Fundamentals of Physical Therapy Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Physical Therapy introduces students to the core principles, concepts, and practices central to the field of physical therapy. This course covers the history and evolution of physical therapy as a healthcare profession, the role of physical therapists within interdisciplinary teams, and the foundational knowledge of human anatomy, physiology, and biomechanics. Students will explore various assessment techniques, therapeutic interventions, and modalities used in patient care, as well as key ethical and legal considerations. Emphasis is placed on developing communication, clinical reasoning, and critical thinking skills necessary for effective patient management and rehabilitation planning.
Recommended Textbook Pierson and Fairchilds Principles Techniques of Patient Care 5th Edition by Sheryl L. Fairchild
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13 Chapters
260 Verified Questions
260 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Preparation Patient Care Activities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which entity routinely surveys facilities and has standards that deal with organizational quality of care issues and the safety of the environment in which care is provided?
A) American Physical Therapy Association
B) Joint Commission
C) World Health Organization
D) Third-party payers
Answer: B
Q2) Which are examples of individually identifiable health information?
A) Hair style and eye color
B) Hand preference and leg dominance
C) Address and date of birth
D) All of the above
Answer: C
Q3) What hospital emergency code represents infant and child abduction?
A) Code blue
B) Code orange
C) Code gray
D) Amber alert
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Approaches to Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following precautions is not recommended in the treatment of a patient who is in protective isolation?
A) Apply protective clothing carefully and in the appropriate sequence.
B) Move and perform patient care quickly to reduce the amount of exposure to pathogens.
C) Do not enter the patient's room with protective clothing or equipment that has been worn to treat patients in another area of the hospital.
D) Remember to perform proper hand washing before applying and after removing protective clothing.
Answer: B
Q2) What is the recommended length of time for hand washing with ordinary soap and water?
A) 0-10 seconds
B) 10-15 seconds
C) 15-30 seconds
D) More than 30 seconds
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Assessment of Vital Signs
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patients would be expected to have the lowest pulse?
A) An athletic resting male 65 years of age
B) An exercising female 21 years of age
C) An anxious, resting female 21 years of age
D) A resting female 65 years of age, battling an infection
Answer: A
Q2) How should the arm be positioned when blood pressure is measured at the brachial artery?
A) Above the level of the heart
B) At the level of the heart
C) Below the level of the heart
D) Near the patient's chest
Answer: B
Q3) What is the normal resting pulse range for an adult?
A) 40-80 beats per minute
B) 60-100 beats per minute
C) 80-120 beats per minute
D) 100-140 beats per minute
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Body Mechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are compressive forces directed to intervertebral discs during lumbar lordosis?
A) Anteriorly
B) Posteriorly
C) Laterally
D) Superiorly
Q2) In an attempt to lift an object,which two measures are recommended for proper body mechanics?
A) Increasing your base of support, positioning your COG near the object's COG
B) Decreasing your base of support, positioning your COG near the object's COG
C) Increasing your base of support, positioning your COG far from the object's COG
D) Decreasing your base of support, positioning your COG far from the object's COG
Q3) At what level is the approximate center of gravity (COG)of a standing person?
A) The iliac crest
B) The navel
C) The first lumbar segment
D) The second sacral segment
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6
Chapter 5: Positioning and Draping
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Sample Questions
Q1) Concerning burned or grafted burn areas,what should be avoided?
A) Positions of comfort
B) Positions of mild stress or tension to the wound or graft
C) Frequent position changes
D) Active motion of the involved joints
Q2) Which position is most detrimental to a patient with a transfemoral amputation?
A) Prolonged trunk extension
B) Prolonged hip adduction
C) Prolonged hip extension
D) Prolonged hip flexion
Q3) Which positions of the involved lower extremity are most detrimental to a patient with hemiplegia?
A) Prolonged hip extension and internal rotation, and ankle dorsiflexion
B) Prolonged hip flexion and internal rotation, and knee extension
C) Prolonged hip flexion and external rotation, and ankle plantarflexion
D) Prolonged hip extension and external rotation, and ankle dorsiflexion
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Chapter 6: Basic Exercise: Passive and Active Range of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diagonal pattern involves hip flexion,adduction,and external rotation; ankle dorsiflexion and inversion; and toe extension?
A) D1 flexion of the lower extremity
B) D1 extension of the lower extremity
C) D2 flexion of the lower extremity
D) D2 extension of the lower extremity
Q2) What symptoms indicate a positive vertebral artery occlusion test?
A) Numbness or tingling of the hands
B) Dizziness, diplopia, or visual disturbances
C) Jaw pain and distal muscle weakness
D) Fever and difficulty breathing
Q3) Which type of muscle contraction describes a controlled and consistent speed of contraction?
A) Isotonic
B) Isometric
C) Isokinetic
D) None of the above
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Features and Activities of Wheelchairs
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should a patient using both upper extremities for wheelchair propulsion be taught to navigate up a particularly steep ramp or incline?
A) Facing forward, moving in a straight line
B) Facing backward, moving in a straight line
C) Facing forward, moving in a zigzag fashion
D) Facing backward, moving in a zigzag fashion
Q2) Which actions enable the user to produce the quickest right turn of the wheelchair?
A) Hold the left handrim, and push forward on the right handrim.
B) Pull back on the left handrim, and push forward on the right handrim.
C) Hold the right handrim, and pull back on the left handrim.
D) Push forward on the left handrim, and pull back on the right handrim.
Q3) Which of the following is not an advantage of a chair cushion?
A) Helps distribute pressure to reduce skin breakdown
B) Provides support for the pelvis
C) Adds comfort
D) Eliminates pressure to the ischial tuberosities
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Chapter 8: Transfer Activities
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Sample Questions
Q1) What level of assistance is used if a patient requires only verbal cues to perform an activity safely and within an acceptable time frame?
A) Standby assistance
B) Contact guarding
C) Minimal assistance
D) Moderate assistance
Q2) In transferring a patient with a recent total hip replacement from a chair to a bed,which motions should be avoided?
A) Adduction of the replaced hip beyond midline
B) Excessive internal or external rotation
C) Hip flexion beyond 60-90 degrees
D) All of the above
Q3) Which movement is recommended during the transfer of a patient with low back trauma or discomfort?
A) Segmental rolling
B) Logrolling
C) Full trunk flexion
D) Full trunk rotation
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10
Chapter 9: Assistive Devices, Patterns, and Activities
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Sample Questions
Q1) In determining proper walker height for a patient,where are the rear tips of the walker positioned?
A) Slightly ahead of the toes
B) Opposite the midportion of the feet
C) Next to the patient's heels
D) 2 inches behind the heels
Q2) What action should accompany the lowering of axillary crutches down from a curb?
A) Extension of the strongest hip
B) Extension of the strongest knee
C) Flexion of the strongest hip and knee
D) Extension of the trunk
Q3) At what level should the handgrip of a walker be placed?
A) The patient's fingertips
B) The patient's waist
C) The patient's olecranon process
D) The patient's wrist crease
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11
Chapter 10: Special Equipment and Patient Care
Environments
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Sample Questions
Q1) How often does a PCA system allow a patient to self-administer a dose of medication?
A) Every 2 minutes
B) Every 6 minutes
C) Every 30 minutes
D) Every hour
Q2) What can be used to continuously measure blood pressure or obtain blood samples without the need for repeated needle punctures?
A) A line
B) B line
C) C line
D) D line
Q3) Which medication is an anticoagulant?
A) Heparin
B) Warfarin
C) Aspirin
D) All of the above
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Basic Wound Care and Specialized Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the rule of nines,what percentage of the total body area is each upper extremity assigned?
A) 9 percent
B) 18 percent
C) 27 percent
D) 36 percent
Q2) What percentage tensile strength does scar tissue possess compared with the tissue that it replaces?
A) 50 percent
B) 80 percent
C) 100 percent
D) 125 percent
Q3) Which type of debridement uses an occlusive dressing in conjunction with self-produced enzymes?
A) Sharp
B) Mechanical
C) Chemical
D) Autolysis
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Chapter 12: Incidents and Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the proper procedure if you suspect a victim has become unresponsive due to asphyxiation (drowning)?
A) Call 911 and then begin CPR.
B) Call 911 and wait for emergency service personnel to arrive.
C) Initiate CPR for 2 minutes before calling 911.
D) Initiate CPT for 10 minutes before calling 911.
Q2) Which of the following are symptoms of heat exhaustion?
A) Dry skin
B) Slow, deep breathing
C) Nausea and headache
D) Convulsions
Q3) Which condition occurs most frequently when a person attempts to stand rapidly from a stooped,kneeling,recumbent,or sitting position?
A) Orthostatic hypotension
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Acidosis
D) Autonomic hyperreflexia
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Chapter 13: Americans With Disabilities Act and Environmental Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a wheelchair-accessible home,what is the minimum sidewalk width?
A) 30 inches
B) 32 inches
C) 36 inches
D) 40 inches
Q2) Which of the following is not an adaptive feature for an individual with a hearing deficit?
A) Text telephone
B) Closed caption for television
C) Computer or voice command technology
D) Amplified handset
Q3) For a wheelchair-accessible home,what is the minimum hall width?
A) 30 inches
B) 32 inches
C) 36 inches
D) 40 inches
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