Fundamentals of Surgical Technology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Surgical Technology introduces students to the core principles and practices essential to the role of a surgical technologist in the operating room. The course covers topics such as sterile technique, instrumentation, surgical procedures, and patient safety, as well as the responsibilities of the surgical technologist before, during, and after surgery. Emphasis is placed on teamwork, infection control, anatomy and physiology as it relates to surgery, and professional standards within the perioperative environment. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory sessions, and simulated experiences, students gain foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary for supporting surgical teams and ensuring optimal patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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24 Chapters
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1684 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following behaviors would NOT be considered an example of "workplace violence"?
A) rumors and gossip
B) yielding to the other's viewpoint
C) unwanted sexual advances
D) demeaning comments or criticisms
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following surgical team members would be responsible for separating instruments and disassembling the sterile field in the postoperative phase?
A) CRNA
B) CRNFA
C) CSFA
D) CST
Answer: D
Q3) The ARC/STSA administers the national certification examination for surgical technologists and owns the CST and CSFA credentials.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms describes the principles such as benevolence, trustworthiness, and honesty for the care and well-being of others in society?
A) doctrines
B) ethics
C) morals
D) precedents
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following are components of the surgical patient's medical record EXCEPT: A) anesthesia record
B) history and physical
C) interdepartmental communications
D) surgeon's preference card
Answer: D
Q3) A surgical technology student who photographs a patient and posts the image on the Internet could be sued for invasion of privacy and HIPAA violation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following religions believes in reincarnation and that the rebirth is influenced by the previous death experience?
A) Judaism
B) Muslim
C) Buddhism
D) atheism
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following diagnoses is currently used in most jurisdictions of the world to define a state of irreversible death?
A) higher brain death
B) myocardial infarction
C) respiratory arrest
D) whole brain death
Answer: D
Q3) Anointing of the sick is a practice of Muslim tradition and includes facing the patient toward the holy city of Mecca.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Morbid obesity refers to patients whose body weight is greater than how many pounds over their ideal weight?
A) 15
B) 50
C) 75
D) 100
Q2) All of the following national agencies have regulations or protocols for health care workers who may be exposed to infectious diseases in their work environment EXCEPT:
A) CDC
B) NIOSH
C) NFPA
D) OSHA
Q3) Which special patient populations would likely require diagnostic biopsies for verification of cryptosporidiosis, candidiasis, or cytomegalovirus infections?
A) HIV/AIDS
B) diabetic
C) geriatric
D) trauma
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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the acronym for the treatment administered to a surgical technologist within 2 hours following a needle stick during a procedure on a patient with HIV?
A) PASS
B) PEP
C) PPE
D) PMMA
Q2) Which of the following terms relates to the potential impact on personnel from the duties of the job description or the handling and use of equipment and supplies encountered within the perioperative environment?
A) aerobics
B) ergonomics
C) mnemonics
D) prosthetics
Q3) The physical design of an OR suite is designed to control personnel, patient, and supply traffic and may be of a race track, hotel, or specialty grouping type.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are components of a three-prong electrical plug EXCEPT:
A) current convertor
B) ground pin
C) negative (neutral)
D) positive (hot)
Q2) What is the term for the small graphic symbols displayed on a monitor screen that represent computer files or programs that a user "clicks" on to open?
A) avatar
B) byte
C) drive
D) icon
Q3) Which of the following is a safety mechanism engineered into the ESU that alerts the surgical team that the device is being activated?
A) audible tone
B) flashing light on pencil
C) smoke from generator
D) vibration of electrodes
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Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are instruments placed in perforated or mesh-bottom trays for sterilization?
A) reduce tray weight
B) penetration of sterilant
C) easy grouping of instruments
D) easy removal of instruments
Q2) Which of the following would be appropriate for soaking instruments covered with bioburden during a surgical procedure?
A) isopropyl alcohol
B) peracetic acid
C) sterile saline
D) sterile water
Q3) Where should the biological test pack be placed on the steam sterilization cart for the first run of the day?
A) top rack, back of sterilizer, under the injection valve
B) bottom rack, back of sterilizer, under the injection valve
C) top rack, front of sterilizer, over the drain
D) bottom rack, front of sterilizer, over the drain
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms describes a life-threatening condition if not immediately treated?
A) heat cramps
B) heat exhaustion
C) heat stroke
D) heat wave
Q2) The Delayed, Immediate, Minimal, and Expectant (DIME) categories are used in:
A) disaster triage
B) labor and delivery
C) surgical scheduling
D) weapons grading
Q3) DIC leads to the consumption of coagulation factors and A) plasma
B) platelets
C) red cells
D) white cells
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Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which anatomical organ does biotransformation of drugs most often take place?
A) brain
B) colon
C) kidney
D) liver
Q2) By what name is the International System of Units more commonly known?
A) apothecary system
B) household system
C) metric system
D) quantitative system
Q3) What would be the scrubbed surgical technologist's role in the general anesthesia induction phase?
A) applies cricoid pressure for intubation
B) initates the "time-out"
C) maintains absolute quiet
D) suctions oral secretions
Q4) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Op-site, collodion, adhesive gels, and Steri-strips are examples of which type of surgical dressing?
A) one-layer
B) pressure
C) rigid
D) three-layer
Q2) What type of surgical specialty rooms would be most likely equipped with three or four overhead operating lights?
A) bariatrics
B) open heart
C) plastic reconstructive
D) urology and cystoscopy
Q3) Metzenbaum, tenotomy, and Potts-Smith are examples of which type of instrument?
A) hemostats
B) retractors
C) scissors
D) tissue forceps
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Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding natural absorbable sutures?
A) They are packaged dry.
B) They are packaged wet.
C) They are braided multifilament strands.
D) They have less tissue reaction than synthetics.
Q2) Which type of needle is preferred for suturing of skin?
A) blunt
B) cutting
C) taper
D) spatula
Q3) By which intention would a purulent wound treated by debridement and placement of medicated packing, then sutured after resolution of the infection heal?
A) first intention
B) second intention
C) third intention
D) primary union
Q4) Avitene, Gelfoam, and Surgicel are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.
A)True
B)False
13
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gloving method should be performed by the surgical technologist after donning a sterile gown and before setting up the back table?
A) assisted gloving
B) closed gloving
C) open gloving
D) triple gloving
Q2) Which member of the surgical team gives permission for the patient to be positioned or transferred?
A) Anesthesia provider
B) Circulator
C) CSFA
D) CST
Q3) Which position would facilitate exposure of the operative area during a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A) Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the left
B) Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the right
C) reverse Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the left
D) reverse Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the right
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14
Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are types of white blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) EEG leads may be placed directly on the surface of the brain during craniotomy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a flexible, atraumatic device used to facilitate proper placement of catheters into lumens of vessels, ducts, or ureters?
A) balloon dilator
B) Doppler probe
C) J-guidewire
D) Swan-Ganz
Q4) Which of the following is a display and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal muscle?
A) ECG
B) EEG
C) EGD
D) EMG
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15
Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical skin preps for breast procedures for carcinoma should be performed vigorously and thoroughly to prevent postoperative surgical site infections in immunocompromised patients.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which fascial sheet is attached to the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubis?
A) innominate
B) interparietal
C) Scarpa's
D) transversalis
Q3) Which handheld retractors are frequently used to retract tissues during thyroidectomy?
A) Green
B) Harrington
C) malleable
D) Weinberg
Q4) The Hasson technique for establishing pneumoperitoneum requires the use of a Verres needle.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pistol-grip type of instrument might be found in a D&C tray for cervical biopsy?
A) Kerrison
B) pituitary
C) Takahashi
D) Tischler
Q2) Cherney, Maylard, and Pfannenstiel are examples of gynecologic:
A) fenestrated drape sheets
B) self-retaining retractors
C) transverse abdominal incisions
D) urinary drainage catheters
Q3) When is the first "uterine count" performed in a cesarean section?
A) when the umbilical cord is clamped and cord blood is collected
B) immediately prior to delivery of the placenta
C) when the first suture is given for closure of the uterus
D) as the fascial or muscle layer is being sutured
Q4) Laparoscopic linear stapling devices are often used to ligate and cut the uterine ligaments and vessels during LAVH.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cryotherapy uses which of the following to seal retinal tears and holes?
A) cold
B) heat
C) monopolar current
D) ultrasonic energy
Q2) Overhead OR spotlights should be placed on highest setting to provide necessary illumination during intraocular procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Into which structures do the lacrimal ducts drain tears?
A) ethmoid sinuses
B) maxillary sinuses
C) nasal cavity
D) oropharynx
Q4) The normal condition of the lens of the eye is:
A) opaque and biconcave
B) opaque and biconvex
C) transparent and biconcave
D) transparent and biconvex
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instrument is used to measure the distance from incus to stapes footplate for selection of a prosthesis in stapedectomy?
A) caliper
B) depth gauge
C) sound
D) trial/sizer
Q2) Which type of mechanical action of a drill attachment is MOST commonly used in otologic procedures?
A) oscillating
B) reciprocating
C) rotating
D) sagittal
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a category of tonsil tissue?
A) palatine
B) pharyngeal
C) laryngeal
D) lingual
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19
Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hemostatic agent is used during oral and maxillofacial procedures that requires advising the anesthesia provider of its use?
A) absorbable collagen
B) bone wax
C) epinephrine
D) topical thrombin
Q2) Portion of the tooth that contains blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue
A)Gingiva
B)Enophthalmos
C)Panoramic
D)Pulp
E)Alveolar process
F)Weider
G)Dentin
H)Caldwell
I)Malocclusion
J)Molars
Q3) Dental drills are always used to cut bone so that teeth can be extracted whole.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Cupid's bow" is reconstructed in which of the following procedures?
A) cleft lip repair
B) malar implants
C) nipple recreation
D) syndactyly release
Q2) The rule of nines is used in burn patients to estimate:
A) body surface area burned
B) depth of tissue destruction
C) length of estimated healing time
D) protocols for burn dressing changes
Q3) Which anatomical area is a TRAM flap used to reconstruct?
A) breast
B) hand
C) lip
D) palate
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a type of liposuction?
A) electrosurgery
B) laser
C) tumescent
D) ultrasonic
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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Just before the surgeon clamps the renal vessels of the donor's kidney, what does the anesthesia provider put in the IV?
A) heparin and mannitol
B) protamine sulfate
C) Ringer's lactate
D) furosemide
Q2) Which suture configuration is used to anastomose vessels in transplants?
A) fine, absorbable, single-armed
B) fine, nonabsorbable, double-armed
C) heavy, absorbable, single-armed
D) heavy, nonabsorbable, double-armed
Q3) What is done with the edge of the ilium that is brought out through the abdominal wall for stoma creation?
A) The edges are everted and affixed to the skin.
B) A purse-string suture is placed to cinch it shut.
C) It is cut into four sections and tacked to the skin.
D) A Penrose drain is inserted and pulled over the edge.
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Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes?
A) alligator
B) cobra
C) duck bill
D) rat tooth
Q2) What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty?
A) Blot any bleeding bone surfaces carefully with sponge stick.
B) Collect bone chips in wound carefully with cupped tissue forceps.
C) Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.
D) Suction smoke from operative site created by heated tissues.
Q3) Which of the following is the longest bone in the upper extremity?
A) femur
B) humerus
C) radius
D) ulna
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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the device that is attached to suction for collection of mucous or bronchial washing specimens?
A) aerobic culture tube
B) insufflation tubing
C) myringotomy tube
D) Lukens tube
Q2) Which artery accounts for approximately 50% of occlusive coronary lesions?
A) circumflex branch
B) left anterior descending
C) mammary
D) right coronary
Q3) What is the medical term for coughing up blood?
A) asthma
B) bronchitis
C) hemoptysis
D) pneumonitis
Q4) Lung reduction surgery is performed for patients with emphysema.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Into which vessel is a double-lumen Groshong catheter routinely inserted?
A) right carotid artery
B) right femoral artery
C) right jugular vein
D) right subclavian vein
Q2) Which of the following would be the suture technique and type used to anastomose a bifurcated graft limb to an artery?
A) interrupted 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture
B) running 5-0 or 6-0 absorbable suture
C) interrupted 5-0 or 6-0 absorbable suture
D) running 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture
Q3) Dermal atrophy, hemorrhage, ulceration, and cellulitis are complications of:
A) abdominal aortic aneurysm
B) carotid stenosis
C) pulmonary embolus
D) varicose veins
Q4) The lumens of veins are larger than the lumens of arteries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The circle of Willis is a:
A) network of connected arteries at the base of the brain
B) structure of supporting connective tissue for the brain
C) complex neural network that connects the two hemispheres of the brain
D) series of channels and foramina within the cerebrospinal fluid network of the brain
Q2) What is the name of the dural fold that separates the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum?
A) corpus callosum
B) choroid plexus
C) falx cerebri
D) falx cerebelli
Q3) Special attention must be taken during application and removal of the Mayfield cranial fixation device due to the removal of the OR table head piece.
A)True
B)False
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