Fundamentals of Physics
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Physics introduces students to the core principles governing the physical universe, covering topics such as mechanics, thermodynamics, waves, electricity and magnetism, optics, and modern physics. The course emphasizes conceptual understanding, mathematical formulation, and problem-solving skills, providing a solid foundation for further studies in science and engineering. Through a blend of lectures, laboratory work, and practical examples, students explore how fundamental physical laws describe and predict the behavior of natural phenomena, from motion and energy to the structure of matter.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physics 12th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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Chapter 1: About Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Facts in the field of science
A)are absolute.
B)are changeable.
C)mean very little.
D)are more important than theories.
Answer: B
Q2) Eratosthenes first learned about the position of the Sun in mid-summer by
A)consulting library information.
B)setting up a stick at Syene.
C)setting up a stick at Alexandria.
D)setting up sticks at both Syene and Alexandria.
E)none of the above
Answer: A
Q3) Technology is a tool that can
A)be socially beneficial.
B)be socially harmful when abused.
C)lead to a better world.
D)all of the above
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Newtons First Law of Motion: Inertia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The net force acting on an insect falling downward at constant velocity is A)zero.
B)the weight of the insect.
C)upward air resistance.
D)none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Burl and Paul have a total weight of 1300 N. The tensions in the supporting ropes that support their scaffold add to 1700 N. The weight of the scaffold itself must be
A)300 N.
B)400 N.
C)500 N.
D)600 N.
Answer: B
Q3) When a pair of 10-N forces act on a box of candy, the net force on the box is A)zero.
B)about 14 N.
C)20 N.
D)Any of the above depending on the directions of forces.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Linear Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you throw a ball straight downward (in the absence of air resistance), after leaving your hand its acceleration is
A)less than 10 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
B)10 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
C)greater than 10 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
Answer: B
Q2) A bird flying at 8 km/h in a 6-km/h crosswind has a resultant speed of A)6 km/h.
B)8 km/h.
C)10 km/h.
D)14 km/h.
Answer: C
Q3) Ten seconds after starting from rest, a car is moving at 40 m/s. What is the car's acceleration?
A)0.25 m/s<sup>2</sup>
B)2.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>
C)4.0 m/s<sup>2</sup>
D)10 m/s<sup>2</sup>
E)40 m/s<sup>2</sup>
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Newtons Second Law of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ball is thrown vertically into the air. Because of air resistance, its time coming down compared to its time going up is A)less.
B)the same.
C)more.
Q2) Scotty Skydiver of mass 100 kg experiences air resistance of 500 N, and an acceleration of about
A)0.2 g.
B)0.3 g.
C)0.4 g.
D)0.5 g.
E)greater than 0.5 g.
Q3) A coconut and a bird's feather fall from a tree through the air to the ground below. The force of air resistance is
A)greater on the coconut.
B)greater on the feather.
C)the same on each.
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Chapter 5: Newtons Third Law of Motion: Action and Reaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A shoe on an inclined surface barely remains at rest when friction equals the A)weight mg of the shoe.
B)component of mg perpendicular to the surface.
C)component of mg parallel to the surface.
D)none of the above
Q2) When you rub your hands together, you
A)can push harder on one hand than the other.
B)cannot push harder on one hand than the other.
C)need more information
Q3) While you stand on the floor you are pulled downward by gravity, and supported upward by the floor. Gravity pulling down and the support force pushing up
A)make an action-reaction pair of forces.
B)do not make an action-reaction pair of forces.
C)need more information
Q4) Nellie tosses a ball upward at an angle. Neglecting air resistance, the horizontal component of the initial velocity
A)decreases with time.
B)remains constant.
C)increases with time.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Momentum
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Sample Questions
Q1) A freight train rolls along a track with considerable momentum. If it rolls at the same speed but has twice as much mass, its momentum is A)zero.
B)twice.
C)four times as much.
D)unchanged.
Q2) Consider massive gliders that slide friction-free along a horizontal air track. Glider A has a mass of 1 kg, a speed of 1 m/s, and collides with Glider B that has a mass of 5 kg and is at rest. If they stick upon collision, their speed after collision will be
A)1/4 m/s.
B)1/5 m/s.
C)1/6 m/s.
D)1 m/s.
E)none of the above
Q3) It is correct to say that impulse is equal to A)momentum.
B)a corresponding change in momentum.
C)force multiplied by the distance it acts.
D)velocity multiplied by time.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A toy elevator is raised from the ground floor to the second floor in 20 seconds. The power needed using 1000 J of work, is
A)20 W.
B)50 W.
C)100 W.
D)1000 W.
E)20,000 W.
Q2) A ball rolling down an incline has its maximum kinetic energy at A)the top.
B)halfway down.
C)three-quarters of the way down.
D)the bottom.
Q3) A bicycle that travels twice as fast as another when braking to a stop will skid
A)twice as far.
B)four times as far.
C)eight times as far
D)sixteen times as far.
E)depends on the bike's mass
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9
Chapter 8: Rotational Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The circumference of a bicycle wheel is 2 meters. If it rotates at 1 revolution per second then its linear speed is
A)1 m/s.
B)2 m/s.
C)3 m/s.
D)3)14 m/s.
E)6.28 m/s.
Q2) A flywheel's diameter is twice that of another of the same shape and mass. Rotational inertia of the larger flywheel is
A)two times greater.
B)four times greater.
C)the same as the other's.
D)half.
Q3) If Earth had a pair of identical moons on opposite sides of the same circular orbit, the center of gravity of the double-moon-Earth system would be A)inside the Earth, but off center.
B)at the center of the Earth.
C)outside the Earth, but within the orbital path of the moons.
D)outside the Earth, but beyond the orbital path of the moons.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Gravity
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you weigh yourself on a bathroom scale on a slight incline instead of a level surface, your weight reading on the scale will be
A)less.
B)no different.
C)more.
Q2) Which is most responsible for Earth's ocean tides?
A)Moon
B)Sun
C)both contribute equally.
Q3) Earth is presently accelerating toward the Sun (centripetal acceleration). If the Sun collapsed into a black hole, this acceleration would A)increase.
B)decrease.
C)remain the same.
D)cease to exist.
Q4) If Earth's radius somehow increased with no change in mass, your weight would A)increase also.
B)decrease.
C)stay the same.
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Chapter 10: Projectile and Satellite Motion
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Q1) Angular momentum is greater for a satellite when it is at the A)apogee (farthest point).
B)perigee (nearest point).
C)same at apogee and perigee
Q2) To drop a package to Earth from a satellite, project it A)straight downward.
B)ahead at satellite speed.
C)behind at satellite speed.
D)none of the above
Q3) While a rock thrown upward at 50 degrees to the horizontal rises, neglecting air drag, its horizontal component of velocity A)increases.
B)remains unchanged. C)decreases.
Q4) After a rock thrown straight up reaches the top of its path and then falls a short distance, its acceleration is (neglect air resistance)
A)greater than at the top of its path.
B)less than at the top of its path.
C)the same as at the top of its path.
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Chapter 11: Atomic Nature of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) An atomic mass unit (amu)is 1/12 the mass of A)an electron.
B)a proton.
C)a hydrogen atom.
D)a carbon atom.
E)a uranium atom.
Q2) Compared to the energy it takes to separate oxygen and hydrogen from water, the amount of energy released when they recombine is
A)slightly more.
B)slightly less.
C)much more.
D)much less.
E)the same.
Q3) When oxygen and hydrogen gases combine, the result is A)water.
B)methane.
C)a noble gas.
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Chapter 12: Solids
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a chocolate bar is cut in half, its density is A)halved.
B)unchanged. C)doubled.
Q2) When a load is placed on the middle of a horizontal beam supported at each end, the bottom part of the beam undergoes A)tension.
B)compression.
C)either of these D)none of these
Q3) The weight of a 1-centimer cubed metal cube scaled up by a factor of 10 will be A)ten times as much.
B)a hundred times as much.
C)a thousand times as much. D)none of the above
Q4) If you hold two objects that have the same weight density, then they A)may have unequal mass densities.
B)have equal mass densities. C)are equal in weight.
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Chapter 13: Liquids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The attraction between unlike substances is called A)adhesion.
B)cohesion.
C)depends on the substances.
Q2) A completely submerged object always displaces its own A)volume of fluid.
B)weight of fluid.
C)density of fluid.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) To multiply an applied force while using a simple hydraulic lift, your force should be applied to the
A)large-diameter piston.
B)small-diameter piston.
C)relative piston sizes don't matter.
Q4) The buoyant force acting on a 10-ton ship floating in the ocean is
A)less than 10 tons.
B)10 tons.
C)more than 10 tons.
D)depends on density of sea water
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Chapter 14: Gases and Plasmas
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main difference between gases and plasmas has to do with A)the kinds of elements involved.
B)interatomic spacing.
C)electrical conduction.
D)fluid pressure.
E)the proportion of matter to antimatter in the universe.
Q2) The Bernoulli effect causes fast-moving vans on the highway to be drawn together when
A)air speeds up in passing between them.
B)air between them stagnates.
C)they experience lift.
D)all of the above
Q3) A scuba diver losing her air supply while far beneath the water surface is advised when ascending to A)hold air in her lungs.
B)allow air to escape her lungs.
C)panic.
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16
Chapter 15: Temperature, Heat, and Expansion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A substance that heats up relatively slowly has a A)high specific heat capacity.
B)low specific heat capacity.
C)either of these
D)neither of these
Q2) If you measure the distance between two telephone poles with a steel tape on a very hot day, your measured distance will be
A)a bit short.
B)a bit long.
C)the same as on an average-temperature day.
Q3) If you measure the width of an outdoor barn with a steel tape on a very cold day, your measured width will be
A)a bit short.
B)a bit long.
C)the same as on an average-temperature day.
Q4) In which is the temperature greater?
A)boiling-hot tea in a cup
B)boiling-hot tea in a fire-engine pail
C)both the same
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Chapter 16: Heat Transfer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Energy transfer by convection is primarily restricted to A)solids.
B)liquids.
C)gases.
D)fluids.
E)none of the above
Q2) On a cold day your feet feel warmer on a rug than on a tile floor because a rug
A)is usually warmer than tile.
B)is a poorer conductor.
C)for the same mass has more internal energy than tile.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) A bare roof on a warmly heated home on a snowy day indicates
A)an unwanted flow of heat
B)poor insulation.
C)fairly good conductivity.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 17: Change of Phase
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Sample Questions
Q1) To melt ice, add A)temperature.
B)energy.
C)force.
D)time.
Q2) Ice is put in a cooler to cool the contents. To speed up the cooling process, the ice can be
A)wrapped in newspaper.
B)drained of water periodically.
C)kept away from the food.
D)broken into smaller pieces.
E)none of the above
Q3) When a geyser erupts, pressure at its bottom
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)is unaffected
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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19
Chapter 18: Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a parcel of air is swept upward, with no heat input or output, its temperature
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains the same.
Q2) The air pressure in a container of air at 27°C will double when heated to A)54 degrees C.
B)300 degrees C.
C)327 degrees C.
D)600 degrees C.
E)none of the above
Q3) If a cup of tea at room temperature, 24°C is heated until it has twice the internal energy, unlike a piece of metal, its temperature will be
A)48°C.
B)100°C.
C)321°C.
D)594°C.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 19: Vibrations and Waves
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Q1) An aircraft that flies faster than the speed of sound is said to be
A)subsonic.
B)supersonic.
C)impossible.
D)none of the above
Q2) In the Doppler effect it is important to distinguish between
A)frequency and speed.
B)speed and velocity.
C)speed and acceleration.
D)distance and displacement.
Q3) The source of a sonic boom
A)must be a sound emitter.
B)may or may not be a sound emitter.
C)is not a sound emitter.
D)none of the above
Q4) A Doppler effect occurs when a source of sound moves
A)towards you.
B)away from you.
C)either of these
D)neither of these
21
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Chapter 20: Sound
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Q1) When sound travels faster higher above the ground than below, bending of sound tends to be
A)upward.
B)downward.
C)to the left.
D)to the right.
E)none of the above
Q2) A high-frequency sound source produces a high A)speed.
B)amplitude.
C)pitch.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) The natural frequency of an object depends on its A)size.
B)shape.
C)elasticity.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Musical Sounds
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Q1) High-pitched sound has a high A)speed.
B)rate of vibration.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) The frequency of a note one octave higher in pitch than a 440-Hz note is
A)1760 Hz.
B)880 Hz.
C)440 Hz.
D)220 Hz.
E)110 Hz.
Q3) How many octaves exist between 40 hertz and 1280 hertz?
A)5
B)6
C)7
D)8
E)9
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Electrostatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Between a pair of equal and opposite charges, field lines are A)directed from positive to negative.
B)more concentrated closer to the charges.
C)vectors, with patterns that stem from the inverse-square law.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) The electric field inside an uncharged metal ball is zero. If the ball is negatively charged, the electric field inside the ball is then A)less than zero.
B)zero.
C)greater than zero.
Q3) Lillian safely touches a 100,000-volt Van de Graaff generator. Although the voltage is high, the relatively small amount of charge means a relatively small amount of A)energy transfer.
B)electric field.
C)polarization.
D)conduction.
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24
Chapter 23: Electric Current
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alternating current is normally produced by a A)battery.
B)generator.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) Two lamps with different filament thicknesses, and therefore different resistances, are connected in series. Greater current is in the lamp with the A)thick filament.
B)thin filament.
C)same in each
Q3) One joule per coulomb is a unit of A)energy.
B)power.
C)voltage.
D)current.
E)resistance.
Q4) Heat a copper wire and its electric resistance
A)decreases.
B)remains unchanged.
C)increases.
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Chapter 24: Magnetism
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Q1) The force on an electron moving in a magnetic field will be least when its direction is A)the same as the magnetic field direction.
B)perpendicular to the magnetic field direction.
C)either of these
D)neither of these
Q2) The conventional direction of magnetic field lines outside a magnet are from A)north to south.
B)south to north.
C)either way
Q3) Cosmic rays penetrate your body when A)safely in your home.
B)outdoors.
C)in mountainous regions.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q4) The intensity of cosmic rays bombarding the Earth's surface is most at the A)poles.
B)mid-latitudes.
C)equator.
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Chapter 25: Electromagnetic Induction
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Q1) When voltage is induced in a coil of wire, current is A)also induced.
B)not induced.
C)cancelled.
Q2) Neon signs require about 12,000 volts to operate. If the circuit uses a 120-volt power source, the ratio of primary to secondary turns on the transformer should be
A)1 primary to 100 secondary.
B)100 primary to 1 secondary.
C)neither of these
Q3) Electromagnetic induction is employed in A)electric power lines.
B)triggering traffic lights.
C)hybrid automobiles.
D)mobile phones.
E)all the above
Q4) The frequency of induced voltage in a wire coil depends on A)the frequency of current producing it.
B)how frequently a magnet dips in and out of the coil.
C)the number of loops in the coil.
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Chapter 26: Properties of Light
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Q1) Information-carrying nerves are connected to the retina at the A)fovea.
B)blind spot.
C)cornea.
D)iris.
E)periphery.
Q2) The natural frequency of the atoms in glass is in the
A)infrared part of the spectrum.
B)visible part of the spectrum.
C)ultraviolet part of the spectrum.
Q3) Which of these electromagnetic waves have the longest wavelength?
A)radio waves
B)infrared waves
C)X-rays
D)ultraviolet waves
E)light waves
Q4) A total solar eclipse occurs for people in the Sun's A)umbra.
B)penumbra.
C)none of these
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Chapter 27: Color
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Q1) The complementary color of blue is
A)red.
B)green.
C)yellow.
D)cyan.
E)magenta.
Q2) A whitish sky is evidence that the atmosphere contains
A)predominantly small particles.
B)predominantly large particles.
C)a mixture of particle sizes.
D)water vapor.
E)pollutants.
Q3) A piece of glass that appears red
A)absorbs or reflects all colors except red.
B)transmits red.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
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29
Chapter 28: Reflection and Refraction
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Q1) A single raindrop illuminated by sunshine disperses A)a single color.
B)mainly light of mid-frequency colors.
C)all the colors of the rainbow.
Q2) Stephanie dips a glass rod into vegetable oil. The submerged part of the rod can't be seen because
A)refraction is unbent before light gets to your eye.
B)both the oil and glass have the same index of refraction.
C)of internal reflection.
D)light has different speeds in the oil and glass.
Q3) Rainbows exist because light is A)reflected.
B)refracted.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q4) Your vision is sharpest when your pupil is A)dilated.
B)constricted.
C)same either way
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Chapter 29: Light Waves
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Q1) A thin film appears yellow when illuminated with white light. The color being cancelled by destructive interference is
A)red.
B)green.
C)white.
D)blue.
E)none of the above
Q2) Successive bright fringes in an interference pattern result from
A)equal-length distances from the slits.
B)distance from the slits successively increasing one wavelength at a time.
C)destructive interference.
D)none of the above
Q3) A pair of crossed Polaroids will transmit light
A)of sufficiently long wavelengths.
B)that itself is polarized.
C)if a third Polaroid at about 45 degrees is inserted between the two.
Q4) For a pair of Polaroids with axes at 45 degrees to each other
A)light will not pass.
B)light that passes is dimmer than for a parallel orientation.
C)another Polaroid is necessary for any light to pass.
31
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Chapter 30: Light Emission
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Q1) As a solid is gradually heated, it first glows
A)red.
B)yellow.
C)white.
D)blue.
Q2) An atom is excited when one or more of its electrons
A)vibrates.
B)is boosted into higher energy levels.
C)undergoes a frequency change.
D)becomes frantic.
Q3) A laser cannot emit more energy than is put into it. But in instances where stored energy can be released in a very short time, the laser
A)puts out more energy than is put into it.
B)has a greater power output than power input.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q4) The spectral lines are more distinct when viewed in a mercury vapor lamp under A)high pressure.
B)low pressure.
C)same for each
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Light Quanta
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the beach you see a friend facing away from you. Keeping quiet you can cause her to turn around by
A)staring intently at her back.
B)tossing small pebbles at her back.
C)although staring will be less effective, both will affect a turn-around.
D)none of the above
Q2) In placing a cool thermometer into a hot cup of tea you likely are A)affecting its temperature.
B)draining energy from the tea.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) Two photons that have the same wavelength also have the same A)frequency.
B)energy.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q4) Very low-intensity light passing through a double slit produces a pattern that A)is built up one photon at a time.
B)reveals which slit each photon passed through.
C)changes only in intensity as time passes, not in detailed structure.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: The Atom and the Quantum
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Q1) Some alpha particles pass through gold foil with very little deflection mainly because the
A)electric field is zero inside the foil.
B)atoms of gold are mostly empty space.
C)net charge of the gold atoms is zero.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) The beam in a cathode-ray tube is composed of A)photons.
B)electrons.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) What did Millikan measure in his oil-drop experiment?
A)the electric charge of an electron
B)the mass of an electron
C)the mass of oil drops
D)none of the above
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Chapter 33: Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Q1) When thorium (A = 90)emits a beta particle, the resulting nucleus has atomic number
A)88.
B)89.
C)90.
D)92.
E)none of the above
Q2) When U-239 emits a beta particle, the resulting nucleus has
A)90 protons.
B)91 protons.
C)92 protons.
D)93 protons.
E)94 protons.
Q3) For 1 gram of radioactive material that has a half-life of one year, after 4 years the original radioactive material left will be
A)0 g.
B)1/2 g.
C)1/4 g.
D)1/8 g.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 34: Nuclear Fission and Fusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nucleus that has the least mass per nucleon is A)hydrogen.
B)iron.
C)lead.
D)uranium.
E)plutonium.
Q2) The balance between electrical and nuclear strong forces is more tenuous in A)light elements.
B)middle size elements like iron.
C)heavier elements.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) Control is maintained in a nuclear reactor by control rods that A)absorb excess neutrons.
B)emit fast neutrons.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
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Chapter 35: Special Theory of Relativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Einstein rejected the classical idea that space and time are A)two parts of a whole.
B)connected to each other.
C)independent of each other.
Q2) According to relativity theory, if a space trip finds a son or daughter biologically older than their parents, then the space trip is taken by the A)son or daughter.
B)parents.
C)either of these
D)neither, it can't be done.
Q3) A girl standing on the ground observes a rocket ship move past her at half the speed of light. Compared to the rocket's length at rest, she sees the rocket's length as A)longer.
B)shorter.
C)the same length.
Q4) The speed of light is
A)relative to the frame of reference from which it is measured.
B)a speed approached but never quite reached by photons.
C)constant for all observers.
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Chapter 36: General Theory of Relativity
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Q1) Strictly speaking, the ratio of circumference to diameter for a circle equals as we know it
A)in flat space.
B)on a spherical surface.
C)on a saddle-shaped surface.
D)all or any of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) The shortest distance between two points in flat Euclidean space is a A)straight line.
B)geodesic.
C)neither of these
Q3) Important support for general relativity came from studies of the precession of the orbit of A)Mercury.
B)Venus.
C)Earth.
D)Mars.
E)asteroids.
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Chapter 37: Systems of Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pretend an object is set sliding on a huge frictionless plane in contact with the surface of Earth as shown. Once the object is set in motion it will A)theoretically slide to the right forever B)slide back and forth
C)slow down and stop Because D)of its inertia.
E)gravitational force decreases with increasing distance. F)the object is sliding "uphill" and then "downhill" relative to the round Earth.
Q2) If the handle of a tuning fork is held solidly against a table, its resulting sound is A)louder, B)softer,
C)doesn't change, And as a result of this, the length of time the fork keeps vibrating D)increases.
E)decreases.
F)doesn't change.
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