Fundamentals of Sonography Test Bank
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Sonography introduces students to the basic principles, techniques, and applications of medical ultrasound imaging. This course covers the physics of ultrasound waves, instrumentation, image acquisition, and interpretation of sonographic images. Students will learn about various sonographic modalities, patient care, and safety, as well as develop foundational hands-on scanning skills. Emphasis is placed on understanding anatomical structures, clinical indications for sonography, and the professional and ethical responsibilities of a sonographer in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Sonography Introduction to Normal Structure and Function 3rd Edition by Reva Arnez Curry
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31 Chapters
845 Verified Questions
845 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Before and After the Ultrasound Examination
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A living will can be found in the patient's chart. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Wearing gloves when handling body fluids is a strategy for reducing exposure to blood-borne pathogens. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Inflamed appendix ____
Answer: IR
An interpretive report (final report) includes a detailed description of the ultrasound findings and a diagnosis (or diagnoses) derived from them.
Q4) Performing frequent hand washing is a strategy for reducing exposure to blood-borne pathogens. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Ultrasound Instrumentation: Knobology, Imaging Processing, and Storage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Teleradiology involves radiologic consultations done within the imaging center where an examination was performed. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The advantages of the Picture Archiving and Communication System include a capability for remote radiologic consultation. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The posterior border of the gallbladder cannot be seen on sagittal view; it appears to be cut off. Which control is most likely to correct this?
A) Depth
B) Frequency
C) TGC
D) Cine loop
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: General Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient wanders too far off the subject during the medical history, the sonographer should ___________________________________________ without appearing disinterested in the individual's other concerns. Answer: gently lead the person back to the reason for the question
The sonographer must learn to be a good listener and pay close attention to the patient's answers. If the patient wanders too far off the subject, the sonographer should gently lead the person back to the reason for the question without appearing disinterested in those other concerns.
Q2) A sterile field is created by ________________________________. To maintain a sterile field, _________________________.
Answer: placing prepackaged sterile drapes around the cleaned site; all items that enter the sterile field must be sterile.
A sterile field is created by placing prepackaged sterile drapes around the cleaned site. To maintain a sterile field, all items that enter the field must be sterile.
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Chapter 4: First Scanning Experience
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is most likely true of an intraorgan mass?
A) Discontinuity of the organ capsule
B) Obstruction of other organs and structures
C) Disruption of the normal internal architecture
D) Internal invagination of organ capsules
Q2) Transverse planes divide the body into unequal ______ and _________ sections.
Q3) Which anatomic area is NOT demonstrated in a coronal plane?
A) Medial
B) Lateral
C) Anterior
D) Inferior
Q4) A uterine fibroid tumor undergoing cystic degeneration would be considered what type of mass?
A) Cystic
B) Solid
C) Complex
D) Homogenous
Q5) Normal muscle echo texture appears _______ with ______ echogenicity.
Q6) With regard to composition, a mass is classified as ______, ______, or ______.
Q7) The _______ and _______ planes are parallel to the long axis of the body
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Chapter 5: Interdependent Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metabolism is defined as the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain life. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) The respiratory system delivers oxygen, nutrients, and white blood cells to body structures and removes toxins. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The endocrine system secretes hormones directly into the bloodstream to regulate reproduction, growth and development, metabolism, blood sugar levels, stress response, and ovulation. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pleural sac is associated with the A) heart.
B) lungs.
C) kidneys.
D) spleen.
Q5) The _______________ system monitors and controls almost every organ in the body.
Page 7
Q6) Homeostasis is defined as
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Anatomy Layering and Sectional Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of structures is located in the retroperitoneum?
A) Liver (except the bare area), gallbladder, and spleen
B) Liver (except the bare area), spleen, and stomach
C) Ovaries and most of the intestines
D) Uterus, ascending colon, and descending colon
Q2) Which structure is NOT oriented vertically in the body?
A) Abdominal aorta
B) Superior mesenteric vein
C) Right renal artery
D) Superior mesenteric artery
Q3) The quadratus lumborum muscle is a bilateral muscle tissue that is ________ to the psoas major muscle.
A) medial
B) lateral
C) anterior
D) posterior
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Chapter 7: Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The embryonic/fetal spleen produces red and white blood cells. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Peristalsis begins at
A) 12 weeks.
B) 11 weeks.
C) 7 weeks.
D) 20 weeks.
Q3) The embryologic heart begins beating at approximately embryologic week 3. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The diencephalon gives rise to the A) pineal gland, pituitary gland, olfactory bulbs, and optic tracts.
B) cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles.
C) thalamus and hypothalamus.
Q5) The primitive gut forms during embryologic week 4 and is composed of a foregut, a midgut and a hindgut. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Abdominal Aorta
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Sample Questions
Q1) The median sacral artery is superior to the
A) renal arteries.
B) adrenal arteries.
C) gonadal arteries.
D) common iliac arteries.
Q2) The gonadal arteries can be seen with reasonable consistency on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The celiac axis bifurcates into which branches?
A) Main pancreatic artery, left gastric artery, and splenic artery
B) Left gastric artery, right gastric artery, and common hepatic artery
C) Left gastric artery, common hepatic artery, and splenic artery
D) Common hepatic artery, main pancreatic artery, and splenic artery
Q4) Left kidney ____
Q5) Left renal vein ____
Q6) The common hepatic artery branches into the
A) celiac and gastroduodenal arteries.
B) celiac and splenic arteries.
C) gastroduodenal and proper hepatic arteries.
D) proper hepatic and celiac arteries.
Page 11
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Chapter 9: The Inferior Vena Cava
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Sample Questions
Q1) Echoes thought to be associated with blood flow sometimes can be seen in the IVC.
A)True B)False
Q2) In a sagittal scanning plane, the right renal artery can be seen as a(n)
A) longitudinal, curvilinear structure anterior to the axial IVC.
B) straight structure posterior to the AO.
C) round, short axis structure posterior to the longitudinal IVC.
D) oval structure anterior to the longitudinal IVC.
Q3) Blood is moved forward through the veins by
A) gravity.
B) the force of the aorta.
C) valves, which close to prevent antegrade flow.
D) a decrease in thoracic pressure, which pulls the blood to the right atrium.
Q4) The walls of the hepatic veins are brightly echogenic. ____
A)True B)False
Q5) Right kidney ____
Q6) Intestines ____
Q7) Hepatic veins ____
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Chapter 10: The Portal Venous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Superior mesenteric vein walls ____
Q2) Normal liver ____
Q3) In a transverse scanning plane, the main portal vein initially appears in an axial section as an oval, anechoic structure. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Where does the portal vein form in the body?
A) At the tail of the pancreas
B) At the left lobe of the liver
C) Near the head of the pancreas
D) Where it first enters the liver
Q5) Hepatic artery walls ____
Q6) Superior mesenteric vein lumen ____
Q7) Portal venous walls ____
Q8) The bifurcation of the left portal vein is best seen in a sagittal scanning plane. ____
A)True B)False
Q9) Inferior vena cava lumen ____
Q10) Hepatic artery lumen ____
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Chapter 11: Abdominal Vasculature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which does NOT affect portal venous flow?
A) Posture
B) Dietary state
C) Hematocrit
D) Exercise
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about blood flow to the kidney?
A) The Doppler velocity signal from the interlobar arteries demonstrates significant forward diastolic flow.
B) The velocity spectral waveforms from the medulla and cortex of a kidney are normally pulsatile.
C) Because of the high metabolic demands of the kidney, flow is forward during diastole.
D) The spectral waveform from the arcuate vessels of the kidney of a patient in chronic renal failure show decreased diastolic flow.
Q3) Which statement is NOT true about the renal arteries?
A) The left renal artery lies superior to the left renal vein.
B) The proximal renal arteries follow the crus of the diaphragm.
C) The right renal artery courses posterior to the inferior vena cava.
D) The renal arteries originate from the lateral wall of the abdominal aorta.
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14
Chapter 12: The Liver
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell membranes ______
Q2) The boundaries of the bare area of the liver include
A) left coronary ligament, transverse colon, and stomach Antrum.
B) lesser sac, hepatoduodenal ligament, and right kidney.
C) inferior vena cava, main portal vein, and middle hepatic vein.
D) falciform, coronary, and triangular ligaments.
Q3) Ketones ______
Q4) "A tonguelike extension of the right lobe of the liver" describes a(n) A) quadrate lobe.
B) Riedel's lobe.
C) accessory liver.
D) direct papillary process.
Q5) A normal left hepatic lobe is ____________ in size and shape.
A) variable
B) never larger than the right
C) fixed
D) independent of the quadrate lobe
Q6) Diabetes ______
Q7) Glycogenesis ______
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Chapter 13: The Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diameter of the common bile duct ____
Q2) The common bile duct is routinely seen on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diameter of the cystic duct ____
Q4) The hepatic artery is found slightly medial and anterior to the main portal vein. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) The left and right hepatic ducts form the A) cystic duct.
B) common hepatic duct.
C) common bile duct.
D) portal triad.
Q6) The gallbladder fossa can be identified close to the main lobar fissure. ____
A)True
B)False
Q7) Length of the common hepatic duct ____
Q8) Length of the common bile duct ____
Q9) Length of the right and left hepatic ducts ____ Page 16
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Chapter 14: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) The length of the pancreas is
A) 3 to 5 cm.
B) 8 to 10 cm.
C) 12 to 18 cm.
D) 15 to 20 cm.
Q2) Sagittal views of the pancreas show the gland in transverse sections. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hormones that stimulate the formation of pancreatic juice are triggered by chyme.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The acini cells produce the hormones insulin, glucagon, and somastatin. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pancreatic juice reaches the duodenum via the common bile duct. ____
A)True B)False
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The apex of the medullary pyramid sits within a __________.
Q2) The structures anterior to the left kidney are the:
Q3) What is the echogenicity of the renal capsule?
A) High level echoes
B) Medium level echoes
C) Low level echoes
Q4) The structures posterior to the kidneys are the:
Q5) List and explain the laboratory values that help measure renal function.
Q6) List the structures contained in the renal pelvis.
Q7) The base of the medullary pyramid comes in contact with the ________.
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Chapter 16: The Spleen
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen has a hilar area, similar to the liver and the kidneys. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) The spleen is highly vascular. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The hilar area of the spleen is not covered by peritoneum. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) At the hilum, the splenic artery branches into
A) two to four lobular arteries.
B) four to six lobular arteries.
C) two to four lobar arteries.
D) four to six lobar arteries.
Q5) The longest axis of the spleen is along the eighth rib. ____
A)True
B)False
Q6) Left renal cortex ____
Q7) Splenic artery lumen ____
Q8) Spleen ____
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Chapter 17: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The duodenum receives the common bile duct via the ampulla of Vater in which of these segments?
A) Second (descending) segment
B) Fourth (ascending) segment
C) Third (transverse) segment
D) First (superior) segment
Q2) The lesser curvature of the stomach marks the _____ border of the organ.
A) right
B) left
C) anterior
D) posterior
Q3) The pylorus of the stomach is subdivided into three regions, which include all of the following except the A) antrum.
B) body.
C) canal.
D) sphincter.
Q4) The stomach is a retroperitoneal structure. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: The Prostate Gland and Seminal Vesicles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The peripheral zone comprises what percentage of the glandular prostate?
A) 20%
B) 5%
C) 30%
D) 70%
Q2) The anterior fibromuscular region, or stroma,
A) is anterior to most of the zonal anatomy.
B) is more clinically significant than the posterior glandular prostate.
C) accounts for most of the weight of the prostate.
D) lies adjacent to the seminal vesicles.
Q3) The prostate is supported by
A) Denonvilliers' fascia.
B) the seminal vesicles and ejaculatory ducts.
C) the symphysis pubis.
D) the obturator internus and levator ani muscles.
Q4) Only alkaline fluid is produced by the seminal vesicles. ____
A)True
B)False
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22
Chapter 19: The Female Pelvis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The congenital malformation recognized sonographically by the presence of two endometrial canals is known as a ________________.
Q2) When the urinary bladder is empty, the uterine position is described as
A) anteflexed.
B) retroflexed.
C) retroverted.
D) anteverted.
Q3) Which statement most accurately describes the anatomic relationships of the ovary, the ureter, and the internal iliac vessels?
A) The ureter is posterior to the ovary, and the internal iliac vessels are anterior to the ovary.
B) The ureter is anterior to the ovary, and the internal iliac vessels are posterior to the ovary.
C) The ureter and internal iliac vessels both lie posterior to the ovary.
D) The ureter and internal iliac vessels both lie anterior to the ovary.
Q4) The peritoneal cavity space posterior to the broad ligaments is the ________.
Q5) The _______ ligaments are not true ligaments and provide minimal support.
Q6) The two descriptive compartments of the pelvis are the ________ and ________.
Q7) The uterine tubes are oriented ________ in the body.
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Chapter 20: First Trimester Obstetrics 0 to 12 Weeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Progesterone is produced by the A) uterus.
B) pituitary gland.
C) corpus luteum.
D) none of the above
Q2) Membranes formed from scarring or adhesions secondary to surgery or infection are called
A) succenturiate.
B) uterine synechia.
C) amniotic bands.
D) amnion-chorionic separation.
Q3) The chorionic frondosum eventually becomes the:
A) amniotic cavity.
B) chorionic cavity.
C) yolk sac.
D) placenta.
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Chapter 21: Second and Third Trimester Obstetrics 13 to 42
Weeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) The atrial septal opening is the A) ductus venosus.
B) mitral valve.
C) foramen ovale.
D) ductus arteriosus.
Q2) Identification of the great arteries and outflow tracts in their usual positions confirms normal ___________________ connections.
Q3) The bright reflection of the fetal skeleton is an indication of ______________________within the developing bones.
Q4) The anechoic areas between the bright subcutaneous and peritoneal fat are the ____________________ and __________________________.
Q5) Muscles usually appear ______________ compared with adjacent structures.
A) hyperechoic
B) dense
C) hypoechoic
D) echodense
Q6) Some experts believe that __________________ in the 2nd trimester can be used as an accurate predictor of an abnormal fetal outcome.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: High-Risk Obstetric Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abnormal fetal aortic flow velocity waveforms have been associated with A) musculoskeletal abnormalities.
B) genitourinary dysfunctions.
C) neurologic dysfunctions.
D) cardiac dysfunctions.
Q2) Twin gestations result from fertilization of either _______ or a _______.
Q3) Fetal intravascular transfusion is recommended in fetuses with A) severe hydrops.
B) polyhydramnios.
C) oligohydramnios.
D) chromosomal abnormalities.
Q4) If twin fetuses are of opposite gender, they are always
A) monochorionic and monoamniotic.
B) monochorionic and diamniotic.
C) dichorionic and monoamniotic.
D) dichorionic and diamniotic.
Q5) __________________________ measures the degree of fetal lung development.
Q6) Ultrasound is used during in utero procedures to confirm that the needle is in the correct position and that ___________________________.
Page 26
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Chapter 23: The Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thyroid gland is composed of follicles filled with a substance called A) thyrotropin.
B) parafollicular cells (C cells).
C) colloid.
D) none of the above
Q2) Most parathyroid adenomas appear in the area of an anatomic "triangle" formed by the thyroid gland, longus colli muscle, common carotid artery, and internal jugular vein.
A)True B)False
Q3) The superior thyroid artery is a branch of the :
A) common carotid artery.
B) internal carotid artery.
C) external carotid artery.
D) vertebral artery
Q4) The presence of an extrathyroidal artery leading to an abnormal parathyroid gland aids the detection of an otherwise inconspicuous parathyroid adenoma ____
A)True B)False
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Chapter 24: Breast Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolactin-inhibiting factor is produced in the A) anterior pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) posterior pituitary gland.
D) thyroid gland
Q2) The parenchymal portion of the breast includes all of these structures except A) lobes.
B) ducts.
C) fat.
D) lobules.
Q3) Each breast has 10 to 15 lobes. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Suspensory ligaments for the breast traverse all three breast layers. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) Alveoli are located within Cooper's ligaments and secrete milk. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Penile and Scrotal Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scrotum consists of the
A) testicles
B) testicles and epididymus
C) testicles, epididymis, and distal vas deferens
D) testicles, epididymis, and proximal vas deferens
Q2) Testicular parenchyma on ultrasound is
A) homogeneous.
B) heterogeneous.
C) anechoic.
D) mixed solid appearance.
Q3) The penis is composed of
A) two corpora spongiosa midventrally and one corpus cavernosum dorsolaterally.
B) two corpora spongiosa dorsolaterally and one corpus cavernosum midventrally.
C) two corpora cavernosa dorsolaterally and one corpus spongiosum midventrally.
D) two corpora cavernosa midventrally and one corpus spongiosum dorsolaterally.
Q4) What is the echogenicity of the cavernosal arterial walls?
A) Low level echoes
B) Medium level echoes
C) High echogenicity
D) They cannot be identified on ultrasound.
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Chapter 26: The Neonatal Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lateral ventricles communicate with the third ventricle through the A) interventricular foramina of Monro.
B) aqueduct of Sylvius.
C) aperture of Magendie.
D) aperture of Luschka.
Q2) What is the echogenicity of the lateral ventricle?
A) Hypoechoic
B) Anechoic
C) Echogenic
D) Low level echoes
Q3) What is the echogenicity of the choroid plexus?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q4) What is the echogenicity of the bones of the cranial vault?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
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Chapter 27: Pediatric Echocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best view to image the coronary artery ostia is the
A) Parasternal Short Axis view aortic valve level (base)
B) Apical 4-chamber
C) Parasternal Long axis view
D) Parasternal Short axis view papillary muscle level
Q2) In the normal heart, the right and left innominate veins come together connecting them to the superior vena cava. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood and return it to the left atrium ___
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is the best view for PW or CW Doppler of the aortic valve?
A) Apical Long Axis view
B) Apical Two Chamber view
C) Parasternal Short Axis view aortic valve level
D) Parasternal Long Axis view
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Chapter 28: Adult Echocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood with a low oxygen content entering the heart comes from the inferior and superior vena cava. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Three-dimensional echocardiography would be indicated in which patient?
A) A patient with a normal heart size and function on 2D examination
B) A patient with mild mitral valve regurgitation on Doppler
C) A patient with a small to moderate VSD on 2D examination
D) A patient with a reduced ejection fraction on 2D examination
Q3) Atrioventricular valves are not the same as semilunar valves. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The parasternal long axis view shows the right ventricle anteriorly. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) Blood with a low oxygen content entering the heart comes from the coronary arteries. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Vascular Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vessel is NOT part of the cerebrovascular system?
A) Common carotid artery
B) Vertebral artery
C) Internal carotid artery
D) Internal iliac artery
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about the peripheral veins?
A) They can undergo remarkable volume changes with little change in transmural pressure.
B) The percentage of smooth muscle found in the walls of veins varies with their location.
C) The venous wall is only half as thick as the arterial wall and is composed primarily of elastin fibers.
D) The venous pressure in the feet of an exercising adult usually is less than 25 mm Hg.
Q3) Duplication commonly is associated with all these veins except the A) popliteal vein.
B) common iliac vein.
C) greater saphenous vein.
D) femoral vein.
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Chapter 30: Three-Dimensional Ultrasound
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The acquisition of patient anatomy using 3D is called acquiring A) a volume data set.
B) a flat screen image.
C) algorithms.
D) measurements.
Q2) The SonoVCAD and SonoAVC are volumetric advances that can identify the
A) nongravid uterus and early pregnancy.
B) fetal heart outflow tract and ovarian follicles.
C) neonatal brain in three orthogonal views.
D) adult and pediatric urinary system.
Q3) Three-dimensional ultrasound consists of which three steps?
A) Measurements, volume data set, and minimum mode
B) Measurements, flat screen image, and algorithms
C) Volume acquisition, measurements, and 3D rendering
D) Volume acquisition, multiplanar display, and 3D rendering
Q4) Four-dimensional imaging can be done only with
A) existing ultrasound systems with a 3D option.
B) 3D systems that use electromagnetic positioning sensors.
C) dedicated 3D transducers.
D) offline systems that attach to the ultrasound transducer.
Page 34
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Chapter 31: Interventional and Intraoperative Ultrasound
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16 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ultrasound-guided biopsies assist needle placement for A) fluid sampling.
B) small organ or stone extraction.
C) amniocentesis.
D) tissue sampling.
Q2) Intraoperative ultrasound is not limited by __________, __________, or __________.
Q3) During intraoperative ultrasound procedures, the transducer is A) placed on a sterile water path.
B) in direct contact with the skin surface.
C) in direct contact with organs and vessels.
D) only used laproscopically
Q4) The advantages of interventional and intraoperative ultrasound include:
Q5) __________ are caused by bubbles between the transducer tip and the sterile sheath covering separated by a coupling agent.
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