Fundamentals of Surgery
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Surgery provides students with a comprehensive introduction to the principles and practices of surgery. Covering essential topics such as wound healing, infection control, preoperative and postoperative care, aseptic techniques, and basic surgical procedures, this course emphasizes the scientific foundations underpinning surgical practice. Students will explore the roles of the surgical team, patient safety protocols, and ethical considerations in surgical care. Through a combination of lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on training, learners are prepared to recognize surgical indications, participate in clinical decision-making, and understand the technologies and instruments commonly used in the operating room.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Surgical Procedures 1st Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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18 Chapters
356 Verified Questions
356 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2110
2
Chapter 1: Importance of the Surgical Technologist on the Surgical Team
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42048
Sample Questions
Q1) Professional settings for the surgical technologist can include:
A)Hospital suites and ambulatory surgery centers.
B)Ambulatory surgery centers and PACU
C)Labor and delivery units and for a physician as a private scrub
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following describes "An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury, or the risk thereof"?
A)Guideline initiative
B)Sentinel event
C)Time out
D)Paradigm shift
Answer: B
Q3) The scrub surgical technologist is defined as the:
A)The non sterile member of the surgical team.
B)The assisting member of the team.
C)The sterile member of the team
D)None of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42049
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the McBurney incision is most correct?
A)It is an oblique inguinal incision in the left lower quadrant.
B)It is the incision of choice to repair a direct inguinal hernia.
C)It is an oblique inguinal incision in the right lower quadrant.
D)The direction is more transverse than oblique.
Answer: C
Q2) Select the statement that most correctly matches a risk factor for adhesions with an appropriate preventive strategy.
A)Multiple surgeries may be managed with the use of sequential compression devices.
B)Glove powder adhesions can be prevented with cellulose mist.
C)Patients with endometriosis may be best served with a laparoscopic approach.
D)Fibrous bands within the peritoneum can be treated with sterile talcum powder.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas and Spleen
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42050
Sample Questions
Q1) The Whipple procedure is the removal of the head of the pancreas, the entire duodenum, a portion of the jejunum, the distal third of the stomach, and the ____________ as a surgical treatment for____________.
A)left lobe of the liver; metastatic hepatocytoma
B)distal segment of the spleen; pancreatic metastasis
C)inferior margin of the ligament of Treitz; pancreatic cancer
D)lower half of the common bile duct; pancreatic cancer
Answer: D
Q2) The liver is essential in the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, generating nutrient stores of which substance that supplies energy sources to the brain and body?
A)Carbohydrate glucose substrate
B)Glycogen
C)Serum glucosamine
D)Bile salts
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Repair of Hernias
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42051
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the triad of the boundaries of the Hesselbach triangle.
A)Inguinal ligament, rectus abdominis muscle, deep epigastric vessels
B)Rectus abdominis muscle, Cooper ligament, aponeurosis
C)Scarpa's fascia, deep epigastric vessels, external oblique muscle
D)Inguinal ligament, inguinal canal, Cooper ligament
Q2) While direct and indirect hernias both protrude into the inguinal canal and represent tears in the transversalis fascia, which one of the two occurs within the Hesselbach triangle?
A)Direct inguinal hernia
B)Indirect inguinal hernia
C)Both options occur within the triangle
D)Neither option occurs within Hesselbach's triangle
Q3) Hernia-entrapped viscera, typically loops of small intestine, will result in intestinal obstruction with resulting pain, vomiting, and distention. What is the appropriate descriptive diagnosis of this condition?
A)Nonreducible hernia
B)Incarcerated hernia
C)Torsion of the hernia sac
D)Gangrenous bowel
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42052
Sample Questions
Q1) When catheterizing the female patient, the urethra must be located. The correct order of the external organs of the vulva listed anterior to posterior is:
A)mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, urethra, clitoris, vaginal opening.
B)labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, urethra, vaginal opening, mons pubis.
C)mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, urethra, vaginal opening.
D)labia majora, labia minora, urethra, mons pubis, clitoris, vaginal opening.
Q2) Select the congenital anomaly that best reflects indications for fetal surgery.
A)Imperforate anus
B)Tracheoesophageal fistula
C)Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
D)Nonobstructive uropathy
Q3) An example of perineal glands that secrete mucus is:
A)Skene's glands.
B)Bartholin's glands.
C)perineal glands.
D)labial glands.
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7
Chapter 6: Genitourinary Surgery
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42053
Sample Questions
Q1) The renal artery and vein enter and exit the kidney on the medial side of the organ through a concave area known as the:
A)calyces.
B)pedicle.
C)hilum.
D)renal pelvis.
Q2) The kidneys are highly vascular organs. Approximately how much of the entire circulating blood volume do the kidneys process at any one time?
A)One fifth
B)1 ml per kg body weight
C)One third
D)30 ml per hour
Q3) Although each potential kidney transplant recipient is judged individually as a candidate, which condition from the list below would most likely eliminate a patient as a candidate for kidney transplant?
A)Systemic disease
B)Cardiovascular disease
C)Post-treatment cancer in remission
D)Active cancer
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypothyroidism results from undersecretion of thyroid hormone. The most common cause of primary hypothyroidism is chronic autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto's disease). Select the set of symptoms that is most commonly associated with hypothyroidism.
A)Dry skin, edema, constipation, and depression
B)Irritability, mood changes, visual disturbances, and diarrhea
C)Heat intolerance, anorexia, hair loss, and menstrual irregularity
D)Bradycardia, hypotension, hypoxia, and poor concentration
Q2) Postoperative hoarseness, obstructed airway, or paralysis of the vocal cords is a serious complication of thyroid surgery. During surgery, care is taken to identify and protect which nerve?
A)Superior branch of the vagus nerve
B)Intrinsic cricothyroid nerve
C)Recurrent tracheoesophageal nerve
D)Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Q3) The pyramidal lobe of the thyroid is described as:
A)a small lobe often involved in 30% of cases of thyroid dysfunction.
B)a protrusion of an immature thyroglossal duct cyst overgrowth.
C)a thin upward protrusion of thyroid tissue from the isthmus.
D)a vestige of an embryonic thyroid cyst.
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Chapter 8: Breast Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42055
Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of breast cancer surgery is removal of the mass with a margin of normal tissue and a good cosmetic result. The choice of procedure depends on the size and site of the mass, the characteristics of the cells, the stage of the disease, and the patient's choice. Select the statement that best reflects the difference between minimally invasive excisional breast biopsy with stereotactic image-guided location and removal of tissue.
A)The stereotactic biopsy produces a specimen for cytologic study, while the excisional biopsy produces a histologic specimen.
B)The excisional biopsy is performed under direct visualization, while the stereotactic approach is image-guided.
C)The excisional approach requires drain placement, while stereotactic biopsy rarely requires a drain.
D)Stereotactic biopsy is recommended for lesions in the areola, high in the axilla, or chest wall while excisional biopsy is not appropriate for these areas.
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Chapter 9: Ophthalmic Surgery
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42056
Sample Questions
Q1) A cataract is defined as any opacification of the lens. Cataracts may be congenital, posttraumatic, or induced by medications, but are most commonly the result of age-related changes. Which of the following statements about cataracts best describes its presentation or etiology (cause)?
A)A cataract can be compared to a window that is frosted or yellowed.
B)Cataracts can be classified as brittle or pliable, based on collagen matrix fibers in the capsule.
C)Cataracts are an early sign of type 1 diabetes.
D)The cloudiness is caused by clumping of lipoproteins in the lens capsule.
Q2) Miotics and mydriatics produce opposite effects on the pupil of the eye. Select the most appropriate statement about miotic and mydriatic drugs.
A)Miotic drugs are anticholinergic drugs useful in lowering intraocular pressure.
B)Mydriatic drugs, such as phenylephrine, dilate the pupil.
C)Miotic drugs dilate the pupil for posterior chamber access after lens removal.
D)Mydriatic drugs are often referred to as cycloplegics.
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11
Chapter 10: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42057
Sample Questions
Q1) The supraglottis, glottis, and the subglottis represent three portions of which structure of the throat?
A)Epiglottis
B)Tongue
C)Larynx
D)Pharynx
Q2) When laryngoscopy, bronchoscopy, and esophagoscopy are performed in a single session on a patient, the procedure is termed triple endoscopy or panendoscopy. The purpose of triple endoscopy is usually diagnostic. A critical role of the surgical technologist in the scrub role during this complex diagnostic procedure is that of:
A)documenting the serial numbers of the scopes in the perioperative record.
B)identifying, containing, and labeling all specimens accurately.
C)carefully handling and reprocessing the endoscopes.
D)assisting the anesthesia provider with maintaining the airway.
Q3) Of the three salivary glands, which one is the largest?
A)Sublingual
B)Submandibular
C)Zygomatic
D)Parotid
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Orthopedic Surgery
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42058
Sample Questions
Q1) Bands of dense connective tissue that hold bone to bone
A)Ligaments
B)Tendons
C)Cartilage
Q2) The vertebral bodies are connected by several cartilaginous joints. What purpose does this connection enable?
A)Communication between the spinous processes and vertebral bodies
B)Vertebral flexion, rotation, and extension
C)Vertebral flexion and torsion
D)Sustains integrity and spinal support
Q3) Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA, or bone cement) is an acrylic, cement-like substance composed of a liquid methyl methacrylate monomer and a powder methyl methacrylate-styrene co-polymer. What element is added to the powder component to make the finished product radiopaque?
A)Radiografinpaque
B)Polycrylate sodium
C)Barium
D)Granular allograft bone
Q4) Hematoma formation
Q5) Invasion of osteoblasts
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Neurosurgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42059
Sample Questions
Q1) What is a common congenital neural tube closure defect that may present as a fluid-filled sac in the lumbar region and contains neural elements?
A)Encephalocele
B)Chiari malformation
C)Hydrocephalus
D)Myelomeningocele
Q2) Which of the following is the anatomical bloodless plane that contains loose areolar tissue and permits mobility of the scalp?
A)Subarachnoid space
B)Galea aponeurotica
C)Subgaleal space
D)Diploe table
Q3) Which of the following is the tissue most often responsible for spinal nerve root compression in patients with herniated intervertebral disks?
A)Annulus fibrosis
B)Nucleus pulposus
C)Posterior longitudinal ligament
D)Spinous process
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Chapter 13: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42060
Sample Questions
Q1) The three most common skin cancers are basal cell, squamous cell, and melanoma.Treated early, skin cancers such as squamous cell and basal cell carcinomas may be cured by simple excision and closure (with pathologic diagnosis to ensure disease-free margins).Melanoma is treated much more aggressively because of its high mortality. The A-B-C-Ds of the warning signs for skin cancer stand for:
A)acute, borderline, color, dysplastic.
B)asymmetry, blanching, cohesion, depth.
C)aplastic, bilateral, chronic, dysplastic.
D)asymmetry, border, color, diameter.
Q2) A variety of implantable devices are used in aesthetic and reconstructive plastic surgery procedures. Tracking of these devices is critical to patient safety. Institutions must report any incident of death or serious injury relating to the use of a medical device. What regulatory agency, commission, or act mandates this process when medical devices fail or cause injury?
A)The Joint Commission agency for sentinel events
B)Original Equipment Manufacturer Device Tracking Commission
C)Food and Drug Administration Device Failure and Recall Act
D)Safe Medical Device Act
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Chapter 14: Thoracic Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42061
Sample Questions
Q1) During an endoscopic thoracic sympathectomy for hyperhidrosis, what action by the anesthesia provider ensures exposure and minimizes damage to the lung?
A)Positions the patient in the anterolateral position with an expandable axillary roll.
B)Decreases ventilatory pressure to decrease lung expansion during dissection.
C)Deflates the lung on recommendation of the surgeon during dissection and resection.
D)Decreases positive end-expiratory pressure until resection is complete.
Q2) The indications for single-lung transplantation (SLT) include restrictive lung disease, emphysema, pulmonary hypertension, and other nonseptic end-stage pulmonary diseases, while the indications for double-lung transplantation (DLT) include patients with:
A)bilateral early-stage sarcoma without systemic disease.
B)bilateral chronic infection causing end-stage renal failure.
C)cystic fibrosis in end-stage pulmonary failure.
D)bilateral disease, recent ex-smoker with a suitable living-related donor.
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Chapter 15: Vascular Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42062
Sample Questions
Q1) Karen Masterson, circulator, is preparing the OR for a vascular procedure where heparin will be used. She has obtained the heparin from the medication dispensing system and is preparing to mix the heparin in IV saline according to the dosage on the surgeon's preference/pick list. The scrub person, Judy Rothman, a surgical technologist, is preparing the sterile back table. What expected and appropriate risk reduction strategies related to the use of heparin would both Karen and Judy perform?
A)Label syringe, medicine cup, and IV saline bag with the drug name, dosage, strength, date, and expiration date.
B)Verify the drug and labels with three qualified individuals including the surgeon.
C)Be aware of sound-alike cautions by not placing the heparin vial next to Hespan.
D)Comply with the 7 rights of medication storage and documentation.
Q2) What properties enable arteries to compensate for changes in blood pressure and blood volume?
A)Regeneration and thick muscularis
B)Dilatation and absence of valves
C)Contraction and constriction
D)Elasticity and distensibility
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Cardiac Surgery
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42063
Sample Questions
Q1) Complete heart block and bradydysrhythmias are the most common indications for pacemaker implantation. A permanent pacemaker (pulse generator and electrodes) initiates atrial or ventricular contraction, or both. What therapy might be used for acute forms of heart block and dysrhythmias that occasionally occur during and after cardiac surgery?
A)Transvenous endocardial stimulation
B)A temporary pacemaker
C)Epicardial cardioversion
D)Resynchronization therapy
Q2) Open commissurotomy of the mitral valve, which is performed for mitral stenosis, is the separation of fused, adherent leaflets of the mitral valve. The circulator assists in placing the patient in the supine position for a median sternotomy. The setup is the same as that described for open-heart procedures, with mitral valve instruments. Select two additional actions that are relevant to the patient with open commissurotomy from those listed below.
A)Have valve replacement instruments available.
B)Have tricuspid prosthetic implants available.
C)Have a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) probe and machine available.
D)Have anterolateral positioning devices available if valve replacement is needed.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Pediatric Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42064
Sample Questions
Q1) Vascular access in pediatric patients may be established intraoperatively for short-term (weeks) or long-term (months, years) use. Select all the examples of a long-term (months, weeks) use vascular access catheter from the list below.
A)Central venous line
B)Implanted port
C)Peripherally inserted central venous catheter (PICC)
D)Power injection port
Q2) Infants and children with severe gastroesophageal (GE) reflux can have life-threatening complications, including obstructive apnea, aspiration pneumonia, esophagitis, and failure to thrive. What is the name of the procedure, performed open or laparoscopically, that is designed to create a competent antireflux barrier?
A)Nissen fundoplication
B)Roux-en-Y bypass
C)Pyloromyotomy with pyloroplasty
D)Sphincterotomy
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Chapter 18: Trauma Surgery
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42065
Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient arrives in the ED, the trauma team initiates a primary assessment. This is a logical, orderly process of patient assessment for potential life threats. These assessment activities are based on established protocols for advanced trauma life support (ATLS). The mnemonic "ABCDE" is used, representing assessment of the following: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure. The D and E represent what degree of investigation?
A)D = musculoskeletal impairments; E = environmental issues
B)D = a brief reflex examination; E = extraneous sensory impairments
C)D = history of prior impairments; E = events that contributed to the injury
D)D = a brief neurologic examination; E = exposure to reveal all life-threatening injuries
Q2) What special consideration should be made when assessing a pediatric trauma patient for level of consciousness?
A)Use the modified Glasgow Coma Scale for children.
B)Use the Broslow tape.
C)Stimulate the child gently in case he or she is a victim of shaken baby syndrome.
D)Use the universal Glasgow Coma Scale for all ages.
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Page 20