Fundamentals of Physical Science
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Physical Science provides an introductory exploration of the basic concepts in physics and chemistry, alongside elements of earth and space sciences. This course emphasizes the scientific method, critical thinking, and problem-solving skills as students investigate topics such as motion, energy, matter, forces, atomic structure, chemical reactions, and the properties of materials. Through laboratory experiments and practical applications, students gain hands-on experience and develop a foundational understanding of the natural laws that govern our physical world. This course is designed to foster scientific literacy and prepare students for more advanced studies in science and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 13th Edition by James Shipman
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20 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Temperature and Heat
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the multiplication of 7.443 m times 8.00 m, the result should be reported with how many significant figures?
A) Two
B) One
C) Three
D) Four
E) Seven
Answer: C
Q2) Calculate the product of 3.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>7</sup> and 1.6 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>. Express the answer in standard powers-of-10 notation. Answer: 8 \(\times\) 10<sup>16</sup>
Q3) A quantitative observation that is the basis of scientific investigation is a(n) A) experiment.
B) measurement.
C) explanation.
D) number.
Answer: B
Q4) A set value for a fundamental quantity is called a(n) ______________ unit. Answer: standard
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Chapter 2: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) An object that is moving with an acceleration different from zero will always have a(n) ______________ velocity.
A) changing
B) increasing
C) constant
D) decreasing
Answer: A
Q2) A golfer hits a ball on a level fairway at an angle of 35° relative to the horizontal, and it lands on the green. Another golfer hits a ball with the same speed but at an angle of 55°, and it lands on the green by the other ball. Which statement is accurate for this situation?
A) One ball is in the air longer than the other.
B) One ball experiences a greater acceleration while in free flight.
C) One ball experiences a smaller acceleration while in free flight.
D) Two balls hit at the same speed but different angles will always land in the same location.
E) Two balls hit at the same speed but different angles can never land in the same location.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Optics and Wave Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the equation A = B/C, the A and C are said to be
proportional.
A) directly
B) inversely
C) not
D) exactly
Answer: B
Q2) If an object of mass 9 kg has a velocity of 7 m/s, what is its linear momentum?
A) 63 kg-m/s
B) 1.3 kg-m/s
C) 0.78 kg-m/s
D) 16 kg-m/s
E) cannot be determined
Answer: A
Q3) On which planet (other than Earth) have air bags been deployed?
A) Venus
B) Mars
C) Mercury
D) Saturn
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Electricity and Magnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following four objects has the least kinetic energy?
A) An object of mass m moving with speed 4v
B) An object of mass 3m moving with speed 2v
C) An object of mass 4m moving with speed v
D) An object of mass 2m moving with speed 3v
E) None of these; all four objects have the same kinetic energy.
Q2) Mechanical energy
A) is always the total energy of a system.
B) is the sum of the energies of motion and position.
C) is always conserved.
D) necessarily involves gravitational potential energy.
Q3) Which of the following sources of energy presents the fewest pollution problems under normal operating conditions?
A) Coal
B) Natural gas
C) Nuclear fission
D) Hydroelectric power
Q4) Besides fossil fuels, the only other significant commercial sources of energy are ______________ and ______________.
Q5) The two types of mechanical energy are ______________ and ______________.
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Chapter 5: Atomic Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a winter day the temperature drops from -15°C to -25°C overnight. If a pan sitting outside contains 0.50 kg of ice, how much heat is removed from the ice for this temperature change?
A) 0.25 kcal
B) 2.5 kcal
C) 10 kcal
D) 1 kcal
Q2) When heat is added to a closed system, it goes into A) work only.
B) entropy only.
C) internal energy only.
D) either (A) or (C) or both.
Q3) The amount of heat necessary to change 1 kg of a liquid into a gas at the same temperature is called the A) entropy.
B) boiling point.
C) latent heat of vaporization.
D) latent heat of fusion.
Q4) The second law of thermodynamics forbids a heat engine to have thermal efficiency of ______________.
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Chapter 6: Nuclear Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A wave is a propagation of ______________.
Q2) The frequency and the wavelength of a wave are ______________ proportional.
Q3) If a wave has a period of 0.100 sec, it has a frequency of
A) 1/10 Hz.
B) 3.2 Hz.
C) 100 Hz.
D) 10 Hz.
Q4) Sound is a(n)
A) longitudinal wave.
B) electromagnetic wave.
C) transverse wave.
D) standing wave.
Q5) How many times greater is the speed of red light (\(\lambda\)= 700 nm) than the speed of violet light (\(\lambda\)= 400 nm) in a vacuum?
Q6) A disturbance in particle motion parallel to the wave velocity is called a A) transverse wave.
B) acoustic wave.
C) standing wave.
D) longitudinal wave.
Q7) The loudness of a sound wave is determined by its ______________.
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Chapter 7: The Chemical Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) FM radio reception may be blocked by buildings because the wavelengths are too short to be ______________ around buildings.
Q2) A(n) ______________ consists of many narrow parallel slits very close together.
Q3) Total internal reflection occurs when the angle of incidence of the light is greater than the _________ angle.
Q4) An object is placed 10 cm to the left of a converging spherical lens. The lens has a focal length of f = 25 cm. What kind of image is formed and what is its orientation?
A) Real/Upright
B) Virtual/Upright
C) Virtual/Inverted
D) Real/Inverted
Q5) The photoreceptors responsible for "twilight" vision are called A) rods.
B) cylinders.
C) cones.
D) cans.
Q6) ______________ waves cannot be polarized.
Q7) Reflection from rough surfaces is called ______________ reflection.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Chemical Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) For electrical safety,
A) electrical shocks caused by 1 A of current are of no concern.
B) fuses or circuit breakers are wired in series in circuits.
C) fuses larger than the rated value can be placed in a circuit.
D) fuses and circuit breakers are wired in parallel in circuits.
Q2) A(n) ______________ is an elementary particle with a charge of +1.6 \(\times\)10<sup>-19</sup> coulomb.
Q3) The direction of the magnetic field of a bar magnet is A) in the direction a compass would point. B) in any direction.
C) away from the south pole.
D) toward the north pole.
Q4) A 10-\(\Omega\) resistor and a 20-\(\Omega\) resistor are connected in parallel, and this combination is connected in series to a 30-\(\Omega\) resistor. If the arrangement is hooked to a 12-V battery, how much current flows in the circuit?
Q5) A 20-\(\Omega\) resistor and a 30-\(\Omega\) resistor are wired in parallel and connected to a 9.0-V battery.a. How much current is drawn from the battery? b. How much power is dissipated in the circuit?
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Chapter 9: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A useful instrument that makes use of the wavelike properties of electrons is the electron ______________.
Q2) According to Planck's hypothesis, the energy of an oscillator is directly proportional to its A) amplitude.
B) wavelength.
C) momentum.
D) frequency.
Q3) According to the Bohr theory, the probability of finding a hydrogen atom's ground-state electron 0.053 nm from the proton is
A) low, but not zero.
B) 100%.
C) zero.
D) high, but not 100%.
Q4) An electron is in its lowest energy level when A) it is free of nuclear forces.
B) its momentum is zero.
C) it is in its ground state.
D) none of these.
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Chapter 10: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radioactive decay was discovered in 1896 by A) Ernest Rutherford.
B) Niels Bohr.
C) Henri Becquerel.
D) Marie and Pierre Curie.
Q2) Which of the following four elements is a neutron-absorbing material used in controlling nuclear reactors?
A) Gold
B) Boron
C) Iron
D) Carbon
Q3) No nuclide with an atomic number greater than ______________ is stable.
Q4) The process of obtaining energy by splitting a large nucleus is called A) nucleogenesis.
B) fusion.
C) bombardment.
D) fission.
Q5) The number of neutrons in a triton is ______________.
Q6) The symbol for the element whose atoms contain 28 protons is ______________.
Q7) The diameter of the average nucleus is about ______________ m.
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Chapter 11: Place and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major credit for the development of the periodic table goes to A) Berzelius.
B) Lavoisier.
C) Boyle.
D) Mendeleev.
Q2) Sodium is an example of
A) A compound
B) A solution
C) An alloy
D) An element
Q3) When the atoms of two or more elements react chemically, they usually join together to form
A) isotopes.
B) new elements.
C) molecules.
D) isomers.
Q4) The electrons in the outermost shell are called ______________ electrons.
Q5) Group ______________A elements have two valence electrons.
Q6) A(n) ______________ is a substance composed of two or more elements chemically combined in a definite, fixed proportion by mass.
Page 13
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Chapter 13: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Balance the chemical equation: PCl<sub>5</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O \(\to\)H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> + HCl
Q2) Which of the following does not take place in a chemical reaction?
A) New substances are formed.
B) Neutrons are released.
C) Energy is released or absorbed.
D) Reactants disappear.
Q3) How many atoms of oxygen are contained in 44 g of carbon dioxide, CO<sub>2</sub>?
A) 3.01 \(\times\) 10<sup>23</sup>
B) 12.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>23</sup>
C) 6.02 \(\times\) 10<sup>23</sup>
D) None of these
Q4) The equation 4H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub> \(\to\) 4H<sub>2</sub>O + 2O<sub>2</sub> is not appropriately written because A) oxygen is not diatomic.
B) fractional coefficients are not generally used.
C) the number of atoms of each element on each side is not the same.
D) the simplest set of coefficients has not been used.
Q5) The substances formed in a chemical reaction are called the ______________.
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Chapter 15: Moons and Small Solar System Bodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Six months of daylight at the North Pole begins when the Sun is at the A) winter solstice.
B) summer solstice.
C) autumnal equinox.
D) vernal equinox.
Q2) When one travels east while passing over a time zone boundary (ignoring daylight savings time issues),
A) the date is decreased one day.
B) the time is decreased one hour.
C) the time is advanced one hour.
D) the date is advanced one day.
E) none of these occurs.
Q3) A line of equal longitude is called a A) meridian.
B) zone.
C) circle.
D) parallel.
Q4) The elapsed time between two successive crossings of the same meridian by the Sun is known as the ______________ solar day.
Q5) The flat, distorted maps of the world are _____________.
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Chapter 16: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kepler's second law of planetary motion is known as the law of A) ellipses.
B) equal areas.
C) harmonic periods.
D) gravitation.
Q2) Kepler's second law of planetary motion gives a relationship concerning equal ______________ in equal periods of time.
Q3) Other planetary systems are detected by a "wobbling" of the star as a consequence of ______________ effects of a planet.
Q4) The surface of the terrestrial planet ______________ cannot be seen from Earth.
Q5) The most distant planet that can be seen with the unaided eye is ______________.
Q6) Halley's comet has a sidereal period of 76.2 years. Determine the value of the semimajor axis of its orbit. (Use Kepler's third law.)
Q7) Which of the following planets can be in opposition?
A) Mercury
B) Venus
C) Earth
D) Neptune
Q8) The Great Red Spot is a feature of ______________.
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Chapter 17: The Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Saturn's moon named ______________ is the second largest moon in the solar system.
Q2) The Moon
A) revolves about Earth from west to east.
B) has a day equal to 29.5 Earth days.
C) has an elliptical orbit about Earth.
D) all of these.
Q3) ______________ is the only moon in the solar system to have retrograde motion.
A) Ganymede
B) Europa
C) Callisto
D) Titan
E) Triton
Q4) A huge bull's-eye formation is a distinctive feature of Jupiter's moon
______________.
Q5) As comets approach and move around the Sun, the coma and the tail ______________ in size.
Q6) The local solar time at 75°W is 12:00 noon. What is the longitude of an observer who sees the full moon on her meridian at this time?
Q7) The highest tides are called ______________ tides.
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Chapter 19: Atmospheric Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fraction of incident light that a body reflects is known as its A) Rayleigh scattering.
B) insolation.
C) albedo.
D) humidity.
Q2) A line drawn through locations of equal atmospheric pressure is a(n) A) equipress.
B) anemometer.
C) wind vane.
D) isobar.
Q3) The absolute moisture content of the air is 7.7 g/ft<sup>3</sup> on a day when the air temperature is 75°F. What is the relative humidity?
Q4) The atmospheric division that lies directly above the stratosphere is the ______________.
Q5) The ______________ lies below the stratosphere.
Q6) The velocity-dependent force that produces air motion and is associated with Earth's rotation is called the ______________.
Q7) The ozone layer absorbs ______________ radiation.
Q8) Stratocumulus clouds belong to the ______________ cloud family.
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Chapter 21: Structural Geology and Plate Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seismic waves that travel through our planet are called ______________ waves.
A) Earth
B) planet
C) body
D) ground
Q2) What type of forces result in strike-slip faulting?
A) Expansive
B) Compressional
C) Parallel
D) Gravitational
Q3) A(n) ______________ fault occurs as the result of compressional forces.
Q4) A(n) ______________ ridge system stretches through the major oceans of the world.
Q5) When an earthquake occurs, the point of initial energy release is called the earthquake's ______________.
A) epicenter
B) fault line
C) focus
D) none of the above
Q6) Longitudinal seismic body waves are known by the letter ______________.
Page 19
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Chapter 22: Minerals Rocks and Volcanoes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brilliancy of a gem is a function of its index of ______________.
Q2) If iron floats in liquid mercury, then the specific gravity of iron is A) less than that of mercury. B) greater than that of mercury. C) about equal to that of mercury. D) in no way related to that of mercury.
Q3) The scientist ______________ is generally regarded as "the father of geology."
Q4) A mineral that has a vitreous luster looks A) glassy. B) metallic. C) earthy. D) pearly.
Q5) A(n) ______________ is the surface expression of magma that originates in the asthenosphere and deeper.
Q6) Orthoclase and plagioclase are the two main types of A) silica. B) feldspars. C) calcite. D) sulfides.
Q7) Laccoliths and sills are examples of ______________ plutons.
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Chapter 23: Surface Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Greenland and Antarctica are covered with glacial ice sheets called A) valley glaciers.
B) mountain glaciers.
C) continental glaciers.
D) none of the above.
Q2) A(n) ______________ glacier is one in which a valley floor is covered with glacial ice.
Q3) A depression on the land surface caused by the collapse of a cavern is called A) a sinkhole.
B) a shrink pit.
C) a culvert.
D) none of the above.
Q4) What is the largest ocean on Earth?
A) Atlantic
B) Indian
C) Antarctic
D) Mediterranean
E) Pacific
Q5) The most important climatic factors that affect the rate of chemical weathering are heat and ______________.
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Chapter 24: Geologic Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Miocene is a(n) A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
Q2) A group of eras are called a(n) A) eon.
B) period.
C) millennia.
D) epoch.
Q3) A dike that intrudes a bed of sedimentary rock is ______________ than the sedimentary rock.
Q4) The hollow depression left when a shell or bone is dissolved completely out of a rock is called a(n) ______________.
Q5) The oldest era in the Phanerozoic eon is the ______________ era.
Q6) A number of epochs is called a(n) A) eon.
B) period.
C) millennia.
D) era.
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