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Fundamentals of Respiratory Therapy Exam Questions - 852 Verified Questions

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Fundamentals of Respiratory Therapy Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Fundamentals of Respiratory Therapy introduces students to the principles and practices vital to supporting patients with cardiopulmonary disorders. This course covers the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system, basic assessment techniques, and essential therapeutic interventions such as oxygen therapy, aerosol treatments, airway management, and mechanical ventilation. Emphasis is placed on understanding the indications, methods, and safety considerations of respiratory care procedures, as well as developing effective communication and patient care skills required for clinical environments.

Recommended Textbook

Basic Clinical Lab Competencies for Respiratory Care An Integrated Approach 5th Edition by Gary

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Basics of Asepsis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Tuberculosis is transmitted by ______________.

A)Vehicle transmission

B)Vectorborne transmission

C)Direct contact transmission

D)Airborne transmission

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following are precautions that should be taken with sharps?

1)Do not attempt to force a needle or sharp instrument into an already full container.

2)Do not attempt to remove discarded needles or syringes from sharps containers.

3)Do not ever attempt to recap a needle.

A)2 and 3

B)1,2,3

C)1 only

D)3 only

Answer: B

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3

Chapter 2: Basic Patient Assessment: Vital Signs and Breath

Sounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) What breath sounds are thought to be produced by the sudden opening of alveoli or sections of the lung?

A)Wheezes

B)Rubbing

C)Crackles

D)Rhonchi

Answer: C

Q2) A practitioner is called to the emergency department to evaluate a patient from a nursing home in chronic renal failure with fluid retention.What would the practitioner would expect the patient's blood pressure to be?

A)Hypotensive

B)Hypertensive

C)Normal

D)Lower than normal

Answer: B

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Advanced Patient Assessment: Inspection,

Palpation, and Percussion

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the normal diaphragmatic excursion?

A)1:2

B)Between the 2nd and 4th ribs

C)Between the MCL and the MAL

D)Approximately 8 cm

Answer: D

Q2) What is an increase in the depth of respirations to greater than normal?

A)Hyperventilation

B)Hypopnea

C)Hyperpnea

D)Hypercapnia

Answer: C

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Radiologic Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Where on the chest radiograph should the pulmonary artery catheter be located?

A)Superior vena cava

B)Cardiac silhouette

C)Right side of the heart

D)Pulmonary artery

Q2) If the density of an object being x-rayed is great,_____________________.

A)penetration is high.

B)penetration is low.

C)then the x-rays are being absorbed by the object.

D)the energy is not admitted by the tube.

Q3) When observing the chest x-ray of a patient,how can you tell if a patient is rotated?

A)The trachea should be at the level of the fourth thoracic vertebra

B)The spine should lie equal distance between each clavicle

C)The trachea should be about 4 to 6 cm in length

D)The clavicles should be connected to the sternum

Q4) Air appears dark on the chest radiograph.What type(s)of pathology would appear dark on the chest x-ray?

Q5) A patient with a bilateral hyperresonant percussion note has a chest x-ray taken.What would you expect to find on the chest x-ray?

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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following pulmonary function values CANNOT be measured directly by a bedside pulmonary function test?

I.Tidal volume (Vt)

II.Functional residual capacity (FRC)

III.Residual volume (RV)

IV.Minute volume

A)I and IV

B)II and III

C)II,III,and IV

D)I only

Q2) Which of the following would be used to measure a patient's tidal volume and minute volume?

A)Peak flowmeter

B)Manometer

C)Respirometer

D)Mini-Wright device

Q3) Why are three pulmonary function test trials performed for simple spirometry and flow volume loops and how should the results be reported?

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Chapter 6: Electrocardiography

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Q1) During depolarization and repolarization,two ions are exchanged for these processes to occur.What two ions are involved in this process?

I.Sodium

II.Potassium

III.Chloride

IV.Bicarbonate

A)II and III

B)I and IV

C)I and II

D)III and IV

Q2) Why are augmented leads used in the ECG tracing?

A)They weaken the strong signals from the limb leads

B)They amplify the weak signal more than is needed for the leads to generate a useful tracing

C)They depolarize the limb leads so that there is a unidirectional polarity

D)They can determine the axes of the heart

Q3) An extremely obese patient is to ordered to have an EKG.What problems could be encountered and how should they be approached?

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Chapter 7: Phlebotomy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Following the post needle stick scrub,what should be done to the wound?

A)Apply an ointment such as polymixin-bacitracin to the area

B)It should be lanced by a physician

C)The area should be squeezed to increase perfusion to the area

D)Nothing

Q2) How does the phlebotomist gain the confidence of the patient for a blood draw?

Q3) If a blood spill occurs,what is the first thing you should do?

A)Notify environmental service to clean up the spill

B)Clean it up thoroughly with proper materials

C)Contain the spill by blocking off the area

D)Notify the supervisor to find the location of the environmental control procedure

Q4) If the blood clots in the tube or needle,what should the phlebotomist do?

A)Replace the vacuum collection tube.

B)Remove the tube from the needle and releasing the tourniquet while leaving the needle in the vein.

C)Advance the needle.

D)Start over.

Q5) How can the phlebotomist enhance sites to draw blood from a patient?

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Chapter 8: Arterial Blood Gas Sampling

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Q1) What would be the main blood gas abnormality if too much sodium heparin was used in the blood gas syringe?

A)The sample would have a higher PO

B)The sample would have a higher PCO

C)The sample would have a lower pH

D)The sample would have a higher HCO

Q2) Arterial blood gas (ABG)analysis is used for which part of the clinical assessment?

I.Ventilation

II.Acid-base status

III.Oxygenation

A)II only

B)I and II

C)I,II,and III

D)I and III

Q3) How should the practitioner ensure that the arterial line's measured blood pressure is accurate?

Q4) Possible complications of arterial puncture at any site are vessel trauma and occlusion,embolization,infection,and vessel spasm.How could these be prevented?

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Chapter 9: Hemodynamic Monitoring

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Q1) When interpreting a fall in the CVP,how should the fluid volume be correlated to confirm the relevance of the value?

A)The CVP should be correlated with the systolic blood pressure.

B)The CVP should be correlated with the diastolic blood pressure.

C)The CVP should be correlated with the fluid intake and output.

D)The CVP should be correlated with the PCWP.

Q2) The application of Pascal's law helps to determine all of the following from indwelling catheters EXCEPT ______________

A)arterial pressure.

B)right atrial pressure.

C)cardiac output.

D)left ventricular end-diastolic pressure.

Q3) Hemodynamic monitoring provides important clinical information regarding all of the following EXCEPT___________.

A)Cardiac preload and afterload

B)Blood pressure

C)Heart rate

D)Fluid volume

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Chapter 10: Noninvasive Monitoring

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Q1) What has greatly reduced the number of arterial blood gas (ABG)samples drawn in the acute care setting?

A)Capnography

B)Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring

C)Noninvasive monitoring

D)Transcutaneous P02 monitoring

Q2) How do end-tidal CO monitors measure the PetCO ?

A)Heat

B)Oximetry

C)Infrared light absorption

D)Red light absorption

Q3) Which of the following is NOT an indication for pulse oximetry?

A)The need to monitor the adequacy of arterial oxyhemoglobin saturation.

B)The need to quantitate the response of arterial oxyhemoglobin saturation to therapeutic intervention or to a diagnostic procedure

C)The need to comply with mandated regulations or recommendations by authoritative groups

D)To test for the presence of an ongoing need for measurement of total hemoglobin and abnormal hemoglobins

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Documentation and Goals Assessment

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true concerning documentation?

A)Document things in anticipation of doing it

B)The date and time of interaction

C)Accuracy,timeliness,and truthfulness all are important

D)Document only what has been performed

Q2) Which of the following are recorded in the patient's record?

I.Tests

II.Treatments

III.Procedures

IV.Assessments

A)I and II only

B)II and III only

C)I,III,and IV

D)I,II,III,and IV

Q3) How are entries entered into the medical record?

A)In chronological order

B)In random order

C)In order of department

D)Alphabetical order

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Chapter 12: Oxygen Supply Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Medical gas supply systems include all of the following EXCEPT ______________

A)medical gas cylinders.

B)liquid systems.

C)oxygen concentrators.

D)oxygen regulators.

Q2) You attach a pressure reducing valve to a 'M' sized gas cylinder.When you open the cylinder valve you hear gas leaking from of near the valve-cylinder connection.What should you do?

Q3) The ____________ has developed a color code for the different gases and gas mixtures.

A)U.S.Department of Transportation (DOT)

B)Compressed Gas Association (CGA)

C)Pin Index Safety System (PISS)

D)National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

Q4) The most common service pressure indicated on an oxygen cylinder that is followed by a (+)sign is ___________.

A)50 psi

B)2200 psi

C)2015 psi

D)2 psi

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Chapter 13: Oxygen Administration

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is defined as a system that supplies oxygen-enriched gas as part of a patient's inspiratory flow needs?

A)High-flow oxygen delivery system

B)Low-flow oxygen delivery system

C)Partial rebreathing oxygen delivery system

D)Long-term oxygen therapy

Q2) A respiratory care practitioner sets up an oxygen device on a patient.How should the practitioner document the oxygen?

A)The flowrate or FI02

B)The oxygen device

C)Date and time of set-up

D)All of these

Q3) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to oxygen therapy?

A)Oxygen toxicity

B)Paraquat poisoning

C)Bleomycin therapy

D)There are none

Q4) A patient has been on a non-rebreathing mask for 36 hours.What signs should the practitioner watch for and why?

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Chapter 14: Introduction to Respiratory Care Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following sympathomimetic drugs are intended for maintenance therapy only?

I.Levalbuterol

II.Salmeterol

III.Formoterol

IV.Pirbuterol

A)II,III,and IV

B)I and IV

C)II and III

D)I,II,III,and IV

Q2) An aerosol drug is ordered on a patient in MDI form.The propellant causes a reflex bronchospasm in the patient.What can be done?

Q3) Montelukast,Zarfirlukast,and Zileuton are all used as maintenance therapy for asthma.How do they work?

A)They stabilize the Mast cells.

B)The cause bronchodilation.

C)They are mucolytics.

D)They are leukotriene inhibitors.

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16

Chapter 15: Humidity and Aerosol Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Despite having the flowrate set on 15 LPM on a 30% aerosol to a T-piece,there is very little aerosol seen coming out of the aerosol tubing.What should the practitioner check?

Q2) What is defined as is water in gaseous form,or vapor?

A)Humidity

B)Aerosol

C)Humidity deficit

D)Barometric pressure

Q3) What controls the particle size generated by an ultrasonic nebulizer?

A)Amplitude

B)Frequency

C)Piezoelectric crystal

D)Couplant

Q4) Connection of a large-volume nebulizer to the correct type flowmeter is ensured because the connection incorporates a:

A)PISS fitting at the top of the unit.

B)ASSS fitting at the top of the unit.

C)DISS fitting at the top of the unit.

D)15 mmID fitting at the top of the unit

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Chapter 16: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) During bronchial hygiene therapy in the Trendelenburg position,the patient's SpO decreases from 92% on a 35% Venturi mask to 80% during the first 5 minutes of the therapy.What intervention would be the most correct for the Respiratory Care Practitioner to take at this time?

A)Administer 100% oxygen,stop therapy immediately,return the patient to original resting position,and consult the physician.

B)Administer 100% oxygen and consult the physician.

C)Administer 100% oxygen and continue the therapy with the patient flat in bed.

D)Stop therapy immediately and return patient to original resting position.

Q2) Which technique (s)include(s)removal of retained secretions,atelectasis,and prophylaxis of pulmonary infections and as routine care for patients with cystic fibrosis?

A)PEP therapy

B)Flutter valve therapy

C)High frequency chest wall oscillation therapy

D)All of these

Q3) A patient who is receiving postural drainage and percussion desaturates during therapy,complains of dizziness,and states he cannot tolerate the treatment any longer.What should the practitioner do?

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18

Chapter 17: Hyperinflation Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) During IPV,what happens to the peak pressures during percussion when the source pressure is increased?

A)The peak pressures decrease

B)The peak pressures increase

C)Nothing,but the frequency of the percussion increases

D)The peak pressures remain the same as preset at the factory

Q2) All hyperinflation modalities provide methods for increasing _____________

A)expiratory flow rates.

B)inspiratory volumes.

C)peak expiratory flow rate.

D)residual volume.

Q3) During IPV how is the peak inspiratory pressure determined?

A)Measuring the heart rate

B)Measuring the respiratory rate

C)Observing the pressure manometer

D)Auscultate the breath sounds

Q4) The respiratory care department puts you in charge of the hyperinflation monitoring committee.What should be monitored to determine the type and the effectiveness of the hyperinflation therapy?

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Chapter 18: Bronchoscopy Assisting

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Sample Questions

Q1) What instructions would you give a patient who is to have a bronchoscopy procedure?

Q2) The practitioner being oriented on the pediatric unit finds that one of the duties she will be performing will be helping with bronchoscopy procedures.Why would bronchoscopies be performed on pediatric patients?

Q3) Which type of brush/needle/mechanical device are is/are used to sample areas of interest by "biting" off small chunks of tissue?

A)Unsheathed cytology brush

B)Sheathed cytology brush

C)Forceps

D)Wang needle

Q4) Wheezing may be precipitated by the irritation of the patient's airway by the bronchoscope.This stimulation can result in bronchospasm,causing wheezing.How can this bronchospasm be prevented?

A)Mixing a bronchodilator with the lidocaine administered before the bronchoscopy

B)Administering a sedative to prevent anxiety and anxiety-induced bronchospasm

C)Hyperoxygenating the patient before the bronchoscopy

D)Blocking the sympathetic nervous system

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Equipment Processing and Surveillance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true concerning prokaryotic bacteria?

A)They are more complex

B)They have a true nucleus containing genetic material (chromosomes)

C)Replication is accomplished by cell division

D)These cells reproduce by mitosis

Q2) Gram positive bacteria stain what color?

A)Purple

B)Red or pink

C)Colorless

D)Yellow

Q3) What is defined as the complete destruction of vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms?

A)Antisepsis

B)Sterilization

C)Disinfection

D)Pasteurization

Q4) The practitioner has just performed a bedside pulmonary function test on a patient who tests positive for tuberculosis.This is detected only 1 hour before the next test is to be performed.What should be done?

Q5) What types of vaccines should a health care worker undergo routinely?

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Chapter 20: Emergency Airway Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) To lessen the damage caused to the tracheal wall by the endotracheal tube cuff,it is best to use what type of cuff?

A)Pilot balloon

B)Low-volume,high-pressure cuff

C)High-volume,low-pressure cuff

D)PVC cuff

Q2) A 6'5",300-lb male patient is admitted to ICU for mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube.A 7.5 mm-ID tube is in place.What problems could be present with this patient and how could they be treated?

Q3) What endotracheal tube cuff pressure should be maintained to minimize tracheal damage?

A)25 cmH O or greater

B)20 cmH O or less

C)1.5 inHg

D)25 mmHg or greater

Q4) A patient is unconscious and has blood is his mouth upon being admitted to the emergency department.Breath sounds are diminished bilaterally.What would you recommend to maintain the patient's airway and why?

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Artificial Airway Care

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Q1) A patient on mechanical ventilation is suctioned.The patient's heart rate decreases from 120/minute before the procedure to 66/minute after the procedure.What is the cause of this decrease in the heart rate?

A)Tissue trauma

B)Vagus nerve stimulation

C)Hyperventilation of the patient

D)Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

Q2) If the volume ventilator is used for preoxygenation and preventilation prior to suctioning a patient,you must wait up to 2 minutes,depending on the rate and the tidal volume,before the patient receives 100% oxygen.What is the reason for this?

A)Vagus nerve stimulation

B)Suction catheter size

C)The invagination of the airway mucosal tissue

D)The effects of the wash-out volume

Q3) What is defined as the removal of a tracheostomy tube?

A)Decannulation

B)Leak technique

C)Invagination

D)Wash-out volume

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Chest Tubes

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Q1) What is "tidaling"?

A)Gentle continuous bubbling observed in the suction control chamber

B)Vigorous bubbling observed in the suction control chamber

C)Fluid collection in the collection chamber

D)The normal rise and fall of the fluid level with the patient's breathing pattern

Q2) If the water level in the water seal chamber is too low,what can be the hazard to the patient?

A)More vacuum is applied to the patient's thoracic cavity

B)Increases the risk of entry of atmospheric air into the patient's thoracic cavity

C)It makes it more difficult for air or fluid to drain

D)A leak can occur in the drainage system

Q3) Which of the following drugs would you suggest to the physician as a local anesthetic to use at the point of insertion of a chest tube?

A)4% Lidocaine

B)Midazolam

C)Providone-iodine

D)Aspirin cream

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Chapter 23: Insertion and Maintenance of Intravenous Lines

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Q1) Which of the following solutions is/are the most desirable for maintaining a normal environment for cellular function?

A)Hypotonic solution

B)Hypertonic solution

C)Isotonic solution

D)Lactated Ringer's solution

Q2) During insertion of an IV,the practitioner re-inserts the metal needle back into the catheter.What complication can be caused by this?

A)Air embolism

B)Phlebitis

C)Catheter shear

D)Cellulitis

Q3) What is inflammation of the vein called?

A)Phlebitis

B)Cellulitis

C)Thrombosis

D)Arteriosclerosis

Q4) What happens to the small air bubbles that pass through the IV tubing and enter into the patient?

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Chapter 24: Noninvasive Positive-Pressure Ventilation

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Q1) A patient with COPD is placed on NPPV.The patient develops sudden shortness of breath,asymmetrical chest movement,and tracheal shift away from the side of the chest with no movement.Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A)The patient has developed hypoxemia.

B)The patient has developed atelectasis.

C)A bleb has ruptured on the patient's lung.

D)The patient is experiencing O induced hypoventilation.

Q2) Which of the following ventilatory parameters would indicate that a patient has impending ventilatory failure?

A)A 65-kg patient with a Vt of 273 ml

B)A 62-kg patient with a minute volume of 9.1 L/min

C)A 57-kg patient with a respiratory rate of 37/min

D)A RSBI of 54

Q3) A patient on NPPV has an increase in lung compliance.If the set pressure remains the same what will happen to the delivered Vt?

A)It will remain the same.

B)It will increase.

C)It will decrease.

D)It will remain the same if the RAW decreases at the same time.

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Page 26

Chapter 25: Continuous Mechanical Ventilation

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Q1) In the face of changing airway resistance or thoracic compliance,which of the following will occur in volume ventilation?

A)Pressure is selected as the controlled variable

B)Volume will change while pressure will stay the same

C)Pressure will vary but the tidal volume will remain unchanged

D)Pressure will stay the same but FIO will vary with back pressure

Q2) Use of high pressure,large volume and increased oxygen tension can result in

A)VAP (ventilator associated pneumonia).

B)VILI (ventilator induced lung injury).

C)RSBI (rapid shallow breathing index).

D)MOV (maximum occluding volume).

Q3) The purpose of auscultation includes all of the following EXCEPT

A)the need for suction.

B)distribution of ventilation.

C)changes in breath sounds.

D)as required by procedure.

Q4) How is tubing compliance determined?

Q5) How does a practitioner measure airway resistance on a ventilator?

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Q6) What is the difference in calculating dynamic compliance vs static compliance?

Chapter 26: Advanced Modes of Mechanical Ventilation

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Q1) BiLevel with the Nellcor Puritan Bennett 840 allows adjustment of High PEEP,Low PEEP,Time High and Time Low.These controls are also seen in _________________

A)SIMV

B)PRVC

C)APRV

D)VSV

Q2) What is the key indicator of ventilation?

A)Tidal volume

B)RSBI

C)PaCO

D)PaO

Q3) Inverse ratio ventilation is __________________

A)where the expiratory phase is longer than inspiration.

B)best described a expiratory retard.

C)when inspiration is longer than expiration.

D)is an I:E of 1:1.1

Q4) What is the auto-set-point control?

Q5) How does a respiratory care practitioner assess the patient's work of breathing?

Q6) What is proportional assist ventilation?

Q7) What are the purposes of ventilator alarms and backup modes?

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Chapter 27: Wave Form Analysis

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Q1) Positive end expiratory pressure is identified on a pressure-time display by

A)noting the amount below the baseline pressure.

B)the rise in the baseline pressure.

C)using inspiratory hold.

D)checking the amount on the ventilation record.

Q2) Peak pressure is which of the following?

A)The highest point on the flow-time display

B)The highest point of the baseline pressure

C)The pressure recorded at the point of no airflow

D)The highest pressure reached during inspiration.

Q3) Which graphic displays can indicate adequacy of inspiratory flow during a ventilator inspiration and how are they used?

Q4) A breath that rises and then remains at a specific cmH O pressure for varying lengths of inspiratory is which type of breath?

A)Spontaneous

B)Volume control

C)Pressure support

D)Pressure control

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Chapter 28: Weaning and Discontinuance of Mechanical Ventilation

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Q1) Assessing for adequate oxygenation for weaning from mechanical ventilation can include which of the following?

I.PEEP less than or equal to 5-8 cm H O

II.FIO greater than or equal to 0.6

III.PaO /FIO greater than 150-200

A)I,II and III

B)I and II

C)I and III

D)II and III

Q2) Evidence of decompensation during an SBT include which of the following?

I.Cardiac dysrhythmias

II.Increased anxiety

III.Diaphoresis

IV.Digital clubbing

A)I,II,III and IV

B)I,II and III

C)II,III and IV

D)I and III

Q3) How do cardiovascular problems result in ventilator dependence?

Q4) How do neurological problems result in ventilator dependence?

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Chapter 29: Neonatal Mechanical Ventilation

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44622

Sample Questions

Q1) When a patient of any age cannot adequately provide enough oxygen for the body and sufficiently eliminate carbon dioxide,the term used is ______________

A)ventilatory insufficiency.

B)apnea.

C)respiratory failure.

D)CO retainer.

Q2) Which of the following are goals for mechanical ventilation?

I.Adequate alveolar gas exchange

II.Prevent ventilator induced lung injury

III.Reduce patient's work of breathing

A)I,II and III

B)II and III

C)I and III

D)I only

Q3) When mechanically ventilating a neonate,traditionally how is inspiration terminated?

A)After a preset volume is delivered

B)After a preset time interval has passed

C)After a preset pressure is reached

D)Once flow decreases to 25% of initial peak flow

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31

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