Fundamentals of Physics Exam Review
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Physics introduces students to the core principles and concepts that form the basis of classical and modern physics. The course covers essential topics such as mechanics, thermodynamics, waves, electricity and magnetism, optics, and basic concepts in modern physics, including atomic and nuclear phenomena. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills, understanding the scientific method, and exploring real-world applications of physical laws. Through a combination of lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on experiments, students gain a solid foundation in the physical sciences, preparing them for advanced study in physics and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physics 12th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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2874 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: About Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scientific method is most effective in
A)making hypotheses.
B)gaining, organizing, and applying new knowledge.
C)discovering new things.
D)making theories.
E)performing experiments.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a scientific statement?
A)candy Bon Bons contain no sugar
B)there are things we will never know about
C)matter is filled with undetectable particles
D)there are parts of the universe that will never be discovered by humans
E)none of the above
Answer: A
Q3) A theory in the field of science is
A)an educated guess.
B)less than a fact.
C)a synthesis of a large body of well-tested knowledge.
D)unchangeable.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Newtons First Law of Motion: Inertia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of force needed to sustain motion of a rock in outer space is
A)a force equal to its weight.
B)a force less than its weight if friction is absent.
C)none of these
Answer: C
Q2) The support force on a 30-kg dog sleeping on the floor is
A)less than 300 N.
B)about 300 N.
C)more than 300 N.
D)nonexistent while asleep.
Answer: B
Q3) When Burl and Paul stand on opposite ends of a sign-painting scaffold, the tensions in the supporting ropes
A)are equal.
B)depend on the relative weights of Burl and Paul.
C)combine to equal zero.
D)are in equilibrium.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Linear Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) An object falls freely from rest on a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is 20 m/s<sup>2</sup>. After 5 seconds, the object will have a speed of A)5 m/s.
B)10 m/s.
C)20 m/s.
D)50 m/s.
E)100 m/s.
Answer: E
Q2) A cart maintains a constant velocity of 100 m/s for 10 seconds. During this interval its acceleration is A)zero.
B)1 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
C)10 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
D)none of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Newtons Second Law of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you are driving at 20 m/s and slam on your brakes and skid at 0.5g to a full stop, the skidding time is about
A) 3 s.
B) 4 s.
C) 5 s.
D) 6 s.
E)greater than 6 s.
Q2) Compared to the mass of an apple on Earth, the mass of the apple on the Moon is
A)one sixth as much.
B)the same.
C)six times as much.
D)zero.
Q3) If less horizontal force is applied to a sliding object than is needed to maintain a constant velocity, the object
A)accelerates in the direction of the applied force.
B)experiences decreased friction.
C)eventually slides to a stop.
D)none of the above
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6
Chapter 5: Newtons Third Law of Motion: Action and Reaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nellie tosses a ball upward at an angle. Neglecting air resistance, the vertical component of the initial velocity
A)decreases with time to reach the top.
B)remains constant.
C)increases with time to reach the top.
Q2) An airplane travels at 141 km/h toward the northeast. What is its component of velocity due north?
A)41 km/h
B)100 km/h
C)110 km/h
D)141 km/h
Q3) When a baseball player bats a ball with a force of 1000 N, the reaction force that the ball exerts against the bat is
A)less than 1000 N.
B)more than 1000 N.
C)1000 N.
D)need more information
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Momentum
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whether a truck comes to a stop by crashing into a haystack or a brick wall, the stopping force is
A)greater with the haystack.
B)greater with the brick wall.
C)both the same
Q2) A motorcycle of mass 100 kilograms slowly rolls off the edge of a cliff and falls for three seconds before reaching the bottom of a gully. Its momentum upon hitting the ground is
A)1,000 kg m/s.
B)2,000 kg m/s.
C)3,000 kg m/s.
D)4,000 kg m/s.
E)9,000 kg m/.
Q3) It is correct to say that impulse is equal to A)momentum.
B)a corresponding change in momentum.
C)force multiplied by the distance it acts.
D)velocity multiplied by time.
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8
Chapter 7: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clerk can lift cylindrical packages 1 meter vertically, or can roll them up a 2-meter-long ramp to the same elevation. With the ramp, the applied force required is about
A)half as much.
B)the same.
C)twice as much.
D)four times as much.
Q2) When wind encounters a wind turbine that produces energy, wind speed on the downside of the blades is
A)slowed.
B)speeded up.
C)not affected.
Q3) A melon is projected into the air with 100 J of kinetic energy in the presence of air resistance. When it returns to its initial level its kinetic energy is
A)less than 100 J.
B)more than 100 J.
C)100 J.
D)need more information
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Chapter 8: Rotational Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vertically-held sledge hammer is easier to balance when the heavier end is A)on your hand.
B)at the top, away from your hand.
C)the same either way
Q2) A difference between linear momentum and angular momentum involves A)a radial distance.
B)two types of speed.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) When you do somersaults, you'll more easily rotate when your body is A)straight with both arms above your head.
B)straight with both arms at your sides.
C)curled into a ball shape.
D)no difference
Q4) A tightrope walker more easily balances on a tight wire if her pole
A)is held high.
B)droops.
C)is short but heavy.
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Chapter 9: Gravity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The force of Earth's gravity on a capsule in space will lessen as it moves farther away. If the capsule moves to twice its distance, the force toward Earth becomes A)half.
B)three-quarters.
C)one-fourth.
D)none of the above
Q2) If the Sun were twice as massive
A)its pull on Earth would double.
B)the pull of Earth on the Sun would double.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) If an object is placed exactly halfway between Earth and the Moon, it would fall toward the A)Earth.
B)Moon.
C)neither of these
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Chapter 10: Projectile and Satellite Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who envisioned the motion of planets as projectiles obeying the laws of physics?
A)Kepler
B)Newton
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) The Moon does not crash into Earth because
A)Earth's gravitational field is relatively weak at the Moon.
B)gravitational pull of other planets keeps the Moon up.
C)Moon has a sufficient tangential speed.
D)Moon has less mass than Earth.
E)none of the above
Q3) When air drag affects the motion of projectiles, they don't travel
A)as high.
B)as far.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q4) Minimal orbital speed about Earth is about 8 km/s, and about the Moon is A)less than 8 km/s.
B)more than 8 km/s.
C)about 8 km/s.
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Chapter 11: Atomic Nature of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these atoms has the greatest number of electrons?
A)helium
B)carbon
C)iron
D)gold
E)uranium
Q2) The volume of matter is due mostly to its A)protons.
B)electrons.
C)both of these
Q3) How many protons should be added to the nuclei of oxygen atoms so the resulting gas will glow red when an electric current is in it?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)none of the above
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Solids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with a solid steel bar having a rectangular cross-section, an I-beam has the advantage of A)being lighter.
B)being stronger per bodyweight.
C)both of these D)neither of these
Q2) The strength of a rope depends on its A)thickness.
B)length.
C)both of these
Q3) Consider the fictional case of the incredible shrinking woman. If a fictional shrinking woman shrinks to 0.1 her original height, her total skin area shrinks to
A)0.1 times its original value.
B)0.01 times its original value.
C)0.001 times its original value.
D)0.0001 times its original value.
E)none of the above
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14
Chapter 13: Liquids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason a life jacket helps keep you afloat is
A)the jacket makes you weigh less.
B)the jacket has the same density as an average human.
C)the jacket repels water.
D)if you sink, the jacket sinks.
E)the density of both you and the jacket together is less than your density alone.
Q2) An egg rests at the bottom of a bowl filled with water. When salt is slowly added to the water the egg rises and floats, from which we conclude
A)salt water is denser than fresh water.
B)salt water is denser than an egg.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) If the part of an iceberg that extends above the water were suddenly removed, the A)iceberg would sink.
B)buoyant force on the iceberg would decrease.
C)density of the iceberg would change.
D)pressure on the bottom of the iceberg would increase.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 14: Gases and Plasmas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inside the same room, buoyant force is greater on A)a helium-filled party balloon.
B)an elephant.
C)both the same
Q2) Compared to the buoyant force of the atmosphere on a 1-kilogram iron block, the buoyant force on a nearby 1-kilogram helium-filled balloon is A)considerably less.
B)considerably more.
C)the same.
Q3) The weight of air in a column 1-m<sup>2</sup> in cross section that extends from sea level to the top of the atmosphere is A)101 N.
B)10,100 N.
C)101,000 N.
D)101,000,000 N.
Q4) A spinning tossed baseball veers off course in the direction of A)crowded streamlines.
B)non-crowded streamlines.
C)onward-coming streamlines.
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Chapter 15: Temperature, Heat, and Expansion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ice has a lower density than water because ice
A)molecules are more compact in the solid state.
B)molecules vibrate at lower rates than water molecules.
C)is composed of open-structured crystals.
D)density decreases with decreasing temperature.
Q2) Which unit represents the most energy?
A)calorie
B)Calorie
C)joule
D)all the same
Q3) Which of the following normally warms up fastest when heat is applied?
A)water
B)iron
C)glass
D)wood
E)all of the above
Q4) When you touch a cold piece of ice with your finger, energy flows
A)from your finger to the ice.
B)from the ice to your finger.
C)actually, both ways.
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Chapter 16: Heat Transfer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A good reflector of radiation is a A)good absorber of radiation.
B)good emitter of radiation.
C)poor absorber of radiation.
D)none of the above
Q2) The temperature of outer space is A)zero.
B)about 2.7 kelvin.
C)meaningless.
D)none of the above
Q3) If a volume of air is warmed, it expands and tends to A)warm.
B)cool.
C)neither of these
Q4) A region of expanding air tends to A)cool.
B)warm.
C)both of the these
D)neither of these
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Chapter 17: Change of Phase
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Sample Questions
Q1) A boy scout will be burned more severely by
A)100 g of water at 100°C.
B)100 g of steam at 100°C.
C)both about equally
D)neither of these
Q2) When a solid melts, energy is
A)absorbed by the solid.
B)released by the solid.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) Food in a pressure cooker is cooked faster due to A)higher temperature.
B)greater rate of bubble formation in the water.
C)energy transfer in the water.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q4) Foreign ions introduced to water
A)lower the freezing point of water.
B)raise the freezing point of water.
C)do not affect water's freezing point.
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Chapter 18: Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A given amount of heat energy can be completely converted to mechanical energy in
A)a steam engine.
B)an atomic reactor.
C)a simple machine.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) When Philadelphia's temperature is 40°F and Miami's temperature is 80°F,
A)Miami is twice as hot as Philadelphia.
B)Miami is warmer than Philadelphia.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) Chinook winds tend to
A)warm an environment.
B)cool an environment.
C)cool deserts at night.
D)warm deserts at sunrise.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Vibrations and Waves
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Q1) The stride of a horse would be quicker if more mass in its legs were concentrated
A)in the upper part, nearer the horse's body.
B)towards its feet.
C)halfway up its legs.
D)uniformly all along its legs.
E)none of the above
Q2) If you quickly run toward the orchestra at a concert, the frequency of the sound you hear will be
A)decreased.
B)increased.
C)neither of these
Q3) Some of a wave's energy dissipates as heat. In time, this will reduce the wave's A)speed.
B)wavelength.
C)amplitude.
D)frequency.
E)period.
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21
Chapter 20: Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) When sound travels faster near the ground than above, bending of sound tends to be
A)upward.
B)downward.
C)to the left.
D)to the right.
E)none of the above
Q2) The F in FM radio stands for
A)frequency.
B)forced vibration at which resonance occurs.
C)foul.
D)female.
E)fax.
Q3) In choosing between sound waves and radio waves, which has the greater speed?
A)sound wave
B)radio wave
C)both the same
D)need more information
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Chapter 21: Musical Sounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fourier analysis makes central use of A)wave superposition.
B)partial tones.
C)harmonics.
D)none of the above
Q2) Reverberation is a phenomenon you would be most likely to hear if you sing in A)the shower.
B)a small drape-covered room.
C)a large drape-covered room.
D)the desert.
Q3) The quality of a musical note has to do with its A)loudness.
B)frequency. C)harmonics.
D)amplitude.
E)none of the above
Q4) As we grow older, the greatest hearing difficulty is with frequencies that are A)low.
B)mid-range. C)high.
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Chapter 22: Electrostatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) To say that electric charge is conserved means that no case has ever been found where
A)the total charge on an object has changed.
B)quantity of negative charge on an object exactly balances positive charge.
C)the total quantity of charge on an object has increased.
D)net charge has been created or destroyed.
E)none of the above
Q2) Electrons can be transferred from one place to another by the process of A)friction.
B)contact, which means touching.
C)induction, which means non-touching.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) Much of the charge on a conducting cube is A)uniformly spread over its surface.
B)partly beneath the surface.
C)mutually repelled toward its corners.
D)none of the above
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Chapter 23: Electric Current
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to a single lamp connected to a battery, two identical lamps connected in series to the same battery will carry
A)more current.
B)less current.
C)the same current.
Q2) If you wish to keep chicken warm in a shed on a cold night, the best lamp to use is
A)an incandescent lamp.
B)a fluorescent lamp.
C)an LED lamp.
D)a CFL lamp.
Q3) Three 10-ohm resistors take the shape of a triangle, one resistor in each leg. Connecting an ohm-meter across any two points of the triangle will show the equivalent resistance to be
A)1.4 ohms.
B)5 ohms.
C)6.7 ohms.
D)greater than 6.7 ohms.
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25
Chapter 24: Magnetism
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Q1) Place an iron rod inside a current-carrying coil of wire and you
A)increase the strength of the electromagnet.
B)have a superconducting magnet.
C)a magplane in the making.
Q2) Surrounding every moving electron is
A)a magnetic field.
B)an electric field.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) Compared to the huge force that attracts an iron tack to a strong magnet, the force that the tack exerts on the magnet is
A)relatively small.
B)equally huge.
C)inversely proportional to their masses.
Q4) An iron nail is more strongly attracted to the A)north pole of a magnet.
B)south pole of a magnet.
C)either of these D)neither of these
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Chapter 25: Electromagnetic Induction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A transformer transforms voltage while A)producing energy.
B)producing power.
C)transferring energy from one coil to another.
D)transferring current from one coil to another.
Q2) When a magnet is moved to and fro in a wire coil, voltage is induced. If the coil has twice as many loops, the voltage induced is A)half.
B)the same.
C)twice.
D)four times as much.
E)none of the above
Q3) A transformer actually transforms A)voltage.
B)magnetic field lines.
C)generators into motors.
D)non-safe forms of energy to safe forms of energy.
E)all of the above
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27
Chapter 26: Properties of Light
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Q1) An annular eclipse of the Sun occurs when the Moon doesn't quite cover the Sun in the zone of totality. This means that the Moon is
A)closer than usual to Earth.
B)farther than usual from Earth.
C)none of these
Q2) Compared to the photon that enters a pane of window glass, the photon that emerges is
A)the same photon.
B)an identical but different photon.
C)an altogether different photon.
D)none of the above
Q3) If the Sun were to disappear at this moment, we wouldn't know about it for
A)7 seconds, reflex time.
B)8 seconds.
C)8 minutes.
D)8 hours.
Q4) The speed of light in the void between molecules in glass is
A)more than its speed in a vacuum.
B)the same as its speed in a vacuum.
C)less than its speed in a vacuum.
28
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Chapter 27: Color
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Q1) The part of the electromagnetic spectrum most absorbed by water is A)infrared.
B)red.
C)cyan.
D)all about equally.
Q2) A mixture of cyan and yellow pigments appears A)orange.
B)green.
C)magenta.
D)blue.
E)blackish-brown.
Q3) You can get a sunburn while under the "shade" of a beach umbrella due to A)reflected sunlight from the sand.
B)refracted sunlight from the water.
C)light scattering in the air.
D)none of the above
Q4) Isaac Newton first became famous for his contributions to the understanding of A)the laws of mechanics.
B)the law of gravity. C)light.
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Chapter 28: Reflection and Refraction
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Q1) You photograph the image of your little sister, who stands 2 meters in front of a plane mirror. Holding the camera beside her head, the distance to her image is
A)1 meter.
B)2 meters.
C)3 meters.
D)4 meters.
E)none of the above
Q2) Light is reflected when
A)electron clouds of atoms are energized.
B)atomic nuclei are made to vibrate.
C)incident light is returned into the medium from which it came.
D)electromagnetic waves emanate from matter.
Q3) When a light beam emerges from water into air, light speed A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains the same.
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Chapter 29: Light Waves
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Q1) Consider the interference colors in a film of gasoline on a wet street. The water provides a
A)means of spreading the gasoline into a thin film.
B)means of slowing the rapid evaporation of gasoline.
C)chemical bond with the gasoline.
D)second reflecting surface.
E)all of the above
Q2) An inventor proposes to equip an office with a polarized source of background music and polarizing earplugs for non-listeners. His idea is A)a good one that provides personal choice.
B)too expensive.
C)bothersome.
D)nonsense because sound cannot be polarized.
Q3) Thomas Young's two-source interference patterns demonstrate the A)particle nature of light.
B)wave nature of light.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
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Chapter 30: Light Emission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discrete spectral lines are observed when excitation occurs in a A)solid.
B)liquid.
C)gas.
D)superconductor.
E)all of the above
Q2) Green light emitted by excited mercury vapor corresponds to an energy transition in the mercury atom. A more energetic transition might emit
A)red light.
B)blue light.
C)white light.
D)any of these
Q3) A paint pigment that absorbs blue light and gives off red light
A)is fluorescent.
B)is phosphorescent.
C)can be both of these
D)neither of these
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Chapter 31: Light Quanta
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Q1) Applying E = hf to photon emission from an atom, the symbol E represents the energy A)of the emitted photon.
B)difference between atomic energy levels producing the photon.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) By casually glancing at a scene on your TV you are A)affecting the image.
B)participating in the action on the screen.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) According to your textbook, popular confusion is lessened when applying Heisenberg's uncertainty principle by heeding the distinction between A)momentum and energy.
B)energy and time.
C)passive observation and probing.
Q4) A bullet and a proton have the same momentum. Which has the longer wavelength?
A)the bullet
B)the proton
C)both the same
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Chapter 32: The Atom and the Quantum
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to de Broglie, destructive interference occurs when an orbiting wave
A)reinforces itself
B)doesn't reinforce itself.
C)neither of these
Q2) When an electron drops from a higher energy level to a lower one, energy is emitted. In comparison, how much energy is required to reverse the process, going from the lower level to the higher level?
A)less energy
B)the same energy
C)more energy
Q3) The probability cloud for the electron in the hydrogen atom has an average radius
A)quite different from the radius predicted by Bohr.
B)in agreement with the orbital radius of Bohr.
C)as yet not accurately measured.
Q4) An excited hydrogen atom is capable of emitting radiation of A)a single frequency.
B)three frequencies.
C)many more than three frequencies.
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Chapter 33: Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fate of the world's uranium supply is to eventually become A)alpha and beta particles.
B)iron.
C)lead.
Q2) Pure elements can be transformed into entirely different elements by A)radioactive decay.
B)transmutation.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) The radiation source closest to us originates in A)medical treatments.
B)all kinds of power plants.
C)our own bodies.
D)none of the above
Q4) When a nucleus emits a beta particle, its atomic number
A)increases by 1.
B)decreases by 1.
C)increases by 2.
D)decreases by 2.
E)none of the above
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Nuclear Fission and Fusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The idea in fission-bomb design is to
A)form a supercritical mass from one or more subcritical masses.
B)bring neutrons and subcritical uranium together.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) A chain reaction progresses when the average number of liberated neutrons that cause further fissions is
A)zero.
B)less than one.
C)one or more.
D)none of the above
Q3) An element is changed into a completely different element in
A)radioactive alpha decay.
B)radioactive beta decay.
C)nuclear fission.
D)nuclear fusion.
E)all of the above
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36
Chapter 35: Special Theory of Relativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Objects moving at relativistic speeds appear to observers at rest to be A)stretched.
B)shrunken.
C)either depending on direction of motion.
D)none of the above
Q2) As a light source blinking at a steady rate approaches you at an increasing speed (accelerating toward you), the rate at which the blinks encounter you
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains the same.
Q3) The clock on the Big Ben Tower in London reads 12 noon. If you travel away from the clock at a very high speed and view it with a telescope, you would see
A)run slower than a clock in your vehicle.
B)run faster than a clock in your vehicle.
C)be frozen at 12 noon.
Q4) Einstein rejected the classical idea that space and time are A)two parts of a whole.
B)connected to each other.
C)independent of each other.
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Chapter 36: General Theory of Relativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you move in the direction in which gravity acts, an observer at rest sees your watch running
A)slower than at your starting point.
B)faster than at your starting point.
C)neither of these
Q2) If the Sun collapsed to a black hole, Earth would
A)be sucked into the black hole.
B)follow a straight-line path into space.
C)continue in its present orbit.
Q3) According to relativity theory, you can experience a longer youth when you
A)are near a black hole.
B)are near a very large gravitational field.
C)travel at nearly the speed of light.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q4) A message from relativity theory is that slowing the aging process
A)can occur with correct applications of physics.
B)would occur if you fell into a bottomless mine shaft.
C)can only happen to "the other guy."
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Chapter 37: Systems of Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pair of like electric charges
A)repel each other,
B)attract each other,
And a pair of like magnetic poles
C)repel each other.
D)attract each other.
Q2) Strictly speaking, from the point of view of a person on the ground floor of a tall skyscraper, a person at the top ages
A)more slowly,
B)faster,
C)the same,
And from the point of view of a person at the top of the skyscraper, the person at the ground level ages
D)more slowly.
E)faster.
F)the same.
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