Fundamentals of Psychology Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Psychology introduces students to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. The course covers foundational topics such as perception, learning, memory, motivation, emotion, development, personality, and psychological disorders. Students will explore major theoretical perspectives including biological, cognitive, behavioral, and sociocultural approaches and learn about research methods used in psychology. Emphasis is placed on applying psychological concepts to everyday life and understanding the relevance of psychology in addressing individual and societal challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology Themes and Variations 3rd Canadian by Dr. Wayne Weiten
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A: The Evolution of Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be expected of an industrial/organizational psychologist?
A)providing group or individual psychotherapy
B)providing assistance to people struggling with everyday problems
C)testing and counselling children who are having difficulty in school
D)working to improve employee morale and attitudes
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of Skinner's behaviourism?
A)It left room for free will.
B)It made the study of behaviour and its outcome the basis of the whole approach.
C)It encouraged speculative statements about consciousness.
D)It included constructs about motives.
Answer: B
Q3) Who was the first woman to receive a Ph.D. in psychology?
A)Mary Calkins
B)Anna Freud
C)Margaret Washburn
D)Leta Hollingworth
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 1: B: The Evolution of Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is one of your text's unifying themes related to psychology as a field of study?
A)Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour.
B)Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
C)Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.
D)People's experience of the world is highly subjective.
Answer: B
Q2) Which school of psychology had a practical focus and was interested in how people adapted their behaviour to the demands of the world?
A)functionalism
B)behaviourism
C)psychoanalysis
D)structuralism
Answer: A
Q3) What is the largest specialization in professional psychology?
A)counselling psychology
B)industrial/organizational psychology
C)clinical psychology
D)developmental psychology
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: A: The Research Enterprise in Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the typical consequence of experimenter bias?
A)The effects of the bias confirm the experimenter's expectations.
B)The results of the study are not statistically significant.
C)There is evidence of the placebo effect in the results of the experimental group.
D)Experimenters often doubt their results when they first see them.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of your text's unifying themes is illustrated by the fact that research results can be affected by experimenter bias?
A)Psychology is theoretically diverse.
B)Our experience of the world is highly subjective.
C)Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage.
D)Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following sets of concepts is NOT a closely related set?
A)correlation, sample, journal
B)method, results, discussion
C)experiment, independent variable, control group
D)mean, median, mode
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 2: B: The Research Enterprise in Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If A and B are highly correlated, which statement most accurately describes the relationship between A and B?
A)The score on A causes the score on B.
B)The score on B causes the score on A.
C)Both A and B are caused by a third variable.
D)The score on A can be used to predict the score on B.
Q2) Dr. O'Hara is investigating the effect of music on the productivity of employees in a factory. Half of the employees listen to music while working and half do not listen to music. Dr. O'Hara measures the productivity of each employee. In this study, which group does NOT listen to music?
A)experimental group
B)dependent group
C)control group
D)independent group
Q3) What is the operational definition of a stress response in Beth's study?
A)increase in heart rate
B)heart rate monitors
C)fear
D)exposure to strangers
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Page 6
Chapter 3: A:The Biological Bases of Behaviour
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Q1) What is a good analogy for the way in which a neurotransmitter binds to receptor sites?
A)the lowering of a drawbridge
B)a key fitting in a lock
C)the pulling of a gun trigger
D)the opening and closing of a window
Q2) Assume that developing a sixth toe is a recessive trait that is controlled by a single pair of genes. If a child has six toes, but both the child's biological parents have normal feet, what can you conclude?
A)The child is heterozygous for the trait in question.
B)Both parents are heterozygous for the trait in question.
C)Both parents are homozygous for the trait in question.
D)One parent is heterozygous for the trait, and the other parent is homozygous.
Q3) What do we call the process by which genes that lead to a survival or reproductive advantage become more frequent in the next generation?
A)natural selection
B)polygenic transmission
C)gene flow
D)genetic mapping
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Page 7
Chapter 3: B: The Biological Bases of Behaviour
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Q1) Why would the Human Genome Project not be considered part of the field of behaviour genetics?
A)The procedures associated with genetic mapping do not consider the role of the environment on behaviour.
B)It appears to be impossible to predict behaviours based on genetic substrates.
C)It focuses on the genome, not the chromosome.
D)It is conducted by molecular geneticists.
Q2) If a patient has severe damage to the prefrontal cortex, which of the following would become difficult for that patient?
A)identifying objects by touch
B)planning, paying attention, and getting organized
C)hearing sounds
D)identifying visually complex materials
Q3) The long necks of giraffes and sharp beaks of woodpeckers allow access to food. What is the term used for these physical characteristics?
A)adaptations
B)fitness
C)natural selection
D)genotype
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Chapter 4: A: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a vision experiment, subjects are asked to view stimuli that include vertical black-and-red bars, as well as horizontal black-and-green bars, for a few minutes. Given what you know about the McCullough effect, what afterimages should the subjects see when presented with vertical or horizontal arrays of black-and-white bars?
A)Vertical white bars would appear green and horizontal white bars would appear pink.
B)All white bars will be seen as a pale purple.
C)Vertical white bars would appear pink and horizontal white bars would appear green.
D)Vertical white bars would appear blue and horizontal white bars would appear yellow.
Q2) If the pathway through your superior colliculus were not functioning correctly, what would be difficult for you to do?
A)perceiving depth
B)integrating visual and auditory information
C)distinguishing colours
D)detecting differences in texture
Q3) Using appropriate examples, show how perceptual experiences can be subjective.
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9
Chapter 4: B: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a pain message is being transmitted to the brain through the fast pathway, what kind of pain will be experienced?
A)external pain
B)a long-lasting aching pain
C)a sharp pain
D)internal pain
Q2) Jessica's furnace broke one winter day. She didn't notice that the temperature had dropped until it was two degrees colder than the usual programmed temperature. What is the psychophysics term for the two-degree difference between the usual temperature and the temperature at which Jessica noticed that it was colder?
A)a just noticeable difference
B)a detection difference
C)an absolute difference
D)a Weber fractional difference
Q3) What differs between a red light and a green light?
A)purity
B)complexity
C)wavelength
D)amplitude
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Chapter 5: A: Variations in Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which theory of dreaming proposes that dreams are the cortex's attempt to make sense out of bursts of general firing from lower brain centres?
A)activation-synthesis theory
B)cathartic neurology theory
C)wish fulfillment theory
D)problem-solving theory
Q2) Of the following statements regarding sleepwalking, which is most accurate?
A)Sleepwalking occurs in REM sleep.
B)It is not safe to awaken a sleepwalker.
C)Sleepwalkers are not acting out a dream.
D)Sleepwalkers rarely hurt themselves.
Q3) Jasmine used to feel quite giddy and light-headed after drinking a single glass of wine. Now she finds she can drink three glasses of wine before she feels giddy. What has happened to Jasmine?
A)She is experiencing the effects of alcohol withdrawal.
B)She has developed a drug tolerance for alcohol.
C)She has become alcohol resistant.
D)She has developed an alcohol dependency.
Q4) Compare and contrast the "role-playing" and "altered state" views of hypnosis.
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Chapter 5: B: Variations in Consciousness
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Q1) Which category of psychoactive drug is best characterized as having a moderate risk for physical dependence associated with a high risk for psychological dependence?
A)cannabis
B)hallucinogens
C)stimulants
D)narcotics
Q2) Which of the following has been supported by evidence from a recent Canadian survey on drug use?
A)The rate of cannabis use has doubled in the past decade.
B)More than half of Canadians report using cannabis at some point in their lives.
C)Only 2 percent of those who drink alcohol are considered to be "high-risk" drinkers.
D)Roughly 80 percent of Canadians report that they are "current drinkers."
Q3) When is sleepwalking most likely to occur?
A)when a person has emotional or psychological problems
B)during REM sleep
C)during slow-wave sleep
D)after a person has been asleep for several hours
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Chapter 6: A: Learning
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Questions
Q1) Ming is afraid of all spiders because her brother once dropped a spider down her shirt when she was younger. Today, even the sight of a rubber spider is enough to send shivers down her spine. Which learning process can best account for Ming's fear of spiders?
A)operant conditioning
B)delayed reinforcement
C)classical conditioning
D)observational learning
Q2) Which of the following would result in a decrease in the effectiveness of punishment?
A)increasing the intensity of the punishment
B)lengthening the delay between the response and the punishment
C)providing the subject with an alternative response that will lead to the desired reinforcer
D)making the punishment more consistent
Q3) Through which of the following does avoidance conditioning develop?
A)positive reinforcement
B)positive punishment
C)negative reinforcement
D)negative punishment
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Chapter 6: B: Learning
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Q1) Many parenting books, dog training manuals, and business management approaches all advocate the use of operant conditioning techniques to encourage desirable behaviour in children, pets, and employees. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by the widespread knowledge of, and application of conditioning techniques?
A)Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour.
B)Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.
C)Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
D)Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage.
Q2) When Henrik's Uncle Oleg visits, Oleg always gives Henrik an intense tickling and will stop this "tickle-torture" only when Henrik says "Uncle." Henrik's response of saying "Uncle" is strengthened through which process?
A)avoidance learning
B)punishment
C)negative reinforcement
D)positive reinforcement
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14
Chapter 7: A: Human Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the Atkinson and Shiffrin model of memory, describe the capacity, durability, and the typical form of information storage in each of the three human memory systems, and identify the processes that transfer information from one system to another.
Q2) Curtis has been testing a new software package for the past two months. However, he decides not to switch and he goes back to using his old software. Unfortunately, he is now having some problems in recalling how to do certain tasks with the old software, and often finds himself trying to do things the way he did with the new software he was testing. What is illustrated by this example?
A)proactive interference
B)memory reconstruction
C)retroactive interference
D)state-dependent forgetting
Q3) What is the general correlation between eyewitness confidence and eyewitness accuracy?
A)strongly positive
B)strongly negative
C)modest
D)nonexistent
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Chapter 7: B: Human Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Poor memory for information often occurs when the information receives only a shallow level of processing. In this case, what leads to memory failure?
A)storage failure
B)retrieval failure
C)interference
D)ineffective encoding
Q2) According to Ebbinghaus's research, what is the pattern in which memory for meaningless information is forgotten?
A)very gradually over several days
B)each item is forgotten immediately
C)very gradually for several hours and then at a very rapid rate
D)very rapidly in the first few hours after learning
Q3) What are connectionist models of memory based on?
A)connections between encoding, storage, and retrieval
B)connections between sensory, short-term, and long-term memory
C)how computer systems process information
D)how neural networks process information
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Chapter 8: A: Language and Thought
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Alaina is working on her bicycle, she brings her entire tool kit out on the driveway and starts pulling wrenches from the tool kit at random, trying them until she finds one that fits. What type of approach is Alaina using?
A)alternate outcomes analysis
B)working backward
C)forming subgoals
D)trial and error
Q2) There have been a number of reports in the news about the Avian Flu, including reports of a number of deaths. Other forms of flu kill many more people every year, but many people state that the Avian Flu is much more dangerous. Which of the following is likely responsible for this overestimation of the danger of Avian Flu?
A)representativeness heuristic
B)availability heuristic
C)belief in the law of small numbers
D)confirmation bias
Q3) How does risky decision making differ from making decisions about preferences? How do people generally make each type of decision?
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Chapter 8: B: Language and Thought
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is typically included in telegraphic speech?
A)nouns and verbs
B)nouns, verbs, and articles
C)only nouns
D)only verbs
Q2) Which of the following is a shortcut, or guiding principle, used in solving problems or making decisions?
A)a trial
B)an analogy
C)a heuristic
D)an algorithm
Q3) Imagine you have a problem to solve that has some similarities to problems you have previously solved. If focusing on the similarities leads you relatively quickly to a solution, then which heuristic do you benefit from?
A)changing the representation of the problem
B)working backward
C)searching for analogies
D)functional fixedness
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18
Chapter 9: A: Intelligence and Psychological Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following researchers proposed the notion of stereotype vulnerability to explain ethnic differences in IQ scores?
A)Sandra Scarr
B)Arthur Jensen
C)Phillipe Rushton
D)Claude Steele
Q2) Zane is able to solve problems quickly. Even when he was in elementary school he seemed to be able to think through questions and answer them more quickly than his classmates. What type of intelligence facilitates Zane's quick reasoning and information processing?
A)creativity
B)fluid intelligence
C)experiential intelligence
D)crystallized intelligence
Q3) For which of the following would it be the most difficult to demonstrate validity?
A)history test
B)test of creativity
C)mechanical aptitude test
D)secretarial aptitude test
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Page 19
Chapter 9: B: Intelligence and Psychological Testing
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Q1) Sternberg and his colleagues asked people to list examples of intelligent behaviour, and came up with three basic categories of intelligence. What are the three categories?
A)academic, social, and practical
B)verbal, social, and interpersonal
C)academic, practical, and interpersonal
D)verbal, practical, and social
Q2) Based on evidence about the Flynn effect, which of the following groups of IQ scores would you expect to have the highest average score?
A)a sample from 1920
B)a sample from 1950
C)a sample from 1980
D)a sample from 2010
Q3) Which of Gardner's categories of intelligence would be most pronounced in someone who is a very successful taxi driver or delivery person?
A)linguistic
B)musical
C)logical-mathematical
D)spatial
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20
Chapter 10: A: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics in a potential mate is likely to be rated more highly by women than by men, according to the results of Buss's study of over 10,000 people in 37 cultures?
A)youthfulness
B)status
C)kindness
D)physical attractiveness
Q2) Which of the following is a simple definition of motivation?
A)Motivation is a precursor to dominance.
B)Motivation involves goal-directed behaviour.
C)Motivation includes all voluntary behaviour.
D)Motivation requires intentional behaviour.
Q3) What does the set point for body weight refer to?
A)the lowest possible weight at which the person can survive
B)a person's current weight
C)the highest weight the person can attain by unrestricted eating
D)a person's natural point of stability in body weight
Q4) Compare and contrast sexual motivation with the basic motives of hunger and thirst. How well do the concepts of drive and homeostasis contribute to understanding sexual motivation?
Page 21
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Chapter 10: B: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) When Patricia was a young student with very little money, whenever she had a chance to go out for a fancy dinner it would improve her mood for days. Now that she has a job where she must take clients out for fancy dinners on a regular basis, the dinners no longer provide her with any real joy. What is this change called?
A)hedonic shift
B)happiness shift
C)hedonic adaptation
D)happiness adaptation
Q2) During which phase of the human sexual response are male and female differences in response most pronounced?
A)orgasm phase
B)resolution phase
C)excitement phase
D)plateau phase
Q3) Which of the following would NOT be monitored by a polygraph?
A)dilation of the pupils
B)blood pressure
C)galvanic skin response (GSR)
D)respiration rate
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Page 22
Chapter 11: A: Human Development Across the Life Span
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Q1) You and a friend are discussing the importance of fathers in children's overall development. Your friend states that "If we fail to promote increased involvement of fathers in the parenting process, then we must accept the inevitable breakdown of other social values." What type of reasoning fallacy is this?
A)a weak analogy
B)circular logic
C)alternative explanations
D)a false dichotomy
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with smoking cigarettes during pregnancy?
A)increased risk for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)
B)increased risk for miscarriage, stillbirth, or prematurity
C)increased risk for microcephaly in the newborn
D)increased risk of attention deficit disorder in the child
Q3) Why is the concrete operationals stage said to be "concrete"?
A)An object must be present for the child to recognize its existence.
B)The child attributes human qualities to concrete objects.
C)Facts are taken to be set in stone, not to be given up easily.
D)Children can perform operations only on tangible objects and actual events.
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Page 23
Chapter 11: B: Human Development Across the Life Span
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Q1) According to the concept of 'internal working models', how does infant attachment influence later social behaviour?
A)Secure attachment facilitates social bonds.
B)Infants learn how relationships work and apply that pattern to future interactions.
C)Attachment is genetically determined and pushes development in a particular direction.
D)Early negative treatment of infants makes them shy and withdrawn.
Q2) What tends to happen to couples in the empty nest period of married life?
A)They look forward to their children moving back home after finishing university.
B)They are more likely to divorce than other couples.
C)They adjust effectively to the transition.
D)They experience a significant decrease in marital satisfaction.
Q3) Which aspect of brain development might help to explain Karen's "recklessness" as a teenager?
A)overactivation of the hypothalamus
B)overactivation of the temporal lobes
C)incomplete development of the prefrontal cortex
D)incomplete development of the limbic system
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Chapter 12: A: Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the major points that Walter Mischel makes about personality?
A)The idea of traits is fundamental to understanding personality.
B)Many personal traits are genetically determined.
C)People are much less consistent across situations than most theorists have assumed.
D)People behave more consistently across situations than we have thought.
Q2) What is the name Carl Jung used to identify the level of the unconscious that stores latent memory traces inherited from our ancestral past?
A)primeval unconscious
B)preconscious
C)personal unconscious
D)collective unconscious
Q3) Which of the following describes Walter Mischel's belief about the cause of behaviour?
A)Behaviour is situationally specific.
B)Behaviour is independent of conscious thought.
C)Behaviour is instigated by mood.
D)Behaviour is determined by innate factors.
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Chapter 12: B: Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment
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Q1) Danielle is five years old and is being very confrontational with her mother. She also has become very attached to her father and will do anything to get his attention. Which of the following psychosexual stage is Danielle in?
A)oral
B)latency
C)anal
D)phallic
Q2) Which psychologist's theory of personality uses both conditioning principles and inherited differences in physiological functioning to explain how heredity is linked to personality?
A)Walter Mischel
B)David Buss
C)B. F. Skinner
D)Hans Eysenck
Q3) Which of the following is a criticism of psychodynamic personality theories?
A)They are often too vague to permit scientific evaluation.
B)They suggest that people are motivated to reduce unpleasant emotions.
C)They focus too much on neurological explanations for behaviour.
D)They treat all people as if they are identical.
Page 26
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Chapter 13: A: Stress, Coping, and Health
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Q1) Pete is the lead prosecution attorney in a murder case. So far the case has not been going well for him, and the defence attorneys have presented effective rebuttals for most of the points he has raised. The judge adjourned the case for the weekend, and Pete will have to present his closing arguments first thing Monday morning. While he is trying to write his closing statement, he daydreams about a surprise eyewitness to the crime suddenly stepping forward and clinching the case for him. Which processes are illustrated by this example?
A)He is experiencing conflict, and he is using undoing to deal with the anxiety the conflict has generated.
B)He is experiencing frustration, and he is using fantasy to deal with the anxiety the frustration has generated.
C)He is experiencing frustration, and he is using intellectualization to deal with the anxiety the frustration has generated.
D)He is experiencing conflict, and he is using overcompensation to deal with the anxiety the conflict has generated.
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Chapter 13: B: Stress, Coping, and Health
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Q1) When would university health clinics most likely expect to experience an increase in students seeking treatment for colds and other minor illnesses?
A)during the weekend
B)during the middle of the week
C)during finals week
D)during the middle of the semester
Q2) Selena looked down at her feet and was startled to see a large poisonous snake. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome would Selena be experiencing at that moment?
A)alarm reaction
B)appraisal
C)resistance
D)exhaustion
Q3) On the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS), which life event has the highest change score associated with it?
A)birth of a child
B)divorce
C)retirement
D)change in responsibilities at work
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Page 28
Chapter 14: A: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Etienne sits all day alone on a park bench, babbling incoherently and giggling to himself. Which disorder is most consistent with Etienne's symptoms?
A)undifferentiated schizophrenia
B)paranoid schizophrenia
C)catatonic schizophrenia
D)disorganized schizophrenia
Q2) Which of the following disorders is commonly mistaken for schizophrenia?
A)obsessive compulsive disorder
B)dissociative identity disorder
C)major depressive disorder
D)panic disorder
Q3) Which type of families are associated with the poorest prognosis when patients return to their families after treatment for schizophrenia?
A)those with high interpersonal support
B)those with low experienced emotion
C)those with low communication deviance
D)those with high expressed emotion
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29
Chapter 14: B: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is a mood disorder?
A)bipolar disorder
B)fugue
C)conversion disorder
D)panic disorder
Q2) Which biological factor appears to contribute to anxiety disorders?
A)the neurotransmitters GABA and serotonin
B)exposure to stressful events
C)classical and operant conditioning
D)structural abnormalities of the brain
Q3) Which unifying theme in psychology is emphasized by the stress-vulnerability model of schizophrenic and mood disorders?
A)Psychology is theoretically diverse.
B)Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour.
C)Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage.
D)Psychology evolves in a socio-historical context.
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Chapter 15: A: Treatment of Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Josie has been in psychotherapy for five years. At the start of each session she describes any dreams that she has had since her last session. Her therapist analyzes the symbolism in these dreams, and helps Josie understand the unconscious conflicts that underlie the dreams. In this case, which approach does Josie's therapist use?
A)psychoanalysis
B)client-centred approach
C)biofeedback therapy
D)rational-emotive therapy
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the importance of a therapist's sex?
A)The sex of the therapist does not matter, unless the client is more comfortable with one sex than the other.
B)Female therapists tend to be more effective, perhaps because they are more nurturing toward their clients.
C)Clients should choose a therapist who is of the same sex as themselves.
D)Male therapists are more effective for very difficult-to-treat clients.
Q3) Compare and contrast the psychoanalytic and humanistic brands of insight therapy.
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Chapter 15: B: Treatment of Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the biomedical therapies that Dr. Callan would recommend?
A)a benzodiazepine
B)cingulotomy
C)prefrontal leucotomy
D)a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Q2) In order to increase the likelihood that First Nations will benefit from mental health services, which of the following recommendations has been made?
A)Therapists should employ treatments that reflect Aboriginal experience, such as with pan-Amerindian healing approaches.
B)Create therapies that are designed to be appropriate for a wide range of cultures.
C)Therapists must recognize that First Nations are not susceptible to the same disorders as other Canadians.
D)More urban treatment facilities must be developed.
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Chapter 16: A: Social Behaviour
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Q1) Based on results of a study using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), when people are presented with photos of people from other races, what tends to occur?
A)the amygdala is activated, especially in those who hold racist views
B)cortical activity seems to be suppressed in most people
C)the frontal lobes are activated in older individuals
D)the hippocampus and visual cortex are more active than usual
Q2) Clara listens carefully to the content of an infomercial for a new software package, but Joyce focuses on the fact that there are three different celebrity endorsers who are really excited about the software package. After the infomercial has ended, both Clara and Joyce think the software is worth purchasing. Which of the following is predicted by the elaboration likelihood model?
A)Joyce will have a more enduring attitude toward the software than Clara.
B)Clara will have a more enduring attitude toward the software than Joyce.
C)Clara will experience more cognitive dissonance than Joyce.
D)Joyce will experience less social facilitation than Clara.
Q3) How could you explain the matching hypothesis in terms of operant conditioning?
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Chapter 16: B: Social Behaviour
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely to be a factor that contributes to group polarization?
A)conformity
B)social loafing
C)the bystander effect
D)obedience
Q2) Emily spent several hours completing a long application to join an honour society at her university. If she is accepted for membership, the initiation fee will be $100. Emily wonders how she could manage to pay the $100 out of her already overextended budget. Emily is accepted into the honour society and pays the initiation fee. Which of the following will Emily likely to do afterward?
A)be relatively neutral about the honour society
B)quit the honour society almost immediately
C)feel very positive about being a member of the society
D)regret that she joined the honour society
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Chapter 17: Appendix B: Statistical Methods
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Q1) Which statistics are used to interpret data and draw conclusions?
A)simple
B)inferential
C)descriptive
D)sophisticated
Q2) Which statement best describes a skewed distribution?
A)Many scores in the distribution are low.
B)Many scores in the distribution are high.
C)The distribution is not symmetrical or balanced.
D)The distribution is symmetrical or balanced.
Q3) If you add all the scores in a group of scores together and divide by the number of scores, what is the result?
A)mode
B)variance
C)median
D)mean
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Chapter 18: Appendix C: Industrialorganizational Psychology
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Q1) How are formal performance appraisals related to employee retention?
A)Formal appraisals stretch out the probationary period, providing extra time for training and allowing employees to believe they belong.
B)Only those employees who pass the appraisal are retained.
C)Employees who believe that appraisal is fair and effective are more committed to the organization.
D)Grading systems are used that allow low-quality employees to recognize their weaknesses.
Q2) Which branch of psychology is concerned with the application of psychological principles in the workplace?
A)applied
B)business
C)industrial/organizational
D)consulting
Q3) Which type of discrimination is legal, according to Canadian law?
A)education
B)sex
C)religion
D)race
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Chapter 19: Appendix D: Evaluating the Quality of
Web-Based Resources
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an important criterion when evaluating materials on the Internet?
A)Who is the publisher or sponsor of the website?
B)What is the quality of the online presentation?
C)How popular is the site, or how many "hits" has it received?
D)What is the identity and qualification of the author?
Q2) What is a danger associated with using the Internet for homework or research?
A)Students who use Internet sources are likely to be tempted to plagiarize.
B)Because the Internet is convenient, students may spend too much time using it as a resource and not spend enough time on more difficult research methods.
C)Internet sources are written at too low of a level to be useful for university-level research.
D)Internet resources are unstable and impermanent, so students are unable to provide verification of their research efforts.
Q3) What is the key to finding quality resources online?
A)Actively exercise judgment and critical thinking.
B)Limit your search to peer-reviewed sites.
C)Start with a common resource like Wikipedia and follow links from that source.
D)Rely on resources that have been referred to you by those you trust.
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