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Fundamentals of Space Science Practice Exam - 2158 Verified Questions

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Fundamentals of Space Science Practice Exam

Course Introduction

Fundamentals of Space Science provides an introduction to the basic concepts, principles, and phenomena of space science. The course covers topics such as the structure and evolution of the universe, the solar system and its formation, the laws of motion and gravitation, basic astrophysics, space exploration technology, and current missions. Students will gain an understanding of observational and experimental methods used in space science, explore the impact of space science on society, and examine emerging trends in the field. This foundational knowledge prepares students for further study in astronomy, astrophysics, and related disciplines.

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The Essential Cosmic Perspective 6th Edition by Jeffrey O. Bennett

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18 Chapters

2158 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Our Place in the Universe

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Sample Questions

Q1) From the fact that virtually every galaxy is moving away from us and more distant galaxies are moving away from us at a faster rate than closer ones, we conclude that

A) the Milky Way Galaxy is expanding.

B) we are located at the center of the universe.

C) the farthest galaxies will eventually be moving faster than the speed of light.

D) the universe is expanding.

E) the universe is shrinking.

Answer: D

Q2) What is nuclear fusion?

A) an explosion caused by putting together two volatile chemicals

B) the process of splitting nuclei to produce energy

C) the process of turning matter into pure energy

D) the process of combining lightweight nuclei to make heavier nuclei

E) a process that only occurs in bombs

Answer: D

Q3) Consider the following statement, and explain whether or not it is sensible: Earth is always precisely 1 AU from the Sun.

Answer: Not sensible: One AU is the average distance between Earth and the Sun.

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Chapter 2: Discovering the Universe for Yourself

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Sample Questions

Q1) It is possible to see the full moon rising just before sunrise.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) If it is midnight in New York, it is

A) daytime in Sydney, Australia.

B) midnight in Sydney, Australia.

C) midnight in Los Angeles.

D) midday in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.

E) midnight everywhere.

Answer: A

Q3) If the Moon is setting at 6 A.M., the phase of the Moon must be

A) first quarter.

B) third quarter.

C) full.

D) new.

E) waning crescent.

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: The Science of Astronomy

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Sample Questions

Q1) From Kepler's third law, a hypothetical planet that is twice as far from the Sun as Earth should have a period of

A) 1/2 Earth year.

B) 1 Earth year.

C) 2 Earth years.

D) more than 2 Earth years.

E) It depends on the planet's mass.

Answer: D

Q2) People of central Africa predicted the weather by

A) recording the seasonal changes in average temperature.

B) observing the path of the planets across the sky.

C) observing the length of the lunar cycle.

D) observing the orientation of the crescent moon relative to the horizon.

E) observing the location of the Moon relative to the Sun in the sky.

Answer: D

Q3) A scientific model must make an observational prediction.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Making Sense of the Universe: Understanding

Motion, Energy, and Gravity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Radiative energy is ________.

A) energy carried by light

B) heat energy

C) energy from nuclear power plants

D) energy of motion

Q2) Imagine another solar system, with a star more massive than the Sun. Suppose a planet with the same mass as Earth orbits at a distance of 1 AU from the star. How would the planet's year (orbital period) compare to Earth's year?

A) The planet's year would be shorter than Earth's.

B) The planet's year would be longer than Earth's.

C) The planet's year would be the same as Earth's.

D) An orbit at a distance of 1 AU would not be possible around a star more massive than the Sun.

Q3) Suppose it takes 6 seconds for a watermelon to fall to the ground after being dropped from a tall building. If there were no air resistance, so that the watermelon would fall with the acceleration of gravity, about how fast would it be going when it hit the ground?

Q4) State Newton's three laws of motion.

Q5) Explain what synchronous rotation is. What is it caused by? Give an example.

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Chapter 5: Light: the Cosmic Messenger

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following observational techniques is most appropriate for measuring Doppler shifts?

A) Spectroscopy (taking a spectrum)

B) Imaging (taking a picture)

C) Timing (measuring how the amount of light changes with time)

Q2) Which of the following wavelength regions cannot be studied with telescopes on the ground?

A) radio waves

B) ultraviolet

C) X-rays

D) both B and C

E) both A and C

Q3) The most common isotope of oxygen has atomic number 8 and atomic mass number 16. Another isotope has two extra neutrons. What are the atomic number and atomic mass number of this isotope?

Q4) Explain what an interferometer is and give an example.

Q5) The greater the wavelength of light, the greater its energy. A)True

B)False

Q6) Define atomic mass number

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Formation of Planetary Systems: Our Solar

System and Beyond

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain why the early Earth did not form with water, and how it gained it later in its formation.

Q2) A planet's size can be determined by observing its transit across a star.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Approximately how many other planetary systems have been discovered to date?

A) ten

B) a few hundred

C) a few thousand

D) tens of thousands

E) millions

Q4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the inner planets?

A) They are relatively smaller than the outer planets.

B) They all have solid, rocky surfaces.

C) Their orbits are relatively closely spaced.

D) They all have substantial atmospheres.

E) They have very few, if any, satellites.

Q5) Suppose the entire solar nebula had cooled to a very low temperature before the solar wind cleared it away. Do you think Earth would be the same? Why or why not?

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Chapter 7: Earth and the Terrestrial Worlds

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why does Earth have so little carbon dioxide in its atmosphere compared to Venus?

A) Earth has just as much carbon dioxide as Venus, but most of it is locked up in carbonate rocks rather than being free in the atmosphere.

B) Earth's volcanoes outgassed far less carbon dioxide than those on Venus.

C) Earth once had a lot of carbon dioxide, but it was lost to space during the heavy bombardment early in our solar system's history.

D) Chemical reactions turned Earth's carbon dioxide into nitrogen.

Q2) Based on its surface features, the most important event on Venus in the past billion years or so was ________.

A) a global "repaving" that erased essentially all the surface features that had existed earlier

B) the eruption of a giant volcano that formed one of Venus's "continents"

C) the impact of an unusually large asteroid that left a deep scar on one side of the planet

D) the onset of mantle convection, which caused Venus's lithosphere to split into plates like those on Earth

Q3) How does the size of a planet determine its internal temperature?

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Jovian Planet Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Suppose you could float in space just a few meters above Saturn's rings. What would you see as you looked down on the rings?

A) countless icy particles, ranging in size from dust grains to large boulders

B) a solid, shiny surface, looking much like a piece of a DVD but a lot bigger

C) dozens of large "moonlets" made of metal and rock, each a few kilometers across

D) Nothing-up close, the rings would be so completely invisible that you'd have no way to know they are there. They can be seen only from a distance.

Q2) Which of the above applies to Triton?

A)the most volcanically active body in the solar system

B)thought to have a deep, subsurface ocean of liquid water

C)probably a captured Kuiper Belt object

D)the target of the Huygens probe, which landed on its surface.

E)the largest moon in the solar system

Q3) Overall, Jupiter's composition is most like that of ________.

A) the Sun

B) Earth

C) a comet

D) an asteroid

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Chapter 9: Asteroids, Comets, and Dwarf Planets: Their

Nature, Orbits, and Impacts

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Sample Questions

Q1) The total number of comets orbiting the Sun is estimated to be about ________.

A) 1 trillion

B) 1,000

C) 100,000

D) 1 million

Q2) What happened to the "Impactor" of the Deep Impact mission?

A) It landed safely on the surface of the comet and returned material to Earth.

B) It created a small crater on the comet.

C) It blasted straight through the comet leaving a small hole.

D) It blasted the comet apart, thus preventing a potential Earth collision.

E) It missed the comet altogether.

Q3) It is very cold, but otherwise comfortable. You breathe deeply. Although there is no oxygen, the air pressure is quite tolerable and seems almost Earth-like (because it is mostly nitrogen). Your vista includes the breathtaking sights of an ocean of liquid methane and methane-snow-capped mountains (although the atmosphere is very smoggy, and the visibility is limited). Your solar day is about 16 Earth days long. A large, ringed object seems to hang in your sky, never rising or setting; however, it does go through phases from new to full and back to new again with the same 16-day period as the rising and setting of the Sun.

Q4) What are "dwarf planets"?

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Chapter 10: Our Star

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Sample Questions

Q1) At the center of the Sun, nuclear fusion converts hydrogen into

A) hydrogen compounds such as methane.

B) molecular hydrogen.

C) radiation and elements such as carbon and nitrogen.

D) radioactive elements such as uranium and plutonium.

E) helium, gamma rays, and neutrinos.

Q2) How much mass does the Sun lose through nuclear fusion per second?

A) 4 tons

B) 4 million tons

C) 600 tons

D) 600 million tons

E) Nothing: mass-energy is conserved.

Q3) What is the solution to the solar neutrino problem?

A) The Sun is generating energy other than by nuclear fusion.

B) The Sun is generating much less energy than we think it is.

C) We did not know how to detect neutrinos.

D) Not all fusion reactions create neutrinos.

E) The electron neutrinos created in the Sun's core change into another type of neutrino that we did not detect.

Q4) What was the solar neutrino problem?

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Surveying the Stars

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Sample Questions

Q1) Star A has an apparent magnitude of 3, and Star B has an apparent magnitude of 5. Which star is brighter in our sky?

A) Star A

B) Star B

C) There is not enough information to answer the question.

D) The two stars have the same brightness in our sky, but Star A is closer to us than Star B.

Q2) The sketch above shows groups of stars on the H-R diagram, labeled (a) through (e); note that (a) represents the entire main sequence while (c) and (d) represent only small parts of the main sequence. Which group represents stars that are cool and dim?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

Q3) All stars spend approximately the same amount of time on the main sequence. A)True

B)False

Q4) Which group includes the Sun?

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Chapter 12: Star Stuff

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which two energy sources can help a star maintain its internal thermal pressure?

A) nuclear fusion and gravitational contraction

B) nuclear fission and gravitational contraction

C) nuclear fusion and nuclear fission

D) chemical reactions and gravitational contraction

E) nuclear fusion and chemical reactions

Q2) What did Carl Sagan mean when he said that we are all "star stuff"?

A) that life would be impossible without energy from the Sun

B) that the Earth formed at the same time as the Sun

C) that the carbon, oxygen, and other elements essential to life were created by nucleosynthesis in stellar cores

D) that the Sun formed from the interstellar medium: the "stuff" between the stars

E) that the Universe contains billions of stars

Q3) The most massive stars generate energy at the end of their lives by fusing iron in their cores.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Explain how some stars form in binary systems.

Q5) Briefly summarize the stages of life for a low-mass star.

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Chapter 13: Bizarre Stellar Graveyard

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Sample Questions

Q1) A white dwarf is ________.

A) what most stars become when they die

B) a precursor to a black hole

C) an early stage of a neutron star

D) a brown dwarf that has exhausted its fuel for nuclear fusion

Q2) Evidence that Pulsars are Neutron Stars: Suppose a friend of yours insists that pulsars are artificial time-signals constructed by aliens. List and explain all of the observational evidence that pulsars are actually natural phenomena, namely rapidly spinning neutron stars.

Q3) More massive white dwarfs are smaller than less massive white dwarfs

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is the basic definition of a black hole?

A) An object with gravity so strong that not even light can escape

B) A dead star that has faded from view

C) Any object made from dark matter

D) A compact mass that emits no visible light

Q5) All massive-star supernovae leave behind black holes as remnants.

A)True

B)False

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Our Galaxy

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Sample Questions

Q1) All heavy elements are made during supernova explosions.

A)True

B)False

Q2) How do disk stars orbit the center of the galaxy?

A) They all orbit in roughly the same plane and in the same direction.

B) They have orbits randomly inclined and in different directions relative to the galactic center.

C) They follow spiral paths along the spiral arms.

D) They follow orbits that move up and down through the disk, typically taking them about 50,000 light-years above and below the disk on each orbit.

Q3) Interstellar dust consists mostly of ________.

A) microscopic particles of carbon and silicon

B) ozone "smog"

C) hydrogen and helium atoms

D) tiny grains of water ice

E) the same tiny particles found in household dust

Q4) We can see most of the Milky Way with visible light.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 15: Galaxies and the Foundation of Modern Cosmology

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a photo like the Hubble Deep Field (Figure 15.1 in your textbook), we see galaxies in many different stages of their lives. In general, which galaxies are seen in the earliest (youngest) stages of their lives?

A) The galaxies that are farthest away

B) The galaxies that have the most hot, young O and B stars

C) The galaxies that are the reddest in color

D) The galaxies that are nearest to us

Q2) One possible explanation for a galaxy's type invokes the angular momentum of the protogalactic cloud from which it formed. Suppose a galaxy forms from a protogalactic cloud with a lot of angular momentum. Assuming its type has not changed due to other interactions, we'd expect this galaxy to be ________.

A) an irregular galaxy

B) an elliptical galaxy

C) a spiral galaxy

D) a torn and incoherent galaxy

Q3) List at least three qualities that make an astronomical object a good standard candle.

Q4) How do quasars produce so much energy in such a small volume.

Q5) How does a starburst end? What might happen to the galaxy afterwards?

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Chapter 16: Dark Matter, Dark Energy, and the Fate of the Universe

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Sample Questions

Q1) How do we know the expansion of the universe is accelerating?

A) We see more of the universe every night, as the observable universe grows in size.

B) Redshifts of distant galaxies are increasing with time, so when we repeat the measurements, the redshifts are larger.

C) The rotation curves of galaxies indicate the universe is speeding up.

D) We're really not that sure the expansion is accelerating, it's all just a theory.

E) White dwarf supernova in distant galaxies are fainter than they would be if the expansion were not accelerating.

Q2) Based on current evidence, how does the actual average density of matter in the universe compare to the critical density?

A) The actual density, even with dark matter included, is less than about a third of the critical density.

B) If we include dark matter, the actual density equals the critical density.

C) The actual density of dark matter and luminous matter combined is no more than about 1% of the critical density.

D) The actual density of matter is many times higher than the critical density.

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Chapter 17: The Beginning of Time

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is the nucleosynthesis era so important in determining the chemical composition of the universe?

A) All the elements except hydrogen were produced in the nucleosynthesis era.

B) We can observe spectra from this era to determine what the primordial mix of the elements was at the beginning of the universe.

C) Except for a small amount of elements heavier than helium produced later by stars, the chemical composition of the universe is the same now as at the end of the nucleosynthesis era.

D) We can study the processes that occurred during the nucleosynthesis era to determine how most of the elements in the universe were created.

E) By knowing how much matter was created during the nucleosynthesis era, we can determine whether the universe is open or closed.

Q2) GUT theories predict that protons will eventually decay, causing all solid objects in the universe to fall apart if the universe keeps expanding forever.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is Olbers' paradox, and what is its resolution?

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Life in the Universe

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following describes a major danger of interstellar travel at near-light speed?

A) Atoms and ions in interstellar space will hit a fast-moving spacecraft like a flood of dangerous cosmic rays.

B) Any interstellar journey will take much longer than the lives of the crew members.

C) Time dilation will slow the heart beats of the crew to a dangerously low rate.

D) Asteroid fields floating in interstellar space will present a navigational challenge.

Q2) Why do we need new forms of technology to make it possible to journey to the nearest stars within a human lifetime?

Q3) The only place outside of Earth for which there is irrefutable evidence for ancient, microbial life is

A) the Moon.

B) Mars.

C) Europa.

D) Titan.

E) None of the above-there is no irrefutable evidence for life beyond Earth.

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