Fundamentals of Respiratory Therapy Test Bank
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Respiratory Therapy introduces students to the essential principles and practices involved in the care and management of patients with respiratory disorders. The course covers the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system, basic pathophysiology of common pulmonary conditions, and the foundational techniques used in respiratory assessment and therapy. Students will learn about oxygen delivery systems, airway management, mechanical ventilation, and the use of therapeutic modalities, such as aerosol and humidity therapy. Emphasis is placed on infection control, patient safety, and the ethical responsibilities of respiratory therapists. The course lays the groundwork for further study and clinical practice in respiratory care.
Recommended Textbook
Egans Fundamentals of Respiratory Care 11th Edition by Robert M. Kacmarek
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56 Chapters
3426 Verified Questions
3426 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: History of Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who introduced the use of soft rubber endotracheal tubes around 1930?
A) Davidson
B) McGill
C) Haight
D) Murphy
Answer: B
Q2) Who was the first to develop the large-scale production of O<sub>2</sub> in 1907?
A) Robert Dalton
B) David Boyle
C) Thomas Anderson
D) Karl von Linde
Answer: D
Q3) Who is considered to be the "father of medicine"?
A) Hippocrates
B) Galen
C) Erasistratus
D) Aristotle
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Delivering Evidence-Based Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the key outcomes that are looked at in different types of studies?
A) Patient survival
B) Discharge from ICU
C) Organ system failure
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) To monitor correctness of respiratory care plans, which of the following should be used?
A) Nursing care plans
B) Physician progress notes
C) Care plan auditors and case study exercises
D) Daily patient rounds with medical director
Answer: C
Q3) What is one advantage that has been shown of respiratory care protocols?
A) Increase in the number of procedures performed by respiratory care providers
B) Decrease in the overordering of respiratory care services
C) Decrease in the cost savings to respiratory care departments
D) Decrease in the cost of performing each respiratory care procedure
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Quality, Patient Safety, and Communication, and Recordkeeping
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group or organization regulates the storage of medical gases?
A) The Department of Transportation (DOT)
B) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
C) The Joint Commission (TJC)
D) HIPPA
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following are unacceptable practices in medical recordkeeping?
1) Specifying when you will return to provide patient therapy
2) Providing your own interpretation of a patient's symptoms
3) Recording the patient's complaints and general behavior
4) Charting several separate tasks under a single chart entry
A)2 and 4 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1 and 4 only
D)1, 2, and 4 only
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Principles of Infection Prevention and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is included in a Prevention Bundle?
1) The use of multiple evidence-based best practices to prevent device-related infection.
2) Recent research supports the use of cost-effective measurements.
3) An ongoing process of monitoring patients and personnel for the acquisition of infection in the health care setting.
4) Using prophylactic antibiotic therapy on all hospitalized patients.
A)1 and 2 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) Which of the following statements is false regarding the use of ETO for sterilization?
A) It is harmless to rubber and plastics.
B) It will penetrate prewrapping.
C) Acute exposure is of little consequence.
D) It is useful for equipment that cannot be autoclaved.
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Chapter 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are considered intentional torts?
1) Negligent practice
2) Assault and battery
3) Defamation of character
4) Invasion of privacy
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) If a respiratory therapist refers a Medicare patient to a particular home care company and receives a finder's fee in return, this is an example of:
A) moonlighting.
B) Medicare referral.
C) providing care without physician direction.
D) Medicare fraud.
Q3) How can ethical obligations be used in legal proceedings?
A) As a tool of cross examination
B) To prevent perjury
C) To prevent a health care provider from self-incrimination
D) Penalties and sanctions for unauthorized practice
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Chapter 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a given mass of a gas is maintained at a constant temperature, what will decreasing its pressure do?
A) Decrease its volume.
B) Increase its mass.
C) Increase its volume.
D) Decrease its mass.
Q2) During some pulmonary function tests, saturated gas exhaled from a patient's lungs is gathered at room temperature. Which of the following correction-factor tables would you use to determine what volume this gas occupied in the patient's lungs?
A) Standard temperature, standard pressure, dry (STPD) to body temperature, ambient pressure, saturated (BTPS)
B) BTPS to STPD
C) Ambient temperature, ambient pressure, saturated (ATPS) to BTPS
D) ATPS to STPD
Q3) Which of the following best describes the physical concept of pressure?
A) Weight ÷ unit volume
B) Mass \(\times\) acceleration
C) Force \(\times\) distance
D) Force ÷ unit area
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Chapter 7: E-Medicine in Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical decision support systems perform which of the following tasks?
1) Match individual patients with proper drug doses.
2) Provide standing patient care orders.
3) Remind patients of when to reorder meds.
4) Provide directions to the best local pharmacy.
A)2 and 4 only
B)3 and 4 only
C)1, 2, and 3 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) For which of the following is there the most interest in using eHealth applications to improve health outcomes in a cost-effective manner?
A) Lung cancer
B) Pediatric heart disease
C) Chronic diseases
D) Heart attack victims
Q3) In what way do computers assist smokers who want to quit?
A) By providing Internet sites with smoking cessation plans
B) By measuring blood carbon monoxide levels
C) By providing genetic information on the risk of smoking
D) By allowing smokers to order low-risk cigarettes through the Internet
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Chapter 8: Fundamentals of Respiratory Care Research
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are explanations of why you should write a study plan?
1) The process of writing it out will help you clarify the goals of the study and methods of investigation.
2) You must often present a plan to obtain permission or approval to proceed with the study.
3) Provides an operational guide for the entire research team.
4) Allows you to improve your statistical analyses.
A)1 and 4 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)1, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) What is the name of the search engine sponsored by the National Library of Medicine for information on health care?
A) PubMed
B) HotMed
C) Up-to-date-Med
D) NationalMedline
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Chapter 9: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Via what pathway does much of the bronchial venous drainage occur?
A) Bronchial veins emptying into the inferior vena cava
B) Bronchopulmonary veins emptying into pulmonary veins
C) Direct connections between bronchial and pulmonary arteries
D) Thebesian venous drainage into the heart chambers
Q2) What are the three bony projections that arise from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity that enhance filtration and humidification?
A) Alar nasi
B) Frontal sinuses
C) Palatine tonsils
D) Turbinates
Q3) What percentage of right ventricular output is circulated through the fetal lungs?
A) 10%
B) 35%
C) 75%
D) 100%
Q4) Infants are more susceptible to profound hypoxemia than are adults.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a potential cause of cardiac tamponade?
A) A large pericardial effusion
B) Blockage of the left ventricle
C) Excessive amount of fluid the pleural space
D) Clots in the superior vena cava
Q2) The semilunar (pulmonary and aortic) valves do which of the following?
A) Cause almost the entire afterload for the ventricles.
B) Consist of two half-moon or crescent-shaped cusps.
C) Prevent arterial backflow during ventricular relaxation.
D) Separate the ventricles from their arterial outflow tracts.
Q3) Significant loss of blood volume causes an increase in which of the following?
1) Vascular tone
2) Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
3) Heart rate
A)1, 2, and 3
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1 and 2 only
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Chapter 11: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the correct formula to calculate the alveolar minute ventilation of a spontaneously breathing subject?
A) f \(\times\)V<sub>DS</sub>/V<sub>T</sub>
B) f \(\times\) V<sub>T</sub>
C) f \(\times\) (V<sub>T</sub> - V<sub>DSphys</sub>)
D) f \(\times\) (V<sub>T</sub> + V<sub>DSphys</sub>)
Q2) Which of the following causes gas to flow into and out of the alveoli during breathing?
A) Transrespiratory system pressure (P<sub>TR</sub>)
B) Intrapleural pressure (P<sub>pl</sub>)
C) Transpulmonary pressure (P<sub>TP</sub>)
D) Transmural pressure (P<sub>tm</sub>)
Q3) Which of the following pressures normally remains negative (relative to atmospheric pressure) during quiet breathing?
A) P<sub>alv</sub>
B) P<sub>pl</sub>
C) P<sub>ao</sub>
D) P<sub>bs</sub>
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Chapter 12: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following increases the affinity of Hb for O<sub>2</sub>?
1) Decreased 2,3-DPG
2) Decreased PCO<sub>2</sub>
3) Increased pH
4) Increased temperature
A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 4 only
C)2 and 4 only
D)3 and 4 only
Q2) Which of these statements applies to the following reaction: Prot-NH<sub>2</sub> + CO<sub>2</sub> Prot-NHCOO<sup>-</sup> + H<sup>+</sup>?
A) Approximately 20% of the total blood carbon dioxide is carried in this form.
B) It is second in importance to only the bicarbonate buffer system.
C) It represents the formation of blood carbamino compounds.
D) The resulting H<sup>+</sup> ions are buffered by reduced HCO<sub>3.</sub>
Q3) How is the vast majority of O<sub>2</sub> carried in the blood?
A) As bicarbonate ion (HCO<sub>3</sub>)
B) As carbamino compounds
C) Chemically combined with Hb
D) In physical solution
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Chapter 13: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding osmotic pressure?
A) Osmotic pressure depends on the number of particles in solution.
B) Osmotic pressure varies inversely with temperature.
C) Osmotic pressure is highest in dilute solutions.
D) Osmotic pressure varies inversely with tonicity.
Q2) What type of solution could have 1 mol of solute per liter of solution?
A) Molal
B) Molar
C) Normal
D) Weight/volume
Q3) Which of the following would cause an abnormal loss of Na<sup>+</sup> (hyponatremia)?
1) Ascites
2) Excessive sweating or fever
3) Use of certain diuretics
4) Steroid therapy
A)1 and 4 only
B)1, 2, and 4 only
C)1, 2, and 3 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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Chapter 14: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, determine the accuracy of the gas below. To be considered accurate, it must be within 0.03 pH unit. pH = 7.35, PCO<sub>2</sub> = 77 mm Hg, HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> = 41 mEq/L
A) This gas is completely accurate.
B) This gas is accurate as the calculated pH is 7.32.
C) This gas is accurate as the calculated pH is 7.38.
D) This gas is inaccurate according to the H-H equation.
Q2) What is the treatment for severe metabolic acidosis?
A) Charcoal
B) Insulin
C) Glucose
D) NaHCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> infusion
Q3) Of the nonbicarbonate buffer systems, which one is the most important?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Inorganic phosphates
C) Organic phosphates
D) Plasma proteins
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Chapter 15: Regulation of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulation to increase ventilation does not occur until the PaO<sub>2</sub> falls below what level?
A) 90 mm Hg
B) 80 mm Hg
C) 70 mm Hg
D) 60 mm Hg
Q2) Which of the following is indirectly responsible for minute-to-minute control of breathing?
A) CO<sub>2</sub> levels
B) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>levels
C) Lactate levels
D) Oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>) levels
Q3) What centers are located in the pons of the brainstem?
1) Apneustic center
2) Dorsal respiratory neurons
3) Pneumotaxic center
A)1, 2, and 3
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1 and 2 only
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Chapter 16: Bedside Assessment of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common cause of pulsus paradoxus?
A) Acute asthma attack
B) Severe pneumonia
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Myocardial infarction
Q2) Which of the following is true of peripheral cyanosis?
A) Reliable indicator of tissue hypoxia.
B) Develops early in patients with anemia.
C) Develops late in patients with polycythemia.
D) Sign of inadequate tissue perfusion.
Q3) In which of the following conditions would late-inspiratory crackles be most likely to occur?
1) Emphysema
2) Pulmonary fibrosis
3) Pneumonia
4) Pulmonary edema
A)2, 3, and 4 only
B)1, 3, and 4 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)1 and 2 only
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Chapter 17: Interpreting Clinical and Laboratory Data
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Sample Questions
Q1) The total carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>) value is linked to what electrolyte in the blood serum?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Bicarbonate
D) Chloride
Q2) The sweat chloride level is used to diagnose which of the following disorders?
A) Asthma
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Hepatitis
Q3) What term is used to describe a red blood cell (RBC) count that is below normal values?
A) Leukocytosis
B) Leukopenia
C) Anemia
D) Polycythemia
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Chapter 18: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a possible serious complication associated with atrial fibrillation?
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Atrial thrombi
C) Cardiac tamponade
D) Cardiac standstill
Q2) Which of the following medications is used to treat symptomatic sinus bradycardia?
A) Atropine
B) Digitalis
C) Propranol
D) Lidocaine
Q3) Your patient has a normal ECG reading. What does this finding tell you about the patient's likelihood of having a myocardial infarction in the immediate future?
A) Less than a 10% chance
B) Less than a 30% chance
C) Less than 50% chance
D) No predictive value
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Chapter 19: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a single-breath capnogram, what does the occurrence of a plateau indicate?
A) Exhalation of mainly dead space gas
B) Inspiration of fresh respiratory gas
C) Exhalation of mixed alveolar and dead space gas
D) Exhalation of mainly alveolar gas
Q2) Pulse oximeter readings are generally unreliable at saturations below what level?
A) 70%
B) 80%
C) 90%
D) 95%
Q3) What is the measurement of CO<sub>2</sub> in respiratory gases called?
A) Oximetry
B) Capnometry
C) Optometry
D) Barometry
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following techniques are used to measure residual volume?
1) Helium dilution
2) Body plethysmography
3) Nitrogen washout
4) Flow-volume loops
A)2 and 4 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)1, 2, 3, and 4
D)1, 3, and 4 only
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement?
A) VC = FRC + V<sub>T</sub>
B) VC = IRV + V<sub>T</sub> + ERV
C) VC = V<sub>T</sub> + IRV + RV
D) FRC = V<sub>T</sub> + ERV
Q3) Which of the following adverse reactions is not typically seen with pulmonary function testing?
A) Syncope
B) Cough
C) Hemoptysis
D) Chest pain
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Chapter 21: Review of Thoracic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are typical causes of pulmonary edema as seen on the chest radiograph?
1) Left heart failure
2) Renal failure
3) Cor pulmonale
4) Fluid overload
A)2 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)1, 2, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) What is the most common cause of pulmonary fibrosis?
A) A virus
B) Inhaled dusts
C) Drug reaction
D) Unknown
Q3) What is the optimal position of the tip of an intra-aortic balloon pump?
A) 2 cm above the carina
B) 4 cm above the carina
C) 7 cm above the carina
D) In the upper third of the carina
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Chapter 22: Flexible Bronchoscopy and the Respiratory Therapist
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metallic stents are placed during:
A) flexible bronchoscopy.
B) rigid bronchoscopy.
C) either flexible or rigid bronchoscopy.
D) mediastinal surgery.
Q2) What are the two major complications of transbronchial biopsy?
A) Uncontrollable coughing and bleeding
B) Pneumothorax and bleeding
C) Pneumothorax and coughing
D) Cardiac arrest and pneumothorax
Q3) To obtain lavage fluid, the bronchoscope is wedged at which of the following locations?
A) The level of the carina
B) The level of second or third generation bronchus
C) The level of fourth or fifth generation bronchus
D) At least at the level of the sixth generation bronchus
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Chapter 23: Nutrition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not considered part of the anthropometric assessment?
A) Body mass index
B) Activity level
C) History of weight loss
D) Triceps skin fold
Q2) When is the basal metabolic rate (BMR) best obtained?
A) After 10 hr of fasting
B) While walking on a treadmill
C) On rising in the morning
D) 1 hr after lunch
Q3) What percent of the patient's caloric intake should come from fat in most circumstances?
A) 10% to 15%
B) 20% to 30%
C) 30% to 40%
D) 40% to 50%
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Chapter 24: Pulmonary Infections
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Q1) A 35-year-old man is admitted to the hospital and has been confirmed to have pneumococcal pneumonia. What test would it be wise to order at this time?
A) Bronchial biopsy
B) CBC and electrolytes
C) HIV
D) Sputum culture and sensitivity
Q2) A patient presents with pneumonia accompanied by foul-smelling breath, absent gag reflex, or recent loss of consciousness. What should be suspected?
A) Aspiration pneumonia
B) Chlamydia pneumonia
C) Pneumococcal pneumonia
D) Tuberculosis
Q3) Which of the following organisms is associated with a poor prognosis in the patient with ventilator-related pneumonia despite optimal therapy?
A) C. pneumoniae
B) Klebsiella
C) P. aeruginosa
D) S. pneumoniae
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Chapter 25: Obstructive Lung Disease: Chronic Obstructive
Pulmonary Disease Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases
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Q1) What is the critical alpha<sub>1</sub>-antitrypsin level below which lung elastin is attacked and broken down?
A) 57 mg/dl
B) 84 mg/dl
C) 100 mg/dl
D) 150 mg/dl
Q2) Identify the hallmark symptom of bronchiectasis.
A) Evidence of cystic spaces and tram tracks on the chest radiograph
B) Hemoptysis
C) Large amounts of purulent sputum
D) Variable dyspnea
Q3) Which airways are most susceptible to airway obstruction in patients with COPD?
A) Small
B) Medium
C) Large
D) Central
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Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Disease
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Q1) Exacerbations of silicosis are most often treated with what medication?
A) Aerosolized steroids
B) Antibiotics
C) Diuretics
D) Positive inotropes
Q2) Among smokers with IPF, normal spirometry and lung volumes with reduced DLCO suggest the presence of coexisting:
A) emphysema.
B) asthma.
C) chronic bronchitis.
D) lung carcinoma.
Q3) Which of the interstitial lung diseases is directly tied to exposure to first- and secondhand tobacco smoke?
A) Alveolar proteinosis
B) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
C) Nonspecific interstitial pneumonitis
D) Pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis (PLCH)
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Chapter 27: Pleural Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are typical complications of thoracentesis?
1) Infection
2) Intercostal artery laceration
3) Rib fracture
4) Pneumothorax
A)1, 2, and 4 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) Pleural effusions that occur secondarily to _____ are most often treated with pleurodesis.
A) ascites
B) congestive heart failure
C) malignancy
D) nephrotic syndrome
Q3) How much pleural fluid does a normal healthy adult have in each hemithorax?
A) 5 ml
B) 8 ml
C) 12 ml
D) 16 ml
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Chapter 28: Pulmonary Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the fastest way to achieve therapeutic levels of heparin in the treatment of acute deep venous thrombi?
A) Continuous drip system
B) Follow established nomogram
C) Large bolus at 10 µg/kg
D) IV injections while tracking blood levels
Q2) What is the initial event in the pathogenesis of idiopathic pulmonary artery hypertension (IPAH)?
A) Insult to the pulmonary endothelium
B) Elevated level of serotonin
C) Monoclonal proliferation of endothelial cells
D) Vascular remodeling
Q3) What therapy has been proven to improve survival in patients with COPD and pulmonary hypertension?
A) Bronchodilators
B) Oral vasodilators
C) Oxygen
D) Prostanoids
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Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the Berlin Criteria define the "mild" category of ARDS?
A) P/F ratio = 300 to 400
B) P/F ratio = 201 to 300
C) P/F = 101 to 200
D) P/F ?4= 100
Q2) Which of the following is the likely cause of nonhydrostatic pulmonary edema?
A) Injury to the vascular endothelium and/or alveolar epithelium
B) Abnormalities in intravascular hydrostatic pressures
C) An influx of polymorphonuclear neutrophils
D) Medication overdose
Q3) Which of the following factors are associated with a higher risk for ARDS?
1) Gastric aspiration
2) Multiple transfusions
3) Septic shock
4) Burn injury
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)1, 2, 3, and 4
D)3 only
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Chapter 30: Trauma, Burns and Near Drowning
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Survival in burn patients is associated with which of the following?
A) Pharmacological treatment to improve hemodynamic stability
B) Conservative surgical treatments
C) Development of multidisciplinary teams
D) Delayed fluid resuscitation
Q2) Which of the following decreases as body mass index increases?
1) Airway resistance
2) Functional residual capacity
3) Forced vital capacity
4) Forced expiratory volume in 1 second
A)2 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q3) The most common aspirated material in near-drowning events is:
A) sand or mud/dirt.
B) emesis.
C) blood.
D) leaves.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Lung Cancer
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What composition of adenocarcinoma best describes its histopathology?
A) Stratified epithelial cells
B) Pleomorphic cells
C) Polygonal cells
D) Glandular structures
Q2) What is the most effective way to prevent lung cancer?
A) Vitamin E
B) Beta-carotene
C) Smoking prevention
D) Avoidance of atmospheric pollution
Q3) Which of the following is not a therapeutic option for patients with lung cancer?
A) Surgical resection
B) Radiotherapy
C) Laser
D) Chemotherapy
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33
Chapter 32: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would not be considered a common pulmonary consequence of neuromuscular disease?
A) Sleep apnea
B) Aspiration
C) Cor pulmonale
D) Pneumothorax
Q2) Which of the following is not a clinical condition that precipitates respiratory failure rapidly in patients with significant neuromuscular weakness?
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Pneumonia
C) Mucus plugging
D) Pulmonary fibrosis
Q3) To effectively document and assess the need for endotracheal intubation in a patient with neuromuscular disease, which of the following would be most appropriate?
A) Spirometry every 4 to 6 hr
B) Chest x-ray every shift
C) Polysomnograpy testing
D) Monitoring SpO<sub>2</sub> with pulse oximeter
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Chapter 33: Disorders of Sleep
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following behavioral interventions is least useful for the treatment of sleep apnea?
A) Weight loss
B) Avoidance of alcohol
C) Avoidance of sedatives
D) Avoidance of daytime naps
Q2) Which of the following are true about obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?
1) It is overdiagnosed in the United States.
2) It has an equivalent prevalence to asthma in the general population.
3) It has an equivalent prevalence to diabetes in the general population.
4) The spectrum of the disease includes sleep disruption related to increased airway resistance.
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1, 2, and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q3) Central sleep apnea occurs more often than obstructive sleep apnea.
A)True
B)False
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common radiographic finding that suggests the presence of croup?
A) Thumb sign
B) Flail chest
C) Sail sign
D) Steeple sign
Q2) What physiologic abnormality is believed to be the cause of persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)?
A) Right-to-left shunting
B) High cardiac output
C) High pulmonary vascular resistance
D) Metabolic acidosis
Q3) What treatment usually causes improvement in the initial treatment of transient tachypnea of the newborn?
A) Mechanical ventilation with PEEP
B) Oxygen with low FiO<sub>2</sub>
C) Bronchodilators
D) Mucolytics
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Chapter 35: Airway Pharmacology
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67 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are medications contain fluticasone furoate?
1) Arnuity Ellipta
2) Breo Ellipta
3) Combivent Respimat
4) Advair Diskus
A)1 and 2 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) Which of the following are LABA bronchodilators?
1) Indacaterol
2) Olodaterol
3) Albuterol
4) Salmeterol
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)1, 2, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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37
Chapter 36: Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are appropriate orders before an elective fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure scheduled for the next morning?
1) Have patient take nothing by mouth (NPO) after midnight.
2) Establish vascular access.
3) Premedicate with a benzodiazepine.
A)1 and 2 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)2 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Q2) Equipment required for patient support and monitoring during a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure includes which of the following?
1) Pulse oximeter
2) Oxygen cannula
3) Electrocardiographic monitor
4) Capnometer
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 37: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) When properly performed, mouth-to-mouth (expired air) ventilation provides approximately how much oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 20%
B) 16%
C) 12%
D) 30%
Q2) During two-person CPR applied to an adult, what is the proper ratio of compressions to ventilation?
A) 5 compressions for every two breaths
B) 30 compressions for every breath
C) 5 compressions for every breath
D) 30 compressions for every two breaths
Q3) What is the primary drug agent used to treat symptomatic bradycardias?
A) Sodium nitroprusside
B) Procainamide HCl
C) Dopamine HCl
D) Atropine sulfate
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Chapter 38: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unheated bubble humidifiers are of limited effectiveness at flows above which of the following?
A) 4 L/min
B) 6 L/min
C) 8 L/min
D) 10 L/min
Q2) Characteristics of a servo-controlled heated humidifier include which of the following?
1) Monitors heater temperature.
2) Adjusts heater power automatically.
3) Provides automatic heater shutdown.
4) Includes temperature safety alarms.
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 39: Aerosol Drug Therapy
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116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary fate of inhaled aerosol particles that are between 1 and 0.5 µm?
A) Most are cleared during exhalation.
B) Most deposit in the central airways.
C) Most deposit in the upper airways.
D) Most deposit in the alveoli.
Q2) What is a potential limitation of flow-triggered metered dose inhaler devices?
A) Increased pharyngeal impaction.
B) Less effective lung deposition.
C) High flows necessary for actuation.
D) Requires accessory equipment.
Q3) To minimize the risk of infection associated with aerosol drug therapy, what should you do?
1) Sterilize nebulizers between patients.
2) Frequently replace in-use units.
3) Rinse nebulizers with sterile water.
A)1 and 2 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)2 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 40: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medical gases can be stored in cylinders as liquids at room temperature?
1) CO<sub>2</sub>
2) O<sub>2</sub>
3) N<sub>2</sub>O
A)1 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Q2) What factors affect the combustion-supporting properties of O<sub>2</sub>?
1) Concentration
2) Partial pressure
3) Humidity
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)1 and 2 only
D)1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 41: Medical Gas Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient breathing 100% O<sub>2</sub> for 24 hr or longer would most likely exhibit which of the following?
1) Decreased DLCO
2) Decreased C<sub>L</sub>
3) Increased PAO<sub>2</sub> - PaO<sub>2</sub>
4) Decreased VC
A)2 and 4 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) Physiologic effects of inhaled nitric oxide (NO) include which of the following?
1) Recruitment of collapsed alveoli
2) Improved blood flow to ventilated alveoli
3) Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance
4) Reduced intrapulmonary shunting
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Lung Expansion Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative patient using incentive spirometry complains of dizziness and numbness around the mouth after therapy sessions. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A) Gastric insufflation
B) Hyperventilation
C) Pulmonary barotrauma
D) Respiratory acidosis
Q2) Which of the following has a direct relationship with the degree to which atelectasis can present itself with a postoperative patient?
A) Spontaneous respiratory rate
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypocapnia
D) Hypothermia
Q3) Which of the following is FALSE about flow-oriented incentive spirometry devices?
A) Inspired volume is estimated as the product of flow and time.
B) Motivation is based on keeping the indicator balls elevated.
C) They have proved less effective than volumetric systems.
D) They provide only an indirect measure of inspired volume.
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44
Chapter 43: Airway Clearance Therapy Act
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are hazards of positive airway pressure therapies (EPAP, PEP, CPAP)?
1) Decreased venous return
2) Epistaxis
3) Pulmonary barotrauma
4) Increased intracranial pressure
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)1, 3, and 4 only
Q2) A patient with a neuromuscular disorder causing generalized muscle weakness is having difficulty developing an effective cough. Which of the following cough phases are primarily affected in this patient?
A) Irritation
B) Inspiration
C) Compression
D) Expulsion
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Chapter 44: Respiratory Failure and the Need for
Ventilatory Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common bedside measures used to assess the adequacy of lung expansion include which of the following?
1) VC
2) Respiratory rate
3) V<sub>T</sub>
4) V<sub>D</sub>/V<sub>T</sub>
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) Breathing 100% O<sub>2</sub>, a patient has a PaO<sub>2</sub>-PaO<sub>2</sub> of 60 mm Hg. Based on this information, what might you conclude?
A) The patient has severe hypoxemia.
B) The patient has an excessive work of breathing.
C) The patient has acceptable oxygenation.
D) The patient has inadequate ventilation.
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Chapter 45: Mechanical Ventilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ventilator's pressure waveform changes when a patient's lung mechanics change, but its volume waveform remains the same. The device does not directly control the delivered volume. What is this ventilator?
A) Volume controller
B) Pressure controller
C) Time controller
D) Flow controller
Q2) The respiratory therapist has been called to transport a patient from the emergency department to obtain a CT scan. Which of the following types of ventilator should the therapist chose to transport the patient?
A) Electric
B) Apneuistic
C) Pneumatic
D) Electronic
Q3) What parameter serves as the baseline variable on all modern ventilators?
A) Pressure
B) Flow
C) Time
D) Volume
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Physiology of Ventilatory Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Detrimental effects of auto-positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP) include which of the following?
1) Increased work of breathing
2) Increased pulmonary barotrauma
3) Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance
4) Increased venous return
A)1 and 2 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) Which of the following variables determine the level of support achieved with proportional assist ventilation?
1) Patient effort
2) Elastance
3) Resistance
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 only
C)1 only
D)1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 47: Patient Ventilator Interaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient's clinical status abruptly changed and the alarms on the ventilator are sounding. What is/are the first step(s) you should take?
A) Silence the alarms and adjust the alarm parameters.
B) Perform a rapid physical examination.
C) Remove the patient from the ventilator and manually ventilate.
D) Check the patency of the airway.
Q2) Which of the following is considered a patient-related cause of poor patient-ventilator interaction?
A) Abnormal respiratory drive
B) Asynchrony
C) Inadequate ventilatory support
D) Inadequate FiO<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Your patient has relatively normal lungs and is receiving mechanical ventilation following surgery. You observe double triggering. What is the most likely cause?
A) The termination criteria is set too low.
B) The flow rate is too slow.
C) Auto-PEEP.
D) The inspiratory time is too short.
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Chapter 48: Initiating and Adjusting Invasive Ventilatory Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) How frequently should a clinician make changes when weaning from PEEP?
A) 10 to 20 min
B) 30 to 45 min
C) 1 hr
D) 6 to 8 hr
Q2) In which of the following clinical conditions would noninvasive ventilation (NIV) be recommended?
1) Management of acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
2) Management of premature extubation
3) Management of cardiogenic pulmonary edema
4) Management of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 49: Noninvasive Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why did the use of intermittent positive-pressure breathing decline in the 1980s?
A) Due to a lack of scientific evidence to support its use for delivering aerosolized medication
B) Due to its cost of implementation
C) Due to its complexity
D) Replaced by newer technology
Q2) Which of the following is/are characteristics of most noninvasive ventilators?
1) Electrically powered
2) Blower driven
3) Microprocessor controlled
4) Double-circuit design
A)1 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)1, 2, 3, and 4
D)1 and 4 only
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Chapter 50: Extracorporeal Life Support Ecls
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is receiving ECMO and requires frequent medications. IV access is limited. The physician asks for your recommendations on ways to improve the ease of medication delivery. What would you suggest?
A) Establish intraosseous (IO) access.
B) Deliver the medications down the endotracheal tube.
C) Utilize the infusion ports along the tubing.
D) Aerosolize the medications.
Q2) ECMO is not an option as a bridge to transplant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following situations could cause an excessive negative pressure on the right atrium during ECMO?
1) Hypovolemia
2) Insufficient height of the patient
3) A kink in the cannula or circuit tubing
4) Hypervolemia
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
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Chapter 51: Monitoring the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are common purposes of using ventilator graphics?
1) To detect auto-PEEP
2) To assess effects of bronchodilators
3) To determine patient ventilator synchrony
4) To determine best FiO<sub>2</sub>
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) Which of the following breathing patterns suggests respiratory muscle decompensation?
A) Rapid and deep breaths
B) Rapid and shallow breaths
C) Slow and shallow breaths
D) Slow and deep breaths
Q3) What is the most common method of estimating GFR?
A) Blood urea nitrogen
B) Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
C) Plasma creatinine and creatinine clearance
D) Urine output
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Chapter 52: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) While monitoring a patient being weaned through a T tube protocol, signs indicating that mechanical ventilation should be restored include which of the following?
1) Development of cardiac arrhythmias
2) Asynchronous or paradoxical breathing
3) Development of severe hypotension
4) Moderate rise in respiratory rate
A)1 and 3 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) While monitoring a patient during a T tube weaning trial, you notice the following: an increase in heart rate from 86 to 100/min; an increase in respiratory rate from 12 to 23/min; an increase in PaCO<sub>2 </sub>from 39 to 45 mm Hg; and a decrease in PaO<sub>2 </sub>from 82 to 73 mm Hg. Which of the following actions would be appropriate at this time?
A) Reconnect the patient to the ventilator with prior settings.
B) Request that the patient be administered a mild sedative.
C) Suction the patient after manual hyperinflation or oxygenation.
D) Encourage the patient to relax, and continue careful monitoring.
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Chapter 53: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Temporary drops in the fetal heart rate during uterine contractions are known as:
A) fetal stress.
B) decelerations.
C) primary apnea.
D) secondary bradycardia.
Q2) During resuscitation of a newborn, after 15 to 30 sec of positive-pressure ventilation, what should the clinician do?
A) Evaluate the heart rate.
B) Suction the mouth, then the nose.
C) Begin chest compressions.
D) Initiate medications.
Q3) Which of the following tidal volume range would you recommend for an infant with severe ARDS?
A) 3 to 4 ml/kg
B) 4 to 5 ml/kg
C) 6 to 7 ml/kg
D) Greater than 8 ml/kg
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Chapter 54: Patient Education and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Teaching physical skills to patients is learning in what domain?
A) Cognitive
B) Affective
C) Psychomotor
D) Analytical
Q2) What type of information is associated with teaching in the affective domain?
A) Motivation and attitude
B) Tasks and skills
C) Knowledge and facts
D) Organization and definitions
Q3) Which of the following is the primary goal of health promotion?
A) Cure the disease.
B) Prevent the disease.
C) Change the lifestyle.
D) Provide knowledge about the disease.
Q4) Which of the following is used to evaluate cognitive objectives?
A) Verbal exam
B) Demonstration
C) Written exam
D) Performance checklist
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Chapter 55: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following educational topics covered in a typical pulmonary rehabilitation program are most suitable for presentation by a respiratory care practitioner?
1) Methods of relaxation and stress management
2) Recreation and vocational counseling
3) Diaphragmatic and pursed-lip breathing techniques
4) Respiratory structure, function, and disease
A)2 and 4 only
B)1, 2, and 3 only
C)3 and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) Common cardiovascular hazards of physical reconditioning for patients with chronic lung disease include which of the following?
1) Cardiac arrhythmias
2) Systemic hypotension
3) Muscle contractures
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Basic principles of infection control in the home care setting include which of the following?
1) Avoid visits by friends with respiratory infections.
2) Have caregivers follow proper handwashing techniques.
3) Incinerate all disposable equipment and supplies.
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Q2) Home O<sub>2</sub> can be supplied by which of the following systems?
1) REDOX chemical reactors
2) Liquid O<sub>2</sub> systems
3) O<sub>2</sub> concentrators
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
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