Fundamentals of Radiography Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Radiography introduces students to the essential concepts and principles that underpin the practice of radiographic imaging in medical settings. The course covers topics such as the physics of X-ray production, image formation, radiographic equipment, and safe operation protocols. Students will explore the anatomy as visualized through radiographic techniques, understand exposure factors, patient positioning, and image evaluation. Emphasis is placed on radiation safety, infection control, and the ethical responsibilities of radiographers. Foundational skills are developed to ensure students can apply theoretical knowledge to basic clinical practices in diagnostic imaging.
Recommended Textbook
Bontragers Textbook of Radiographic Positioning and Related Anatomy 9th Edition by John
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Lampignano
Chapter 1: Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a secondary growth center for endochondral ossification?
A)Diaphysis
B)Epiphyses
C)Metaphysis
D)Articular cartilage
Answer: B
Q2) A Deviation Index (DI) of zero indicates no radiation has reached the digital image receptor.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following terms describes the sole of the foot?
A)Palmar
B)Dorsum
C)Volar
D)Plantar
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Chest
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Q1) Inflammation of pleura (possible air/fluid levels)
A)Tuberculosis
B)Emphysema
C)Pneumothorax
D)Hemoptysis
E)COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
F)Pneumonia
G)Atelectasis
H)Pleurisy
I)Malignant lung cancer
J)Pulmonary edema
Answer: H
Q2) Bronchitis
A)Increase (+)
B)Decrease (-)
C)No change (0)
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Abdomen
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Q1) Sigmoid colon
A)Intraperitoneal
B)Retroperitoneal
C)Infraperitoneal
Answer: A
Q2) Liver
A)Intraperitoneal
B)Retroperitoneal
C)Infraperitoneal
Answer: A
Q3) Spleen
A)Intraperitoneal
B)Retroperitoneal
C)Infraperitoneal
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) The interphalangeal joints have a(n) ____ type of joint movement.
A)plane
B)saddle
C)ellipsoidal
D)ginglymus
Q2) Which carpal articulates with both the fourth and fifth metacarpals?
A)Triquetrum
B)Capitate
C)Hamate
D)Trapezoid
Q3) What CR angle is required with the modified Robert's method?
A)5° proximally (toward the wrist)
B)10° distally (away from the wrist)
C)15° proximally (toward the wrist)
D)20° distally (away from the wrist)
Q4) Which is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?
A)Lunate
B)Trapezium
C)Scaphoid
D)Hamate
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Chapter 5: Humerus and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) AP oblique, glenoid cavity projection
A)Clements modification
B)Neer method
C)Fisk modification
D)Hobbs modification
E)Garth method
F)Grashey method
Q2) What type of CR angle is required for the apical AP axial projection?
A)30° caudad
B)15 to 20° cephalad
C)45° caudad
D)10 to 15° caudad
Q3) What is the common term for idiopathic chronic adhesive capsulitis?
A)Bankart lesion
B)Tendinitis
C)Bursitis
D)Frozen shoulder
Q4) The female clavicle is usually shorter and less curved than that of the male.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) A radiographic appearance of a highly malignant and extensively destructive lesion that usually occurs in long bones and produces a sunburst pattern describes:
A)an osteomalacia.
B)an osteogenic sarcoma.
C)an osteoclastoma.
D)Reiter syndrome.
Q2) For the AP weight-bearing knee projection on an average patient, the CR should be:
A)10° caudad.
B)5° to 10° cephalad.
C)perpendicular to the image receptor.
D)perpendicular to the image receptor, but SID should be increased to 60 inches (153 cm).
Q3) Which one of the following projections will best demonstrate signs of Osgood-Schlatter disease?
A)Plantodorsal (axial) and lateral calcaneus
B)AP, lateral, and oblique ankle
C)AP bilateral weight-bearing knees
D)AP and lateral knee
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8
Chapter 7: Femur and Pelvic Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) A radiograph of an axiolateral (inferosuperior) projection reveals that there is an excessive amount of grid lines present.A 6:1 linear grid was used.Which of the following points will correct this problem on the repeat exposure?
A)Use a screen rather than a grid.
B)Decrease the SID.
C)Keep the image receptor and grid parallel to the femoral neck and perpendicular to the CR.
D)Keep the image receptor and grid perpendicular to the femoral neck.
Q2) A radiograph of an AP pelvis demonstrates that the right obturator foramen is foreshortened but the left foramen is open.Which one of the following positioning errors is present on this radiograph?
A)Right rotation
B)Left rotation
C)Right tilt
D)Excessive CR angle
Q3) Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics.Round and large pelvic inlet:
A)Male
B)Female
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cervical and Thoracic Spine
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Q1) The AP axial-vertebral arch projection may be performed to better demonstrate the:
A)C1 and C1-2 atlantoaxial joint spaces.
B)vertebral arch (articular pillars) of C4-7.
C)open intervertebral disk spaces of C3-T1.
D)dens within the foramen magnum.
Q2) A patient enters the emergency department (ED) because of a motor vehicle accident (MVA).The patient is on a backboard and wearing a cervical collar.The technologist is concerned about the artifacts that the collar will project on the spine during the horizontal beam lateral projection.What should the technologist do in this situation?
A)Leave the collar on during the exposure.
B)Remove the cervical collar but be careful not to move the patient's head.
C)Ask the patient to remove the collar herself (for liability reasons).
D)Ask a nurse to remove the collar and to hold the patient's head while the technologist is initiating the exposure.
Q3) The anterior oblique thoracic spine demonstrates the upside zygapophyseal joints. A)True
B)False
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10
Chapter 9: Lumbar Spine, Sacrum, and Coccyx
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lateral projections of the sacrum and coccyx must be performed as two separate exposures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why should the hips and knees be flexed for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the lumbar spine?
A)For patient comfort
B)To reduce the lumbar curvature
C)To demonstrate any possible spondylolisthesis
D)Both A and B
Q3) The use of digital radiography is not recommended for studies of the sacrum and coccyx.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The small section of bone found between the superior and inferior articular processes of the lumbar spine is termed: A)pillar.
B)transverse processes.
C)articular facets.
D)pars interarticularis.
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Chapter 10: Bony Thoraxsternum and Ribs
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Q1) Which of the following techniques is most effective in preventing lung markings from obscuring the sternum on an oblique projection?
A)Use a high kV.
B)Oblique as much as needed to not superimpose the sternum over the hilum region.
C)Decrease the source image receptor distance (SID) to magnify the sternum.
D)Use an orthostatic (breathing) technique.
Q2) The radiographic appearance of the erosion of bony rib margins is a possible indication of:
A)osteomyelitis.
B)osteoblastic metastases.
C)spondylolysis.
D)osteolytic metastases.
Q3) Which ribs are considered to be true ribs?
A)First only
B)First through seventh ribs
C)First through ninth ribs
D)Eleventh and twelfth ribs
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12
Chapter 11: Cranium, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A radiograph of a lateral cranium reveals that the mentum of the mandible was cut off from the bottom of the radiograph.A 24 × 30-cm (10 × 12-inch) IR was used, and it was placed landscape.What must be altered if a repeat exposure is performed?
A)Center the CR at the EAM.
B)Increase SID to reduce magnification.
C)Place the 24 × 30-cm (10 × 12-inch) IR lengthwise.
D)None of the above; all of the critical structures were demonstrated.
Q2) A patient enters the ED with facial bone injuries.The physician is concerned about a possible blow-out fracture of the left orbit.Which one of the following projections would best diagnose this injury?
A)Parietoacanthial (Waters method) projection
B)Submentovertical projection
C)Superoinferior (tangential) projection
D)Modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters) projection
Q3) The aditus is defined as a(n):
A)large chamber containing the mastoid air cells.
B)thin plate of bone separating the mastoid air cells from the brain.
C)passageway for the auditory nerve.
D)opening between the epitympanic recess and the mastoid air cells.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Biliary Tract and Upper Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following procedures will not demonstrate possible esophageal reflux?
A)Toe-touch maneuver
B)Water test
C)Reverse Trendelenburg method
D)Compression technique
Q2) Once food enters the stomach and is mixed with gastric secretions, it is termed:
A)bile.
B)lipids.
C)chyme.
D)biologic catalysts.
Q3) Why would a patient undergo Valsalva maneuver during an esophagogram?
A)To demonstrate possible esophageal varices
B)To demonstrate possible esophageal reflux
C)To demonstrate possible esophagitis
D)To demonstrate a possible bezoar
Q4) Digital fluoroscopy has distinct advantages but produces a slightly higher patient dose as compared with conventional fluoroscopy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Lower Gi System
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Sample Questions
Q1) While attempting to insert an enema tip into the rectum, the technologist experiences resistance.What should be the next step taken by the technologist?
A)Retry the insertion using more lubrication.
B)Ask the patient to try to insert it himself.
C)Have the radiologist insert it using fluoroscopic guidance.
D)Cancel the procedure.
Q2) What is the term for the three bands of muscle that pull the large intestine into pouches?
A)Haustra
B)Valvulae conniventes
C)Suspensory ligaments
D)Taenia coli
Q3) The term describing a double-contrast small bowel procedure is:
A)two-stage small bowel procedure.
B)diagnostic intubation.
C)enteroclysis.
D)none of the above.
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15
Chapter 14: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Large stone that grows and completely fills the renal pelvis
A)Horseshoe kidney
B)Ectopic kidney
C)Vesicocolonic fistula
D)Staghorn kidney stone
E)Urinary incontinence
F)BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia)
Q2) The rapid introduction of contrast agents into the vascular system is termed:
A)rapid-fire injection.
B)rapid-drip infusion.
C)bolus injection.
D)IV infusion.
Q3) Which component of an ionic contrast media increases its solubility?
A)Cation
B)Anion
C)Benzoic acid
D)Iodine
Q4) Extravasation is classified as a local reaction.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much rotation is required for an AP oblique projection of the sternum on a hypersthenic patient?
A)20°
B)25°
C)30°
D)15°
Q2) A fracture that occurs through the pedicles of the axis (C2), with or without displacement of C2 or C3, is termed a(n) _____ fracture.
A)odontoid
B)clay shoveler's
C)Jefferson
D)hangman's
Q3) Blow-out fracture
A)Smith fracture
B)Closed fracture
C)Hickory-stick fracture
D)Mallet fracture
E)Chauffeur's fracture
F)March fracture
G)Tripod fracture
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Chapter 16: Pediatric Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which projection and/or position of the abdomen is recommended for demonstrating the prevertebral region of the abdomen?
A)AP supine
B)AP erect
C)Dorsal decubitus
D)Left lateral decubitus
Q2) Which of the following digital system kV ranges is recommended for a lateral projection of the pediatric chest?
A)60 to 65
B)70 to 75
C)75 to 80
D)100 to 115
Q3) A bowel obstruction caused by an accumulation of fluid in the bowel of a full-term fetus is termed:
A)necrotizing enterocolitis.
B)meconium ileus.
C)intussusception.
D)appendicitis.
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Chapter 17: Angiography and Interventional Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following vessels do NOT supply blood to the brain?
A)Right common carotid artery
B)Left common carotid artery
C)Vertebral arteries
D)Subclavian arteries
Q2) Which dural venous sinus is located within the inner aspect of the longitudinal fissure of the brain?
A)Sigmoid sinus
B)Straight sinus
C)Transverse sinus
D)Superior sagittal sinus
Q3) Which of the following arteries is found at the level of the knee?
A)Popliteal
B)Anterior
C)Deep femoral
D)Dorsalis pedis
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19
Chapter 18: Computed Tomography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures filters the blood to produce CSF?
A)Choroid plexus
B)Arachnoid granulations
C)Arachnoid villi
D)Ventricles
Q2) Air
A)+50
B)+40
C)+20
D)-100
E)-200
F)-1000
G)+1000 or higher
Q3) At what vertebral level is the tapered, terminal part of the spinal cord found?
A)Lower border of T10
B)L4-5 joint space
C)Lower border of L1
D)S1-2
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Chapter 19: Special Radiographic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the four divisions of the uterus is the largest?
A)Fundus
B)Corpus (body)
C)Isthmus
D)Cervix
Q2) Linear tomography is primarily used for studies of the temporal bones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a suggested conventional positioning routine for cervical myelography following fluoroscopy and spot imaging?
A)Patient prone: PA lateral, swimmer's lateral, and one lateral decubitus-horizontal beam
B)Patient on side: right lateral decubitus (AP) and left lateral decubitus (PA)
C)Patient prone: PA horizontal beam and swimmer's lateral of C6 or C7
D)Patient prone: horizontal beam lateral (centered to C4-5) and swimmer's horizontal beam lateral (centered to C7)
Q4) The technologist must follow standard precautions when handling bile.
A)True
B)False
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Diagnostic and Therapeutic Modalities
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Q1) The retromammary space is located posterior to the pectoralis major muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is considered a type of external beam therapy?
A)Intraoperative radiation therapy
B)Linear accelerator
C)Cobalt 60
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following techniques can help reduce cardiac motion artifacts?
A)Physiologic gating
B)Fast spin echo
C)Signal averaging
D)All of the above
Q4) Computed radiography has lower operating costs over analog mammography imaging.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Grids are being used for most mammographic units.
A)True
B)False
22
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