Fundamentals of Physics Final Test Solutions - 2297 Verified Questions by Quizplus

Fundamentals of Physics

Final Test Solutions

Course Introduction

Fundamentals of Physics introduces students to the basic principles that govern the physical world, covering essential topics such as mechanics, thermodynamics, waves, electricity, magnetism, and optics. Emphasizing both conceptual understanding and problem-solving skills, this course fosters scientific thinking through theoretical discussion, practical demonstrations, and laboratory experiments. Students will develop a foundational knowledge of physical laws and their applications, preparing them for further study in physics and related scientific disciplines.

Recommended Textbook University Physics with Modern Physics 14th Edition by Hugh D. Young

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44 Chapters

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Chapter 1: Units,physical Quantities,and Vectors

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Sample Questions

Q1) An airplane undergoes the following displacements: First,it flies 66 km in a direction 30° east of north.Next,it flies 49 km due south.Finally,it flies 100 km 30° north of west.Using vector components,determine how far the airplane ends up from its starting point.

A) 79 km

B) 81 km

C) 82 km

D) 78 km

E) 76 km

Answer: A

Q2) What is the product of 11.24 and 1.95 written with the correct number of significant figures?

A) 22

B) 21.9

C) 21.92

D) 21.918

E) 21.9180

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Motion Along a Straight Line

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Q1) If an object is accelerating toward a point,then it must be getting closer and closer to that point.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) If the acceleration of an object is negative,the object must be slowing down.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) A ball rolls across a floor with an acceleration of 0.100 m/s2 in a direction opposite to its velocity.The ball has a velocity of 4.00 m/s after rolling a distance 6.00 m across the floor.What was the initial speed of the ball?

A) 4.15 m/s

B) 5.85 m/s

C) 4.60 m/s

D) 5.21 m/s

E) 3.85 m/s

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Motion in Two or Three Dimensions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A monkey is sitting at the top of a tree 20 m above ground level.A person standing on the ground wants to feed the monkey.He uses a bow and arrow to launch the food to the monkey.If the person knows that the monkey is going to drop from the tree at the same instant that the person launches the food,how should the person aim the arrow containing the food? Air resistance is small enough to be ignored.

A) He should aim it at the monkey.

B) He should aim it below the monkey.

C) He should aim it above the monkey.

Answer: A

Q2) For an object in uniform circular motion,its velocity and acceleration vectors are always perpendicular to each other at every point in the path.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) A projectile returns to its original height 4.08 s after being launched,during which time it travels 76.2 m horizontally.If air resistance can be neglected,what was the projectile's initial speed?

Answer: 27.4 m/s

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Chapter 4: Newtons Laws of Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) In order to lift a bucket of concrete,you must pull up harder on the bucket than it pulls down on you.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A 10,000-kg rocket blasts off from earth with a uniform upward acceleration of 2.00 m/s2 and feels no air resistance.The upward thrust force its engines must provide during this acceleration is closest to

A) 20,000 N.

B) 980,000 N.

C) 118,000 N.

D) 78,000 N.

Q3) An 1100-kg car traveling at 27.0 m/s starts to slow down and comes to a complete stop in 578 m.What is the magnitude of the average braking force acting on the car?

A) 690 N

B) 550 N

C) 410 N

D) 340 N

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Chapter 5: Applying Newtons Laws

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Sample Questions

Q1) A car enters a 300-m radius horizontal curve on a rainy day when the coefficient of static friction between its tires and the road is 0.600.What is the maximum speed at which the car can travel around this curve without sliding?

A) 29.6 m/s

B) 33.1 m/s

C) 24.8 m/s

D) 42.0 m/s

E) 37.9 m/s

Q2) Future space stations will create an artificial gravity by rotating.Consider a cylindrical space station 390 m diameter rotating about its central axis.Astronauts walk on the inside surface of the space station.What rotation period will provide "normal" gravity?

A) 28 s

B) 40 s

C) 6.3 s

D) 4.4 s

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Chapter 6: Work and Kinetic Energy

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Q1) Consider a plot of the displacement (x)as a function of the applied force (F)for an ideal elastic spring.The slope of the curve would be

A) the spring constant.

B) the reciprocal of the spring constant.

C) the acceleration due to gravity.

D) the reciprocal of the acceleration of gravity.

E) the mass of the object attached to the spring.

Q2) A 5.00-kg box slides 4.00 m across the floor before coming to rest.What is the coefficient of kinetic friction between the floor and the box if the box had an initial speed of 3.00 m/s?

A) 1.13

B) 0.587

C) 0.115

D) 0.229

E) 0.267

Q3) A 7.0-kg rock is subject to a variable force given by the equation F(x)= 6.0 N - (2.0 N/m)x + (6.0 N/m2)x2

If the rock initially is at rest at the origin,find its speed when it has moved 9.0 m.

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Chapter 7: Potential Energy and Energy Conservation

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 5.00-kg object moves clockwise around a 50.0 cm radius circular path.At one location,the speed of the object is 4.00 m/s.When the object next returns to this same location,the speed is 3.00 m/s.

(a)How much work was done by nonconservative (dissipative)forces as the object moved once around the circle?

(b)If the magnitude of the above nonconservative (dissipative)forces acting on the object is constant,what is the value of this magnitude?

Q2) An athlete stretches a spring an extra 40.0 cm beyond its initial length.How much energy has he transferred to the spring,if the spring constant is 52.9 N/cm?

A) 423 J

B) 4230 kJ

C) 423 kJ

D) 4230 J

Q3) A potential energy function is given by U(x)= (3.00 J)x + (1.00 J/m2)x3.What is the force function F(x)that is associated with this potential energy function?

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Chapter 8: Momentum,impulse,and Collisions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 2.50-kg stone is dropped from rest at a height of 3.75 m.What impulse does gravity impart to this stone from the instant it is dropped until it hits the ground,assuming negligible air resistance?

Q2) A 2.00-m rod of negligible mass connects two very small objects at its ends.The mass of one object is 1.00 kg and the mass of the other is unknown.The center of mass of this system is on the rod a distance 1.60 m from the 1.00-kg mass object.What is the mass of the other object?

A) 4.11 kg

B) 3.22 kg

C) 4.00 kg

D) 0.250 kg

E) 0.800 kg

Q3) There must be equal amounts of mass on both side of the center of mass of an object.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Rotation of Rigid Bodies

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Sample Questions

Q1) A slender uniform rod 100.00 cm long is used as a meter stick.Two parallel axes that are perpendicular to the rod are considered.The first axis passes through the 50-cm mark and the second axis passes through the 30-cm mark.What is the ratio of the moment of inertia through the second axis to the moment of inertia through the first axis?

A) I2/I1 = 1.5

B) I2/I1 = 1.7

C) I2/I1 = 1.9

D) I2/I1 = 2.1

E) I2/I1 = 2.3

Q2) An extremely light rod 1.00 m long has a 2.00-kg mass attached to one end and a 3.00-kg mass attached to the other.The system rotates at a constant angular speed about a fixed axis perpendicular to the rod that passes through the rod 30.0 cm from the end with the 3.00-kg mass attached.The kinetic energy of the system is measured to be 100.0 J.

(a)What is the moment of inertia of this system about the fixed axis?

(b)What is the angular speed (in revolutions per second)of this system?

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Chapter 10: Dynamics of Rotational Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) A uniform solid sphere of mass 1.5 kg and diameter 30.0 cm starts from rest and rolls without slipping down a 35° incline that is 7.0 m long.

(a)Calculate the linear speed of the center of the sphere when it reaches the bottom of the incline.

(b)Determine the angular speed of the sphere about its center at the bottom of the incline.

(c)Through what angle (in radians)does this sphere turn as it rolls down the incline?

(d)Does the linear speed in (a)depend on the radius or mass of the sphere? Does the angular speed in (b)depend on the radius or mass of the sphere?

Q2) The angular momentum of a system remains constant

A) when the total kinetic energy is constant.

B) when no net external force acts on the system.

C) when the linear momentum and the energy are constant.

D) when no torque acts on the system.

E) all the time since it is a conserved quantity.

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Chapter 11: Equilibrium and Elasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 120-kg refrigerator,2.00 m tall and 85.0 cm wide,has its center of mass at its geometrical center.You are attempting to slide it along the floor by pushing horizontally on the side of the refrigerator.The coefficient of static friction between the floor and the refrigerator is 0.300.Depending on where you push,the refrigerator may start to tip over before it starts to slide along the floor.What is the highest distance above the floor that you can push the refrigerator so that it won't tip before it begins to slide?

A) 0.710 m

B) 1.00 m

C) 1.21 m

D) 1.42 m

E) 1.63 m

Q2) If the torque on an object adds up to zero

A) the forces on it also add up to zero.

B) the object is at rest.

C) the object cannot be turning.

D) the object could be accelerating linearly but it could not be turning.

E) the object could be both turning and accelerating linearly.

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Fluid Mechanics

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Sample Questions

Q1) When you blow some air above the upper face of a paper strip,the paper rises.This occurs because

A) the air above the upper face of the paper moves faster, which makes the pressure higher than at the lower face.

B) the air above the upper face of the paper moves faster, which makes the pressure lower than at the lower face.

C) the air above the upper face of the paper moves faster but the pressure remains constant.

D) the air above the upper face of the paper moves slower, which makes the pressure higher than at the lower face.

E) the air above the upper face of the paper moves slower, which makes the pressure lower than at the lower face.

Q2) A rock is under water in a shallow lake.As the rock sinks deeper and deeper into water,the buoyant force on it

A) increases.

B) decreases.

C) remains constant.

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Chapter 13: Gravitation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The reason an astronaut in an earth satellite feels weightless is that

A) the astronaut is beyond the range of the earth's gravity.

B) the astronaut is falling.

C) the astronaut is at a point in space where the effects of the moon's gravity and the earth's gravity cancel.

D) this is a psychological effect associated with rapid motion.

E) the astronaut's acceleration is zero.

Q2) A planet has two small satellites in circular orbits around the planet.The first satellite has a period 12.0 hours and an orbital radius 6.00 × 107 m.The second planet has a period 16.0 hours.What is the orbital radius of the second satellite?

A) 4.50 × 107

B) 3.90 × 107

C) 9.24 × 107

D) 8.00 × 107

E) 7.27 × 107

Q3) A small-sized 155-kg mass is located 1.50 m from a small-sized 275-kg mass,with both masses fixed in place.Where should you place a third small-sized mass so that the net gravitational force on it due to the original two masses is zero?

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Chapter 14: Periodic Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) A sewing machine needle moves up and down in simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 1.27 cm and a frequency of 2.55 Hz.

(a)What is the maximum speed of the needle?

(b)What is the maximum acceleration of the needle?

Q2) A uniform meter stick is freely pivoted about the 0.20-m mark.If it is allowed to swing in a vertical plane with a small amplitude and friction,what is the frequency of its oscillations?

A) 0.55 Hz

B) 0.66 Hz

C) 0.92 Hz

D) 1.1 Hz

E) 1.3 Hz

Q3) A 25 kg object is undergoing lightly damped harmonic oscillations.If the maximum displacement of the object from its equilibrium point drops to 1/3 its original value in 1.8 s,what is the value of the damping constant b?

A) 31 kg/s

B) 34 kg/s

C) 37 kg/s

D) 40 kg/s

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Mechanical Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) Calculate the light intensity 1.51 m from a light bulb that emits 100 W of visible light,assuming that the light radiates uniformly in all directions.

A) 3.49 W/m2

B) 4.01 W/m2

C) 43.9 W/m2

D) 50.5 W/m2

Q2) A guitar string is fixed at both ends.If you tighten it to increase its tension

A) the frequencies of its vibrational modes will increase but its wavelengths will not be affected.

B) the wavelength increases but the frequency is not affected.

C) both the frequency and the wavelength increase.

Q3) A 6.00-m long rope is under a tension of 600 N.Waves travel along this rope at 40.0 m/s.What is the mass of the rope?

A) 1.00 kg

B) 1.25 kg

C) 2.25 kg

D) 2.50 kg

E) 1.12 kg

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Chapter 16: Sound and Hearing

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Q1) A stationary siren emits sound of frequency 1000 Hz and wavelength 0.343 m.An observer who is moving toward the siren will measure a frequency f and wavelength for this sound such that

A) f > 1000 Hz and > 0.343 m.

B) f > 1000 Hz and = 0.343 m.

C) f > 1000 Hz and < 0.343 m.

D) f = 1000 Hz and < 0.343 m.

Q2) A carousel that is 5.00 m in radius has a pair of 600-Hz sirens mounted on posts at opposite ends of a diameter.The carousel rotates with an angular velocity of 0.800 rad/s.A stationary listener is located at a distance from the carousel.The speed of sound is 350 m/s.The longest wavelength reaching the listener from the sirens is closest to

A) 57.0 cm.

B) 57.7 cm.

C) 58.3 cm.

D) 59.0 cm.

E) 59.6 cm.

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Chapter 17: Temperature and Heat

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Q1) A concrete wall of a cold storage room measures 3.0 m high,5.0 m wide,and 20 cm thick.The room temperature is maintained at -10°C and the outside temperature is 20°C The inside wall is to be covered by a layer of wood in order to reduce the rate of heat loss through the wall BY 90 percent.The thermal conductivities of concrete and wood are 0.80 W/m K and 0.040 W/m K,respectively.Under steady state conditions,the thickness of the layer of wood required is closest to

A) 60 mm.

B) 70 mm.

C) 80 mm.

D) 90 mm.

E) 100 mm.

Q2) It is a well-known fact that water has a higher specific heat than iron.Now,consider equal masses of water and iron that are initially in thermal equilibrium.The same amount of heat,30 calories,is added to each one.Which statement is true?

A) They remain in thermal equilibrium.

B) They are no longer in thermal equilibrium; the iron is warmer.

C) They are no longer in thermal equilibrium; the water is warmer.

D) It is impossible to say without knowing the exact mass involved.

E) It is impossible to say without knowing the exact specific heats.

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Thermal Properties of Matter

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Q1) The average molecular kinetic energy of a gas can be determined by knowing

A) only the number of molecules in the gas.

B) only the volume of the gas.

C) only the pressure of the gas.

D) only the temperature of the gas.

E) All of the above quantities must be known to determine the average molecular kinetic energy.

Q2) A bag of potato chips contains 2.00 L of air when it is sealed at sea level at a pressure of 1.00 atm and a temperature of 20.0°C.What will be the volume of the air in the bag if you take it with you,still sealed,to the mountains where the temperature is 7.00°C and atmospheric pressure is 70.0 kPa? Assume that the bag behaves like a balloon and that the air in the bag is in thermal equilibrium with the outside air.(1 atm = 1.01 × 105 Pa)

A) 4.13 L

B) 1.01 L

C) 1.38 L

D) 2.76 L

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Page 20

Chapter 19: The First Law of Thermodynamics

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Q1) A cylinder contains 23 moles of an ideal gas at a temperature of 300 K.The gas is compressed at constant pressure until the final volume equals 0.43 times the initial volume.The molar heat capacity at constant volume of the gas is 24.0 J/mol K and the ideal gas constant is R = 8.314 J/mol K.The heat absorbed by the gas is closest to

A) -130 kJ.

B) -94 kJ.

C) 130 kJ.

D) 94 kJ.

E) -33 kJ.

Q2) When a fixed amount of ideal gas goes through an adiabatic expansion, A) its internal (thermal) energy does not change.

B) the gas does no work.

C) no heat enters or leaves the gas.

D) its temperature cannot change.

E) its pressure must increase.

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Chapter 20: The Second Law of Thermodynamics

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Q1) An ideal reversible refrigerator keeps its inside compartment at 9.0°C.What is the high temperature,Th,needed to give this refrigerator a coefficient of performance of 3.7?

A) 85°C

B) 1052°C

C) 11°C

D) 42°C

Q2) According to the second law of thermodynamics,the entropy of any system always increases.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A Carnot refrigerator has a coefficient of performance of 2.5.The refrigerator consumes 50 W of power.How much heat is removed from the interior of the refrigerator in 1 hour?

A) 7.5 kJ

B) 450 kJ

C) 180 kJ

D) 720 kJ

E) 72 kJ

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Electric Charge and Electric Field

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Q1) When two point charges are 2.0 cm apart,each one experiences a 1.0-N electric force due to the other charge.If they are moved to a new separation of 8.0 cm,the electric force on each of them is closest to

A) 1.0 N.

B) 4.0 N.

C) 16 N.

D) 0.25 N.

E) 0.063 N.

Q2) Two identical small conducting spheres are separated by 0.60 m.The spheres carry different amounts of charge and each sphere experiences an attractive electric force of 10.8N.The total charge on the two spheres is -24 C.The two spheres are now connected by a slender conducting wire,which is then removed.The electric force on each sphere is closest to A) zero.

B) 3.6 N, attractive.

C) 5.4 N, attractive.

D) 3.6 N, repulsive.

E) 5.4 N, repulsive.

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Chapter 22: Gausss Law

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Q1) Which of the following statements about Gauss's law are correct? (There may be more than one correct choice.)

A) Gauss's law is valid only for symmetric charge distributions, such as spheres and cylinders.

B) If there is no charge inside of a Gaussian surface, the electric field must be zero at points of that surface.

C) Only charge enclosed within a Gaussian surface can produce an electric field at points on that surface.

D) If a Gaussian surface is completely inside an electrostatic conductor, the electric field must always be zero at all points on that surface.

E) The electric flux passing through a Gaussian surface depends only on the amount of charge inside that surface, not on its size or shape.

Q2) If the electric flux through a closed surface is zero,the electric field at points on that surface must be zero.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 23: Electric Potential

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Q1) Two equal positive charges are held in place at a fixed distance.If you put a third positive charge midway between these two charges,its electrical potential energy of the system (relative to infinity)is zero because the electrical forces on the third charge due to the two fixed charges just balance each other.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A negative charge,if free,will tend to move

A) from high potential to low potential.

B) from low potential to high potential.

C) toward infinity.

D) away from infinity.

E) in the direction of the electric field.

Q3) A half-ring (semicircle)of uniformly distributed charge Q has radius R.What is the electric potential at its center?

Q4) If the electrical potential in a region is constant,the electric field must be zero everywhere in that region.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 24: Capacitance and Dielectrics

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Q1) Each plate of an air-filled parallel-plate air capacitor has an area of 0.0040 m2,and the separation of the plates is 0.080 mm.An electric field of 5.3 × 106 V/m is present between the plates.What is the energy density between the plates? ( 0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2/N m2)

A) 124 J/m3

B) 84 J/m3

C) 170 J/m3

D) 210 J/m3

E) 250 J/m3

Q2) Two square air-filled parallel plates that are initially uncharged are separated by 1.2 mm,and each of them has an area of 190 mm2.How much charge must be transferred from one plate to the other if 1.1 nJ of energy are to be stored in the plates? ( 0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2/N m2)

A) 56 pC

B) 39 pC

C) 78 pC

D) 3.5 µC

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Chapter 25: Current,resistance,and Electromotive Force

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Q1) A tube of mercury with resistivity 9.84 × 10-7 m has an electric field inside the column of mercury of magnitude 23 N/C that is directed along the length of the tube.How much current is flowing through this tube if its diameter is 1.0 mm?

A) 18 A

B) 180 A

C) 29 A

D) 280 A

Q2) A Nichrome wire is used as a heating element in a toaster.From the moment the toaster is first turned on to the moment the wire reaches it maximum temperature,the current in the wire drops by 20.0% from its initial value.What is the temperature change in the wire? The temperature coefficient of resistivity for Nichrome is 0.000400 (°C)-1.

A) 200°C

B) 400°C

C) 500°C

D) 625°C

E) 300°C

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Chapter 26: Direct-Current Circuits

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Q1) Two unknown resistors are connected together.When they are connected in series their equivalent resistance is 15 .When they are connected in parallel,their equivalent resistance is 3.3 .What are the resistances of these resistors?

Q2) A 4.0-mF capacitor is discharged through a 4.0-k resistor.How long will it take for the capacitor to lose half its initial stored energy?

A) 9.2 s

B) 2.7 s

C) 10.2 s

D) 5.5 s

E) 1.6 s

Q3) A galvanometer has an internal resistance of 100 and deflects full-scale at a current of 2.00 mA.What size resistor should be added to it to convert it to a millivoltmeter capable of reading up to 400 mV,and how should this resistor be connected to the galvanometer?

A) 50.0 in series with the galvanometer

B) 50.0 in parallel with the galvanometer

C) 75.0 in parallel with the galvanometer

D) 100 in series with the galvanometer

E) 100 in parallel with the galvanometer

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Page 28

Chapter 27: Magnetic Field and Magnetic Forces

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Q1) A 15-turn rectangular loop of wire of width 10 cm and length 20 cm has a current of 2.5 A flowing through it.Two sides of the loop are oriented parallel to a uniform magnetic field of strength 0.037 T,and the other two sides are perpendicular to the magnetic field.

(a)What is the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the loop?

(b)What torque does the magnetic field exert on the loop?

Q2) An electron,moving toward the west,enters a uniform magnetic field.Because of this field the electron curves upward.The direction of the magnetic field is A) towards the north.

B) towards the south.

C) towards the west.

D) upward.

E) downward.

Q3) A straight 15.0-g wire that is 2.00 m long carries a current of 8.00 A.This wire is aligned horizontally along the west-east direction with the current going from west to east.You want to support the wire against gravity using the weakest possible uniform external magnetic field.

(a)Which way should the magnetic field point?

(b)What is the magnitude of the weakest possible magnetic field you could use?

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Chapter 28: Sources of Magnetic Field

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Q1) A horizontal wire carries a current straight toward you.From your point of view,the magnetic field at a point directly below the wire points

A) directly away from you.

B) to the left.

C) to the right.

D) directly toward you.

E) vertically upward.

Q2) The magnetic field at a distance of 2 cm from a current carrying wire is 4 T.What is the magnetic field at a distance of 4 cm from the wire?

A) 1/2 µT

B) 1 µT

C) 2 µT

D) 4 µT

E) 8 µT

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Chapter 29: Electromagnetic Induction

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Q1) A coil lies flat on a tabletop in a region where the magnetic field vector points straight up.The magnetic field vanishes suddenly.When viewed from above,what is the direction of the induced current in this coil as the field fades?

A) counter-clockwise then clockwise

B) clockwise then counter-clockwise

C) clockwise

D) counter-clockwise

E) There is no current induced in the coil.

Q2) A conducting bar slides without friction on two parallel horizontal rails that are 50 cm apart and connected by a wire at one end.The resistance of the bar and the rails is constant and equal to 0.10 .A uniform magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the rails.A 0.080-N force parallel to the rails is required to keep the bar moving at a constant speed of 0.50 m/s.What is the magnitude of the magnetic field?

A) 0.10 T

B) 0.25 T

C) 0.36 T

D) 0.54 T

E) 0.93 T

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Chapter 30: Inductance

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Q1) A charged capacitor is connected to an ideal inductor to form an LC circuit with a frequency of oscillation f = 1.6 Hz.At time t = 0 the capacitor is fully charged.At a given instant later the charge on the capacitor is measured to be 3.0 C and the current in the circuit is equal to 75 A.What is the maximum charge of the capacitor?

A) 6.0 µC

B) 10 µC

C) 8.0 µC

D) 2.0 µC

E) 4.0 µC

Q2) An LC circuit consists of a 3.4-µF capacitor and a coil with a self-inductance 0.080 H and no appreciable resistance.At t = 0 the capacitor has a charge of 5.4 µC and the current in the inductor is zero.

(a)How long after t = 0 will the current in the circuit be maximum? (b)What will be this maximum current?

Q3) The mutual inductance between two coils is 10.0 mH.The current in the first coil changes uniformly from 2.70 A to 5.00 A in 0.160 s.If the second coil has a resistance of 0.600 ,what is the magnitude of the induced current in the second coil?

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Chapter 31: Alternating Current

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Q1) For an RLC ac circuit,the rms current is 10 A.If the impedance is 12 k when the voltage leads the current by 39°,find the average power of the circuit.

A) 930 kW

B) 47 kW

C) 93 kW

D) 190 kW

Q2) An LRC ac series circuit has R = 15 ,L = 25 mH,and C = 30 F.The circuit is connected to a 120-V (rms)ac source with frequency 200 Hz.

(a)What is the average power dissipated by the circuit?

(b)What is the power factor for the circuit?

Q3) When an LRC series circuit is at resonance,which one of the following statements about that circuit is accurate? (There may be more than one correct choice.)

A) The impedance has its maximum value.

B) The reactance of the inductor is zero.

C) The reactance of the capacitor is zero.

D) The reactance due to the inductor and capacitor has its maximum value.

E) The current amplitude is a maximum.

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Chapter 32: Electromagnetic Waves

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Q1) The energy per unit volume in an electromagnetic wave is A) equally divided between the electric and magnetic fields.

B) mostly in the electric field.

C) mostly in the magnetic field.

D) all in the electric field.

E) all in the magnetic field.

Q2) If an electromagnetic wave has components Ey = E0 sin(kx - t)and Bz = B0 sin(kx - t),in what direction is it traveling?

A) -x

B) +x

C) +y

D) -y

E) +z

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Chapter 33: The Nature and Propagation of Light

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Q1) Which one of the following is an accurate statement about light?

A) When light strikes a surface at Brewster's angle, the reflected and transmitted light are both 100% polarized.

B) When light strikes a surface at Brewster's angle, it is completely reflected at the surface.

C) When light strikes a surface at Brewster's angle, only the reflected light is 100% polarized.

D) When light strikes a surface at the critical angle, only the reflected light is 100% polarized.

E) When light strikes a surface at the critical angle, all the light passes through the surface.

Q2) When light goes from one material into another material having a HIGHER index of refraction,

A) its speed, wavelength, and frequency all decrease.

B) its speed and wavelength decrease, but its frequency stays the same.

C) its speed decreases but its wavelength and frequency both increase.

D) its speed decreases but its frequency and wavelength stay the same.

E) its speed increases, its wavelength decreases, and its frequency stays the same.

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Chapter 34: Geometric Optics

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Q1) A convex lens has focal length f.If an object is located extremely far from the lens (at infinity),the image formed is located what distance from the lens?

A) infinity

B) 2f

C) between f and 2f

D) f

E) between the lens and f

Q2) An object 4.0 cm in height is placed 8.0 cm in front of a concave spherical mirror with a focal length of 10.0 cm.What is the position of its image in relation to the mirror,and what are the characteristics of the image?

A) 40.0 cm on the other side of mirror, real, 6.0 times bigger

B) 10.0 cm on the other side of mirror, virtual, 10.0 times bigger

C) 18.0 cm on the same side of mirror, virtual, 2.25 times bigger

D) 10.0 cm on the same side of mirror, real, 6.0 times bigger

E) 40.0 cm on the other side of mirror, virtual, 5.0 times bigger

Q3) A magnifying lens has a focal length of 10 cm.A person has a near point of 25 cm and a far point at infinity.What is the angular magnification of the lens for that person when their eyes are focused at infinity?

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Chapter 35: Interference

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Q1) In a double-slit experiment,if the slit separation is increased,which of the following happens to the interference pattern shown on the screen?

A) The minima get closer together.

B) The maxima stay at the same position.

C) The minima and maxima stay at the same position.

D) The minima stay at the same position.

E) The maxima get further apart.

Q2) Light from a monochromatic source shines through a double slit onto a screen 5.00 m away.The slits are 0.180 mm apart.The dark bands on the screen are measured to be 1.70 cm apart.What is the wavelength of the incident light?

A) 457 nm

B) 306 nm

C) 392 nm

D) 612 nm

E) 784 nm

Q3) A soap bubble,when illuminated with light of frequency 5.11 × 1014 Hz,appears to be especially reflective.If it is surrounded by air and if its index of refraction is 1.35,what is the thinnest thickness the soap film can be? (c = 3.00 × 108 m/s)

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Page 37

Chapter 36: Diffraction

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Q1) A thin beam of light of wavelength 625 nm goes through a thin slit and falls on a screen 3.00 m past the slit.You observe that the first completely dark fringes occur on the screen at distances of ±8.24 mm from the central bright fringe,and that the central bright fringe has an intensity of 2.00 W/m2 at its center.

(a)How wide is the slit?

(b)What is the intensity of light at a point on the screen that is one-quarter of the way from the central bright fringe to the first dark fringe?

Q2) If the headlights on a car are separated by 1.3 m,how far down the road can they be resolved if the angular resolution of the eye is 5.0 × 10-4 rad and the person has excellent vision?

A) 1.3 km

B) 5.0 km

C) 4.8 km

D) 0.65 km

E) 2.6 km

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Chapter 37: Relativity

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Q1) The special theory of relativity predicts that there is an upper limit to the speed of a particle.It therefore follows that there is also an upper limit on the following properties of a particle.

A) the kinetic energy

B) the total energy

C) the linear momentum

D) more than one of these

E) none of these

Q2) A particle is moving at 0.75c relative to a lab on Earth.By what percentage is the Newtonian expression for its momentum in error? (The percentage error is the difference between the erroneous and correct values,divided by the correct one).

A) 34%

B) 28%

C) 38%

D) 43%

Q3) Two spaceships are approaching one another,each at a speed of 0.28c relative to a stationary observer on Earth.What speed does an observer on one spaceship record for the other approaching spaceship?

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Chapter 38: Photons: Light Waves Behaving As Particles

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Q1) A nonrelativistic electron is confined to a length of 500 pm on the x-axis.What is the kinetic energy of the electron if its speed is equal to the minimum uncertainty possible in its speed? (h = 1.055 × 10-34 J s,mel = 9.11 × 10-31 kg,1 eV = 1.60 × 10-19 J)

A) 0.00038 eV

B) 0.0038 eV

C) 0.038 eV

D) 0.38 eV

E) 3.8 eV

Q2) Monochromatic light strikes a metal surface and electrons are ejected from the metal.If the intensity of the light is increased,what will happen to the ejection rate and maximum energy of the electrons?

A) greater ejection rate; same maximum energy

B) same ejection rate; greater maximum energy

C) greater ejection rate; greater maximum energy

D) same ejection rate; same maximum energy

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Chapter 39: Particles Behaving As Waves

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Q1) Which of the following are characteristics of laser light? (There may be more than one correct choice.)

A) It is coherent.

B) It is produced by an inverted population of atoms.

C) It contains a full spectrum of wavelengths.

Q2) A nonrelativistic electron and a nonrelativistic proton have the same de Broglie wavelength.Which of the following statements about these particles are accurate? (There may be more than one correct choice.)

A) Both particles have the same speed.

B) Both particles have the same kinetic energy.

C) Both particles have the same momentum.

D) The electron has more kinetic energy than the proton.

E) The electron has more momentum than the proton.

Q3) A perfectly black body at 100°C emits light of intensity I that has the strongest intensity near wavelength .The temperature of this body is now increased to 200°C.

(a)In terms of I,what is the intensity at which this hotter body radiates?

(b)In terms of ,near what wavelength does light radiated from this hotter body have the strongest intensity?

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Chapter 40: Quantum Mechanics

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Q1) The square of the wave function of a particle,| (x)|2,gives the probability of finding the particle at the point x.

A)True

B)False

Q2) An electron with kinetic energy 2.80 eV encounters a potential barrier of height 4.70 eV.If the barrier width is 0.40 nm,what is the probability that the electron will tunnel through the barrier? (1 eV = 1.60 × 10-19 J,mel = 9.11 × 10-31 kg,h = 6.626 × 10-34 J s)

A) 1.4 × 10-2

B) 2.8 × 10-2

C) 5.5 × 10-2

D) 1.1 × 10-2

E) 1.4 × 10-1

Q3) The smallest kinetic energy that an electron in a box (an infinite well)can have is zero.

A)True B)False

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Chapter 41: Atomic Structure

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Q1) A neutral atom has an electron configuration of 1s22s22p63s23p2.How many protons does it have in its nucleus?

A) 5

B) 11

C) 14

D) 20

E) 26

Q2) The magnitude of the orbital angular momentum L of an electron in a certain atom is equal to 3.464 .Which of the following angles could NOT be the angle between the orbital angular momentum vector of the electron and an arbitrary z-direction?

A) 107°

B) 90.0°

C) 73.2°

D) 54.7°

E) 0.00°

Q3) Consider the n = 9 shell.

(a)What is the largest value of the orbital quantum number,l,in this shell?

(b)How many electrons can be placed in this shell?

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Chapter 42: Molecules and Condensed Matter

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Q1) If one metal has double the number of conduction electrons per unit volume of a second metal,then its Fermi level (energy)is how many times that of the second metal?

A) 1.41

B) 2.83

C) 2.00

D) 3.22

E) 1.59

Q2) Covalent bonding is due to

A) the sharing of electrons between atoms.

B) the transfer of electrons between atoms.

C) atoms bonding to hydrogen molecules.

D) atoms bonding to oxygen molecules.

Q3) A rotating diatomic molecule has rotational quantum number l.The energy DIFFERENCE between adjacent energy levels

A) increases as l increases.

B) decreases as l increases.

C) is the same for all changes in l.

D) is independent of l.

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Chapter 43: Nuclear Physics

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Q1) A radioactive isotope decays by - emission with a half-life of 1.0 min.During the first 1.0 min,a particular sample emits 1000 - particles.During the next 1.0 min,the number of - particles this sample will emit will be closest to

A) 250.

B) 500.

C) 1000.

D) 1500.

E) 2000.

Q2) The maximum permissible workday dose for occupational exposure to radiation is 26 mrem.A 55-kg laboratory technician absorbs 3.3 mJ of 0.40-MeV gamma rays in a workday.The relative biological efficiency (RBE)for gamma rays is 1.00.What is the ratio of the equivalent dosage received by the technician to the maximum permissible equivalent dosage?

A) 0.23

B) 0.25

C) 0.28

D) 0.30

E) 0.32

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Page 45

Chapter 44: Particle Physics and Cosmology

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Q1) The cosmic background radiation corresponds to a temperature of about

A) 1.4 K.

B) 2.7 K.

C) 3.8 K.

D) 4.9 K.

E) 5.5 K.

Q2) Consider the negative pion, -.

(a)What combination of up and down quarks makes up this particle?

(b)Is the - a baryon or a meson?

(c)Is the - a lepton or a hadron?

Q3) A neutral 0 (having mass 0.642 u)that is at rest decays into two gamma ray photons.What is the energy in MeV of each photon? (1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2)

A) 299 MeV

B) 597 MeV

C) 1190 MeV

D) 199 MeV

E) 149 MeV

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