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Fundamentals of Physics provides a comprehensive introduction to the basic concepts and principles that govern the physical world. The course covers topics such as mechanics, thermodynamics, waves, electricity, magnetism, optics, and modern physics. Through lectures, laboratory work, and problem-solving exercises, students develop a strong foundation in understanding the laws of nature, mathematical formulation of physical phenomena, and their applications in everyday life. This course is designed for students pursuing studies in science, engineering, and related fields, emphasizing both conceptual understanding and quantitative analysis.
Recommended Textbook College Physics A Strategic Approach 3rd Edition by Randall D. Knigh
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prefix yotta (Y) signifies a multiple of 10<sup>24</sup>. How many yottameters are there in a gigameter?
Answer: 10<sup>-15</sup> ym
Q2) At a certain time, the average size of a transistor in a microprocessor was 250 nanometers. A human hair has a diameter of 70 microns (micrometers). How many transistors fit across a human hair?
A) 280
B) 28
C) 2800
D) 2.8
E) 0.28
Answer: A
Q3) What is the product of 12.56 and 2.12 expressed to the correct number of significant figures?
A) 27
B) 26.6
C) 26.23
D) 26.627
Answer: B
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Q1) A 10-kg rock and 20-kg rock are dropped from the same height and experience no significant air resistance. If it takes the 20-kg rock a time T to reach the ground, what time will it take the 10-kg rock to reach the ground?
A) 4T
B) 2T
C) T
D) T/2
E) T/4
Answer: C
Q2) A car is traveling with a constant speed when the driver suddenly applies the brakes, causing the car to slow down with a constant acceleration of magnitude 3.50 m/s<sup>2</sup>. If the car comes to a stop in a distance of 30.0 m, what was the car's original speed?
A) 10.2 m/s
B) 14.5 m/s
C) 105 m/s
D) 210 m/s
E) 315 m/s
Answer: B
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Q1) A car travels 20 km west and then 20 km south. What is the magnitude of its displacement vector?
A) 0 km
B) 20 km
C) 28 km
D) 40 km
Q2) A player throws a football 50.0 m at 61.0° north of west. What is the westward component of the displacement of the football?
A) 64.7m
B) 55.0 m
C) 0.00 m
D) 74.0 m
E) 24.2 m
Q3) The magnitude of a vector an only zero if all of its components are zero.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An airplane with an airspeed of 140 km/h has a heading of 50° west of north in a wind that is blowing toward the east at 25 km/h. What is the groundspeed of the plane?
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Q1) A certain aircraft has a mass of 300,000 kg. At a certain instant during its landing, its speed is 27.0 m/s. If the braking force is a constant 445,000 N, what is the speed of the airplane 10.0 s later?
A) 10.0 m/s
B) 12.2 m/s
C) 14.0 m/s
D) 18.0 m/s
E) 20.0 m/s
Q2) During a hard stop, a car and its passengers slow down with an acceleration of 8.0 m/s<sup>2</sup>. What magnitude force does a 50-kg passenger exert on the seat belt in such a stop?
Q3) In a collision between a huge SUV and a small hybrid car, the SUV exerts a larger force on the hybrid than the hybrid exerts on the SUV.
A) True
B) False
C) It depends on whether the collision is a head-on collision or a rear-end collision.
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Q1) A tightrope walker walks across a 30-m long wire tied between two poles. The center of the wire is displaced vertically downward by 1.0 m when he is halfway across. If the tension in both halves of the wire at this point is \(6294 \mathrm {~N}\) what is the mass of the tightrope walker? Neglect the mass of the wire.
A) 85 kg
B) 43 kg
C) 74 kg
D) 91 kg
Q2) A 5.0-kg box slides on the surface on a ramp that rises at 37° above the horizontal. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the surface of the ramp is 0.60. What are the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the box if it is sliding (a) up the ramp, (b) down the ramp?
Q3) A 2.8-kg tool can move on a perfectly smooth ramp that slants at 42° above the horizontal. What are the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of this tool if it is sliding (a) up the ram, (b) down the ramp?
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Sample Questions
Q1) A car goes around a circular curve on a horizontal road at constant speed. What is the direction of the friction force on the car due to the road?
A) tangent to the curve in the forward direction
B) tangent to the curve opposite to the direction of the car's motion
C) perpendicular to the curve outward
D) perpendicular to the curve inward
E) There is no friction on the car because its speed is constant.
Q2) At their closest approach, Venus and Earth are 4.20 × 10<sup>10</sup> m apart. The mass of Venus is 4.87 × 10<sup>24</sup> kg, the mass of Earth is 5.97 × 10<sup>24</sup> kg, and G = 6.67 × 10<sup>-11</sup> N m<sup>2</sup>/kg<sup>2</sup>.
What is the magnitude of the gravitational force exerted by Venus on Earth at that point?
A) 1.10 × 10<sup>18</sup> N
B) 4.62 × 10<sup>28</sup> N
C) 5.43 × 10<sup>26</sup> N
D) 6.30 × 10<sup>20</sup> N
E) 1.72 × 10<sup>19</sup> N
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Q1) Three masses are located in the x-y plane as follows: a mass of 6 kg is at (0 m, 0 m), a mass of 4 kg is at (3 m, 0 m), and a mass of 2 kg is at (0 m, 3 m). Where is the center of mass (or center of gravity) of the system?
A) (1 m, 2 m)
B) (2 m, 1 m)
C) (1 m, 1 m)
D) (1 m, 0.5 m)
E) (0.5 m, 1 m)
Q2) A force of \(16.88 \mathrm {~N}\) is applied tangentially to a wheel of radius 0.340 m and causes an angular acceleration of 1.20 rad/s<sup>2</sup>. What is the moment of inertia of the wheel?
A) 4.78 kg ? m<sup>2</sup>
B) 3.59 kg ? m<sup>2</sup>
C) 5.98 kg ? m<sup>2</sup>
D) 7.17 kg ? m<sup>2</sup>
Q3) Three small masses are positioned at the following coordinates: 3.0 kg at (3.0 m, 2.0 m); 4.0 kg at (0.0 m, -1.0 m); and 5.0 kg at (5.0 m, -7.0 m). What are the coordinates of the center of mass (or center of gravity) of this system?
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Q1) A very light ideal spring having a spring constant (force constant) of 8.2 N/cm is used to lift a 2.2-kg tool with an upward acceleration of 3.25 m/s<sup>2</sup>. If the spring has negligible length when it us not stretched, how long is it while it is pulling the tool upward?
Q2) Tensile stress is
A) the strain per unit length.
B) the same as force.
C) the ratio of the change in length.
D) applied force per cross-sectional area.
Q3) A 1200-kg car is being raised with a constant acceleration of 2.53 m/s<sup>2</sup> by a crane, using a 20-m long steel cable that is 1.5 cm in diameter. Young's modulus for steel is 2.0 × 10<sup>11</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup>. What is the change in length of the cable caused by lifting the car?
A) 8.4 mm
B) 8.4 cm
C) 4.9 mm
D) 4.9 cm
E) 4.9 m
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dinner plate falls vertically to the floor and breaks up into three pieces, which slide horizontally along the floor. Immediately after the impact, a 200-g piece moves along the +x-axis with a speed of 2.00 m/s, a 235-g piece moves along the +y-axis with a speed of 1.50 m/s. The third piece has a mass of 100 g. What is the speed of the third piece?
A) 2.51 m/s
B) 2.57 m/s
C) 3.50 m/s
D) 5.33 m/s
E) 6.83 m/s
Q2) In a certain cyclotron, a proton of mass 1.67 × 10<sup>-27</sup> kg moves in a circle of diameter 1.6 m with an angular speed of 2.0 × 10<sup>6</sup> rad/s. What is the angular momentum of the proton?
A) 1.3 × 10<sup>-21</sup> kg m<sup>2</sup>/s
B) 1.8 × 10<sup>-21</sup> kg m<sup>2</sup>/s
C) 2.1 × 10<sup>-21</sup> kg m<sup>2</sup>/s
D) 3.2 × 10<sup>-21</sup> kg m<sup>2</sup>/s
Q3) A batter applies an average force of 8000 N to a baseball for 1.1 ms. What is the magnitude of the impulse delivered to the baseball by the bat?
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 320-g air track cart traveling at 1.25 m/s suddenly collides elastically with a stationary 270-g cart. What is the speed of the 320-g cart just after the collision?
A) 0.68 m/s
B) 0.11 m/s
C) 0.21 m/s
D) 1.4 m/s
E) 1.1 m/s
Q2) A hoop with a mass of 2.75 kg is rolling without slipping along a horizontal surface with a speed of 4.5 m/s when it starts down a ramp that makes an angle of 25° below the horizontal. What is the rotational kinetic energy of the hoop after it has rolled 3.0 m down as measured along the surface of the ramp?
A) 34 J
B) 22 J
C) 45 J
D) 62 J
E) This question cannot be answered without knowing the radius of the hoop.
Q3) How fast must a 6.0-kg cat run to have a kinetic energy of 150 J?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ocean thermal energy conversion project uses the surface water near tropical islands with a temperature of 20°C as the hot temperature reservoir, and the water at some depth, with a temperature of 5.0°C, as the cold temperature reservoir for a heat engine. What is the maximum possible efficiency of an engine running between those two temperatures?
A) 4.7%
B) 5.1%
C) 7.9%
D) 15%
E) 30%
Q2) If the efficiency of a Carnot engine were to be 100%, the heat sink would have to be
A) at absolute zero.
B) at 0°C.
C) at 100°C.
D) infinitely hot.
Q3) A heat engine has an efficiency of 35.0% and receives 150 J of heat per cycle.
(a) How much work does it do in each cycle?
(b) How much heat does it "waste" in each cycle?
Q4) What is absolute zero on the (a) Celsius scale and (b) on the Fahrenheit scale?
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solid concrete wall has dimensions 4.0 m × 2.4 m and is 30 cm thick. The thermal conductivity of the concrete is 1.3 W/m K, and it separates a basement from the ground outside. The inner surface of the wall is at 18°C, and the outside surface is at 6°C. How much heat flows through the wall every hour?
A) 1.8 MJ
B) 1.8 kJ
C) 500 J
D) 5.0 MJ
E) 5.0 kJ
Q2) A 35-g block of ice at -14°C is dropped into a calorimeter (of negligible heat capacity) containing 400 g of water at 0°C. When the system reaches equilibrium, how much ice is left in the calorimeter? The specific heat of ice is 2090 J/kg K, that of water is 4186 J/kg K, and the latent heat of fusion of water is 33.5 × 10<sup>4</sup> J/kg.
A) 32 g
B) 33 g
C) 35 g
D) 38 g
E) 41 g
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water flows through a horizontal pipe of cross-sectional area 10.0 cm<sup>2</sup> at a pressure of 0.250 atm with a flow rate is 1.00 L/s. At a valve, the effective cross-sectional area of the pipe is reduced to 5.00 cm<sup>2</sup>. What is the pressure at the valve? The density of water is 1000 kg/m<sup>3</sup>, and treat it as an ideal incompressible fluid.
A) 0.110 atm
B) 0.235 atm
C) 0.200 atm
D) 0.157 atm
E) 7700 Pa
Q2) A rectangular wooden block measures 10.0 cm × 4.00 cm × 2.00 cm. When the block is placed in water, it floats horizontally, with its bottom face 1.65 cm below the surface. What is the density of the wood? The density of water is 1.00 g/cm<sup>3</sup>.
A) 0.825 g/cm<sup>3</sup>
B) 1.21 g/cm<sup>3</sup>
C) 1.65 g/cm<sup>3</sup>
D) 0.606 g/cm<sup>3</sup>
E) 0.350 g/cm<sup>3</sup>
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3.42-kg stone hanging vertically from an ideal spring on the earth undergoes simple harmonic motion at a place where g = 9.80 m/s<sup>2</sup>. If the force constant (spring constant) of the spring is \(12 \mathrm {~N} / \mathrm { m }\) find the period of oscillation of this setup on a planet where g = 1.60 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
A) 3.35 s
B) 2.51 s
C) 4.36 s
D) 5.70 s
Q2) An object attached to an ideal spring executes simple harmonic motion. If you want to double its total energy, you could A) double the amplitude of vibration.
B) double the force constant (spring constant) of the spring. C) double both the amplitude and force constant (spring constant). D) double the mass. E) double both the mass and amplitude of vibration.
Q3) When a certain simple pendulum is set swinging, its angular displacement as a function of time t obeys the equation = 8.5° cos(2.4 s<sup>-1</sup><sup>t</sup>). How long is the pendulum?
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Q1) A string of length L is under tension, and the speed of a wave in the string is v. What will be the speed of a wave in the string if the length is increased to 2L but with no change in the mass or tension?
A) v/2
B) v/ \(\sqrt { 2 }\)
C) v \(\sqrt { 2 }\)
D) 2v
E) 4v
Q2) Two motors in a factory are running at slightly different rates. One runs at 825.0 rpm and the other at 786.0 \({ rpm } .\) You hear the sound intensity increase and then decrease periodically due to wave interference. How long does it take between successive instances of the sound intensity increasing?
A) 1.54 s
B) 1.43 s
C) 1.66 s
D) 1.79 s
Q3) An elephant can hear sound with a frequency of 15 Hz. What is the wavelength of this wave if the speed of sound in air is 343 m/s?
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Q1) A string of length 2.5 m is fixed at both ends. When the string vibrates at a frequency of 85 Hz, a standing wave with five loops is formed.
(a) Determine the distance between two adjacent nodes.
(b) Determine the wavelength of the waves that travel on the string.
(c) Determine the speed of traveling waves on this string.
(d) Determine the fundamental frequency of this string.
Q2) A person stands between two speakers driven by the same source. Each speaker produces a tone with a frequency of 200 Hz on a day when the speed of sound is 330 m/s. The person is 1.65 m from one speaker and 4.95 m from the other. What type of interference does the person perceive?
A) constructive
B) destructive
C) both constructive and destructive
D) neither constructive nor destructive
Q3) When a guitar is tuned to adjust it pitch, what is it that is changed?
A) The wavelength of the fundamental.
B) The frequency of the fundamental.
C) The amplitude of the fundamental.
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Q1) A two-slit arrangement with 60.3 m separation between the slits is illuminated with 537.0-nm wavelength light. If a viewing screen is located 2.14 m from the slits, find the distance on the screen from the first dark fringe on one side of the central maximum to the second dark fringe on the other side.
A) 57.2 mm
B) 38.1 mm
C) 76.3 mm
D) 26.9 mm
Q2) An 18-mm-wide diffraction grating has rulings of 710 lines per millimieter. Monochromatic light of wavelength 506 nm wavelength is incident normally on the grating. What is the largest angle from the centerline at which an intensity maximum is formed?
A) 46°
B) 44°
C) 42°
D) 40°
E) 38°
Q3) When red light illuminates a grating with 7000 lines per centimeter, its second maximum is at 62.4°. What is the wavelength of this light?
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Q1) An object that is 4.00 cm tall is placed 18.0 cm in front of a concave mirror having a focal length of 20.0 cm. What is the location of its image in relation to the mirror and what are its characteristics?
A) 180 cm on the other side of mirror, real, 6.00 times bigger
B) 10 cm on the other side of mirror, virtual, 10.0 times bigger
C) 18 cm on the same side of mirror, virtual, 2.25 times bigger
D) 20 cm on the same side of mirror, real, 10.0 times bigger
E) 180 cm on the other side of mirror, virtual, 10.0 times bigger
Q2) The index of refraction of a type of glass is 1.50, and the index of refraction of water is 1.33. If light enters water from this glass, the angle of refraction will be A) greater than the angle of incidence. B) equal to the angle of incidence.
C) less than the angle of incidence.
Q3) The index of refraction for a certain material is 1.399 for red light and 1.432 for blue light. Light containing both of these colors is traveling in vacuum and strikes a flat sheet of this material. Find the angle separating the two colors in the refracted light in the sheet if the angle of incidence is 60.00°.
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Q1) The length of a telescope is 2.00 m and the focal length of the objective lens is 2.0 cm. What is the focal length of the eyepiece?
A) 200 cm
B) 202 cm
C) 101 cm
D) 2.0 cm
E) 198 cm
Q2) A magnifying glass has a focal length of 7.0 cm. What is the angular magnification if the image is viewed by a person having a relaxed eye with the near point of 25 cm?
A) 1.6
B) 2.6
C) 3.6
D) 4.6
Q3) The objective lens of a telescope has a focal length of 1.90 m. When viewed through this telescope, the Moon appears 5.25 times larger than normal. How far apart are the objective lens and the eyepiece when this instrument is focused on the Moon?
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Q1) A negatively-charged rod is brought close to (but does not touch) two neutral spheres that are in contact with each other but insulated from the ground. If the two spheres are then separated, what kind of charge will be on the spheres?
A) The sphere near the charged rod becomes positive and the other one becomes negative.
B) The sphere near the charged rod becomes negative and the other one becomes positive.
C) The spheres do not get any charge.
D) Both spheres become negative.
E) Both spheres become positive.
Q2) Two equally charged tiny spheres of mass 1.0 g are placed 2.0 cm apart. When released, they begin to accelerate away from each other at \(414 \mathrm {~m} / \mathrm { s } ^ { 2 }\) What is the magnitude of the charge on each sphere, assuming only that the electric force is present? (k = 1/4 <sub>0</sub> = 9.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> N m<sup>2</sup>/C<sup>2</sup>)
A) 140 nC
B) 120 nC
C) 95 nC
D) 75 nC
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Q1) Doubling the potential across a given capacitor causes the energy stored in that capacitor to A) quadruple.
B) double.
C) reduce to one-half.
D) reduce to one-fourth.
Q2) A hydrogen atom consists of a proton and an electron. If the orbital radius of the electron increases, the electric potential energy of the electron due to the proton A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) remains the same.
D) depends on the zero point of the potential.
Q3) A very small 4.8-g particle carrying a charge of +9.9 C is fired with an initial speed of \(8.0 \mathrm {~m} / \mathrm { s }\) directly toward a second small 7.8-g particle carrying a charge of + \(5.2 \mu \mathrm { C } \text {. }\) The second particle is held fixed throughout this process. If these particles are initially very far apart, what is the closest they get to each other? (k = 1/4 <sub>0</sub> = 9.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> N m<sup>2</sup>/C<sup>2</sup>)
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Q1) A 9.0-V battery costs $1.49 and will run a portable CD player for 6.0 hours before running down and needing to be replaced. If this battery supplies a current of 25 mA to the player, what is the cost of the energy provided by the battery in dollars per kWh?
A) $11/kWh
B) $110/kWh
C) $1100/kWh
D) $11,000/kWh
Q2) When 5.00 A is flowing through an 10.0- device, how much power is being dissipated in the device?
A) 50.0 W
B) 250 W
C) 500 W
D) 2.50 kW
Q3) A 200- resistor is rated at 1/4 W. What is the maximum voltage that can safely be connected across it?
A) 0.71 V
B) 7.1 V
C) 50 V
D) 0.25 V
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Q1) A resistor with a resistance of 360 is in a series circuit with a capacitor of capacitance 7.3 × 10<sup>-6</sup> F. What capacitance must be placed in parallel with the original capacitance to change the capacitive time constant of the combination to three times its original value?
Q2) A combination of a 2.0- resistor in series with 4.0- resistor is connected in parallel with a 3.0- resistor. What is the equivalent resistance of this system?
A) 2.0
B) 3.0
C) 4.0
D) 9.0
Q3) As more resistors are added in series to a constant voltage source, the power supplied by the source A) increases. B) decreases.
C) does not change.
D) increases for a time and then starts to decrease.
Q4) What different resistances can be obtained by using two 2.0- resistors and one 4.0resistor? You must use all three of them in each possible combination.
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Q1) A long, straight wire carrying a current is placed along the y-axis. If the direction of the current is in the +y direction, what is the direction of the magnetic field due to this wire as you view it in such a way that the current is coming directly toward you?
A) clockwise, around the x-axis
B) counterclockwise, around the x-axis
C) counterclockwise, around the z-axis
D) counterclockwise, around the y-axis
E) clockwise, around the y-axis
Q2) A thin copper rod 1.0 m long has a mass of 0.050 kg and is in a magnetic field of 0.10
T. What minimum current in the rod is needed in order for the magnetic force to balance the weight of the rod?
A) 1.2 A
B) 2.5 A
C) 4.9 A
D) 9.8 A
Q3) A wire along the z-axis carries a current of 4.9 A in the +z direction. Find the magnitude and direction of the force exerted on a 3.3-cm long length of this wire by a uniform magnetic field pointing in the -x direction having a magnitude \(0.43 \mathrm {~T}\)
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Q1) If the wavelength of a photon is doubled, what happens to its energy?
A) It is reduced to one-half of its original value.
B) It stays the same.
C) It is doubled.
D) It is increased to four times its original value.
E) It is reduced to one-fourth of its original value.
Q2) A flat coil is wrapped with 200 turns of very thin wire on a square frame with sides 18 cm long. A uniform magnetic field is applied perpendicular to the plane of the coil. If the field changes uniformly from 0.50 T to 0.00 T in 8.0 s, find the emf induced in the coil.
A) 2.1 mV
B) 4.1 mV
C) 0.21 V
D) 0.41 V
Q3) As the temperature of a blackbody increases, what happens to the peak wavelength of the light it radiates?
A) It gets longer.
B) It gets shorter.
C) The wavelength is not affected by the temperature of the object.
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Q1) What is the self-inductance of an ideal solenoid that is 300 cm long with a cross-sectional area of 1.00 × 10<sup>-4</sup> m<sup>2</sup> and has 1000 turns of wire? ( <sub>0</sub> = 4 × 10<sup>-7</sup> T m/A)
A) 4.19 nH
B) 4.19 pH
C) 4.19 H
D) 41.9 nH
E) 41.9 µH
Q2) At what frequency will the capacitive reactance of a 0.010- F capacitor be 100 ?
A) 1.0 kHz
B) 16 kHz
C) 0.16 MHz
D) 0.31 MHz
Q3) You need an ideal transformer to reduce a voltage of 150 V in the primary circuit to 25 V in the secondary circuit. The primary circuit has 130 windings and the secondary circuit is completed through a 55- resistor. How many windings should the secondary circuit contain?
Q4) At what frequency does a 10- F capacitor have a reactance of 0.12 k ?
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Q1) Which of the following are basic postulates of special relativity? (There could be more than one correct choice.)
A) Nothing can travel faster than the speed of light.
B) No material object can be accelerated to the speed of light.
C) The speed of light is the same for all observers.
D) The laws of physics are the same in all reference frames.
E) The laws of physics are the same in all inertial reference frames.
Q2) A stretch of land is 12.5 km long on a map.
(a) What would be its length to an observer moving by, parallel to the stretch, at \(0.9500 \mathrm { c } ?\) (b) Which is the proper length for this stretch of land?
(c) How fast relative to Earth would the observer have to move for the land to appear 6.50 km long? Express your answer in terms of the speed of light.
Q3) As an electron slows down from 0.9980c to 0.5000c, how much momentum does it lose? (c = 3.0 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s, m<sub>electron</sub> = 9.11 × 10<sup>-31</sup> kg)
Q4) How fast would a rocket ship have to move past Earth to contract to half of its proper length as observed by an Earth-based physicist?
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Q1) What is the wavelength of a 6.32-eV photon? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s, h = 6.626 × 10<sup>-34</sup> J s, 1 eV = 1.60 × 10<sup>-19 </sup>J)
A) 197 nm
B) 167 nm
C) 216 nm
D) 234 nm
Q2) A proton that is moving freely has a wavelength of 0.600 pm. (m<sub>proton</sub> = 1.67 × 10<sup>-27</sup> kg, e = 1.60 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C, h = 6.626 × 10<sup>-34</sup> J s)
(a) What is its momentum?
(b) What is its speed?
(c) What potential difference would it have been accelerated through, starting from rest, to reach this speed?
Q3) When a photoelectric surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 437 nm, the stopping potential is measured to be 1.67 V. (1 eV = 1.60 × 10<sup>-19</sup> J, e = 1.60 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C, m<sub>electron</sub> = 9.11 × 10<sup>-31</sup> kg, h = 6.626 × 10<sup>-34</sup> J s)
(a) What is the work function of the metal, in eV?
(b) What is the maximum speed of the ejected electrons?
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Q1) For the ground state of the hydrogen atom, which of the following numbers represents the correct value of the magnetic quantum number?
A) -1
B) 0
C) 1
D) 2
E) -2
Q2) What is the ionization energy of the neutral hydrogen atom?
A) 27.2 eV
B) 13.6 eV
C) 6.8 eV
D) none of the given answers
Q3) Write out the electron configuration for the ground state of the phosphorus atom, which has 15 electrons.
Q4) What is the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series?
A) 328 nm
B) 365 nm
C) 456 nm
D) 656 nm
E) 820 nm

Page 31
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Q1) What are the possible charges of a quark (not an antiquark)?
A) -e, 0, e
B) -2/3 e, -1/3 e, +1/3 e, +2/3 e
C) -2/3 e, +1/3 e
D) -1/3 e, +2/3 e
E) -1/3 e, +1/3 e
Q2) What combination of quarks produces a neutron and what are the electric charges on these quarks, expressed in terms of e?
Q3) The half-life of tritium is 12.3 y. What is its mean life (time constant)?
Q4) Fermium-253 has a half-life of 3.00 days. If a sample of fermium originally has 7.37 × \(10^7\) nuclei, how long will it take for there to be only 3.36 × \(10^6\) fermium-253 nuclei left in this sample?
A) 2.75 days
B) 9.80 days
C) 13.4 days
D) 15.7 days
E) 58.6 days
Q5) A 1.0-mol sample of an isotope is decaying with a half-life of 28 y. After 61 y, how many moles of this isotope are left and what is its activity in Bq?
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