) Pyknosis
C) Karyorrhexis
D) Karyolysis
E) Vacuolar degeneration
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The center of an abscess contains:
A) Caseous necrosis
B) Calcification
C) Pus
D) Eosinophils
E) Fibrous tissue
Answer: C
Q2) Bradykinin is formed in the plasma through the activation of what element?
A) Bradykinin
B) Histamine
C) Complement membrane attack complex
D) Hageman factor
E) Prostaglandin
Answer: D
Q3) Inflammation cannot develop:
A) In living tissue
B) After a minor laceration
C) Postmortem
D) From massive bleeding
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the diagnosis of AIDS,it is important to test the patient for antibodies to:
A) Human papillomavirus
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Human immunodeficiency virus
D) Pneumocystis carinii
E) Mycobacterium avium intracellulare
Answer: C
Q2) Which blood type is known as the universal recipient?
A) A blood
B) B blood
C) AB blood
D) O blood
E) AO blood
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malignant tumors composed of embryonic cells are often called:
A) Malignant islet cell tumors
B) Gliomas
C) Lymphomas
D) Blastomas
E) Teratomas
Q2) The most common autosomal dominant disease,which affects more than 3 million Americans,presents with numerous subcutaneous neural sheath tumors and is known as:
A) Neurofibromas
B) Meningiomas
C) Neurofibromatosis type I
D) Neurofibromatosis type II
E) Wilms' tumor
Q3) Hodgkin's lymphoma is a neoplasm that typically involves the:
A) Brain
B) Lungs
C) Heart
D) Liver
E) Lymph nodes
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Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trisomy of chromosome 21 is typical of:
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Down's syndrome
D) WAGR (Wilms' tumor, aniridia, genital malformations, mental retardation) syndrome
E) Congenital retinoblastoma
Q2) The X-linked bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of factor VIII is called:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Hemosiderosis
D) Hemochromatosis
E) Hemorrhagic fever
Q3) A multifactorial developmental defect that occurs because of dysraphic anomaly is known as:
A) Dysencephaly
B) Spina bifida
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Hydrocephalitis
E) Anencephaly
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oncotic edema caused by reduction of the colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma is a typical feature of chronic failure of the:
A) Heart
B) Brain
C) Lung
D) Liver
E) Thyroid
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of an exudate but is not typical of a transudate?
A) Accumulation of fluid in a body cavity
B) Accumulation of fluid in the alveoli of the lung
C) Accumulation of fluid in the tissue, with subsequent swelling of the tissue ("tumor")
D) Accumulation of protein in extracellular spaces
E) Accumulation of numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes in extracellular spaces
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8
Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common complication of rheumatic endocarditis is:
A) Bacterial endocarditis
B) Viral endocarditis
C) Fungal myocarditis
D) Parasitic endocarditis
E) Pulmonary embolism
Q2) Atherosclerotic aneurysms are most often located in the:
A) Coronary arteries
B) Ascending aorta
C) Thoracic aorta
D) Abdominal aorta
E) Iliac arteries
Q3) Atherosclerotic narrowing of which artery causes hypertension?
A) Middle cerebral artery
B) Anterior descending branch of the left coronary artery
C) Right coronary artery
D) Renal artery
E) Femoral artery
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9
Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection usually causes:
A) Lobar pneumonia
B) Lobular pneumonia
C) Aspiration pneumonia
D) Interstitial pneumonia
E) Abscesses
Q2) Lung infection that develops in patients who have heart failure and pulmonary edema is called:
A) Interstitial pneumonia
B) Hypostatic pneumonia
C) Bronchiectasis
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
E) Lobar pneumonia
Q3) The most common presenting symptom of lung cancer is:
A) Prolonged coughing and expectoration
B) Bleeding
C) Chest pain
D) Pleural effusion
E) Hoarseness caused by nerve paralysis
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which lymphoma is classified as a low-grade lymphoma?
A) Follicular lymphoma
B) Diffuse large-cell lymphoma
C) Burkitt's lymphoma
D) Immunoblastic lymphoma
E) Lymphoblastic lymphoma
Q2) Fibrin split products are typically found in the urine of patients who have:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
D) Aplastic anemia
E) Thrombocytopenia
Q3) Consumption of platelets associated with widespread hemorrhages is a feature of:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Leukemia
E) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
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11
Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Crypt abscesses,serpiginous ulcerations,and inflammatory polyps of the large intestine are typical features of:
A) Diverticulosis coli
B) Crohn's disease
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Pseudomembranous colitis
E) Cholera
Q2) The most common cause of pseudomembranous colitis is:
A) Shigella
B) Clostridium difficile
C) Salmonella
D) Giardia lamblia
E) Acid phosphatase
Q3) Bacteriologically sterile peritonitis is a complication of:
A) Ruptured gastric ulcer
B) Gangrene of the large intestine
C) Gonococcal salpingitis
D) Acute pancreatitis
E) Acute appendicitis
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In cirrhosis the surface of the liver is:
A) Smooth and shiny
B) Smooth but fatty
C) Dark brown and rough
D) Nodular
E) Covered with fibrin or pus
Q2) What is the most common cause of cirrhosis in childhood?
A) Hepatitis A virus infection
B) Hepatitis D virus infection
C) Hemosiderosis
D) Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
E) Wilson's disease
Q3) Accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity in patients with cirrhosis is associated with hypersecretion of which hormone?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Corticosteroids
D) Aldosterone
E) Androgen
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Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most typical of diabetes mellitus?
A) Oliguria
B) Anuria
C) Polyuria
D) Proteinuria
E) Cylindruria
Q2) Which of the following is a late complication of acute pancreatitis?
A) Diverticulosis
B) Amyloidosis
C) Pseudocysts
D) Carcinoma of the ducts of the pancreas
E) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Q3) Inadequate secretion of pancreatic digestive juices in chronic pancreatitis causes:
A) Constipation
B) Dilation of the intestines
C) Atrophy of the mucosa of the small intestine
D) Malabsorption
E) Jaundice
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14
Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered "the functional unit" of the kidney?
A) Glomerulus
B) Loop of Henle
C) Distal tubules
D) Collection ducts
E) Nephrons
Q2) All of the following are renal complications of diabetes except:
A) Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
B) Nodular glomerulosclerosis (Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease)
C) Arteriolar hyalinosis
D) Papillary necrosis
E) Crescentic glomerulonephritis
Q3) Which of the following is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
A) Membranous nephropathy
B) Lipoid nephrosis
C) Berger's disease (IgA nephropathy)
D) Crescentic glomerulonephritis
E) Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
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Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20013
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a tumor marker of nonseminomatous germ cell tumors?
A) Alkaline phosphatase
B) Acid phosphatase
C) Albumin
D) Alpha-fetoprotein
E) Alpha-antitrypsin
Q2) Which one of the following statements about infertility is true?
A) One in seven couples in the United States is infertile.
B) Infertility is more common among males than it is among females.
C) Treatment of infertility costs society thousands of dollars per year.
D) Major advances have been made in the treatment of male infertility.
E) Minor advances have been made in the treatment of female infertility by in vitro fertilization.
Q3) Most testicular tumors originate from:
A) Germ cells
B) Sertoli cells
C) Leydig cells
D) Stromal fibroblasts
E) Tunica vaginalis testis
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women with carcinoma of the endometrium are at an increased risk of developing carcinoma of the:
A) Ovary
B) Vulva
C) Adrenals
D) Liver
E) Lung
Q2) Vaginal "spotting" (mild bleeding)after intercourse is most often seen in women who have:
A) Carcinoma of the vulva
B) Carcinoma of the cervix
C) Carcinoma of the ovary
D) Uterine leiomyoma
E) Carcinoma of the fallopian tube
Q3) All of the following tumors are squamous cell carcinomas except:
A) Carcinoma of the vulva
B) Carcinoma of the vagina
C) Carcinoma of the cervix
D) Carcinoma of the endometrium
E) Carcinoma of the labia majora
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Chapter 16: The Breast
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The breast secretes milk in response to hormonal stimulation with:
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Prolactin
D) Oxytocin
E) Aldosterone
Q2) In contrast to nonfunctioning breasts,breasts of late pregnancy and the postpartum period contain:
A) Periareolar ducts
B) Hyperplastic subareolar ducts
C) More connective tissue stroma
D) More epithelial buds
E) Acinar cells
Q3) A tumor of any size associated with distant metastases is known as Stage:
A) IV
B) III
C) II
D) I
E) 0
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary hyperaldosteronism is typically a complication of chronic:
A) Adrenal disease
B) Renal disease
C) Diabetes
D) Idiopathic hypertension
E) Emphysema
Q2) Acromegaly is typically produced by tumors of the:
A) Pituitary
B) Thyroid
C) Parathyroid
D) Adrenals
E) Testis
Q3) The most important clinical finding in patients with pheochromocytomas is:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypertension
C) Hyperestrinism
D) Hypocalcemia
E) Polyuria
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19
Chapter 18: The Skin
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes predisposes the skin to:
A) Tumors
B) Autoimmune diseases
C) Infections
D) Hyperplasia
E) Hyperpigmentation
Q2) Which of the following neoplastic lesions originates in the dermis rather than in the epidermis?
A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Actinic keratosis
D) Dermatofibroma
E) Seborrheic keratosis
Q3) What tumor is a prevalent malignant lesion in patients with AIDS?
A) Lentigo
B) Nodular melanoma
C) Acral-lentiginous melanoma
D) Dermatofibroma
E) Kaposi's sarcoma
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Migratory arthritis caused by Borrelia burgdorferi is typical of:
A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B) Trench foot
C) Lyme disease
D) Legionnaire's disease
E) Osteoarthritis
Q2) Which vitamin is essential for the formation of bones?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin E
Q3) In rheumatoid arthritis the synovium of joints is infiltrated with:
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Mast cells
D) Basophils
E) Plasma cells
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21
Chapter 20: Muscles and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common histologic type of soft tissue sarcoma in adults is:
A) Liposarcoma
B) Polymorphous cell sarcoma
C) Rhabdomyosarcoma
D) Leiomyosarcoma
E) Synovial sarcoma
Q2) After wallerian degeneration,the nerve function is restored by the:
A) Regeneration of dendrites from the perikaryon
B) Regeneration of the axon from the peripheral parts of the transected nerve
C) Regeneration of the axon from the proximal portion of the transected axon
D) Loss of the perikaryon
E) Loss of the Nissl substance
Q3) The most prominent symptom of muscle disease is:
A) Weakness
B) Fatigability
C) Myotonus
D) Fibrillation
E) Myalgia
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Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In myelomeningocele,the protrusion of the defective spinal canal contains:
A) Skin only
B) Meninges only
C) Meninges and portion of the spinal cord
D) Meninges and vertebral bodies
E) Meninges and displaced parts of the cerebellum
Q2) Tabes dorsalis is characterized by:
A) Atrophy in frontal (motor) cortex
B) Atrophy of basal ganglia
C) Hypertrophy of putamen
D) Atrophy of anterior horns of the spinal cord
E) Atrophy of the posterior columns of the spinal cord
Q3) The most common characteristic of epilepsy is:
A) Apraxia
B) Dementia
C) Seizures
D) Dysphagia
E) Tremors
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23
Chapter 22: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common primary malignant intraocular tumor of adults?
A) Meningioma
B) Retinoblastoma
C) Melanoma
D) Angiosarcoma
E) Lymphoma
Q2) Which of the following diseases is the most important cause of cataracts?
A) Amyloidosis
B) Anthracosis
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Gout
E) Hyperthyroidism
Q3) The most important cause of ulcerative keratitis is:
A) CMV
B) Herpesvirus
C) Mumps virus
D) Influenza virus
E) Human papillomavirus
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Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mike is having a hard time hearing and tries to remove some earwax with a toothpick.He suddenly feels a sharp pain and is unable to hear well.Mike has most likely caused what type of injury to what part of the ear?
A) Scratched the inner ear canal
B) Punctured the external ear canal
C) Perforated the tympanic membrane
D) Perforated the Eustachian tube
E) Experienced trauma to the stapes
Q2) What type of tumor accounts for most tumor-related hearing loss?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma of the auricle
B) Basal cell carcinoma of the external ear
C) Acoustic neuroma of cranial nerve VIII
D) Neurilemoma of cranial nerve VII
E) Pituitary adenoma
Q3) Neural hearing loss is a feature of:
A) Otosclerosis
B) Cholesteatoma
C) Otitis media
D) Multiple sclerosis
E) Presbycusis
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