Fundamentals of Pharmacy Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Pharmacy introduces students to the basic principles and practices of the pharmacy profession, covering topics such as the history of pharmacy, roles and responsibilities of pharmacists, drug classifications, dosage forms, and routes of administration. The course familiarizes learners with essential pharmaceutical terminology, pharmacy calculations, and regulatory frameworks that govern the safe and effective use of medications. Emphasis is placed on foundational knowledge in pharmacology, compounding, dispensing procedures, and patient care, preparing students for more advanced studies and practical applications in the field of pharmacy.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Pharmacy Technicians 2nd Edition by Kathy Moscou RPh MPH PhD candidate
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43 Chapters
1202 Verified Questions
1202 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Pharmacology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA)of 2005 help deter the illegal manufacture of synthetic drugs?
A)It has taken all ingredients that could be used to make illegal drugs off the market.
B)It helps regulate controlled substances by placing them in various schedules based on abuse potential.
C)It provides a provision to have certain products placed behind the counters out of general public reach.
D)It has helped health care workers easily identify controlled substances by requiring identifying symbols on each of the drug labels.
Answer: C
Q2) Generic drugs are always less expensive than the corresponding brand name drug. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Erythropoietin is an example of a biopharmaceutical. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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3
Chapter 2: Principles of Pharmacology
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies indicate no risk to animal fetus;information in humans is not available.
A)Category A
B)Category B
C)Category C
D)Category D
E)Category X
Answer: B
Q2) The ability of a drug to diffuse across the cell membrane is dependent upon _____ of the drug and the _____ of the body fluid in which it is dissolved.
A)properties,actions
B)pH,actions
C)properties,pH
D)strength,health
Answer: C
Q3) What could be a benefit of a nonionized drug when being eliminated?
A)The liver would not be able to release the necessary metabolizing enzymes.
B)It would be reabsorbed into circulation to prolong its effects.
C)It would be easily eliminated from circulation through the urine.
D)It would not be subject to the "first-pass effect."
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is naloxone considered a pure antagonist?
A)In the presence of a high concentration,it behaves like a pure antagonist.
B)It binds to an alternative site on the same receptor site as the agonist.
C)It reverses the effect of the receptor by occupying the receptor site and preventing another drug from binding.
D)It has an affinity at the receptor site but produces an opposite action.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following drug doses could be described as the most potent?
A)1000 mg per dose
B)800 mg per dose
C)600 mg per dose
D)400 mg per dose
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following drug doses would be described as the least potent?
A)100 mg per dose
B)80 mg per dose
C)60 mg per dose
D)40 mg per dose
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Drug Interactions and Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dispensing bupropion to a patient with seizures
A)Error of omission
B)Error of commission
C)Miscommunication error
D)Dispensing error
E)Administration error
Q2) What could be done to help reduce medication errors due to illegible handwriting?
A)Insist prescribers take a handwriting lesson to reduce "chicken scratch" prescriptions.
B)Ask each patient dropping off a prescription what the doctor has prescribed.
C)Allow for electronic prescriptions to be filled at your pharmacy.
D)Enforce prescribing regulations at your pharmacy.
Q3) Additive effects may occur when two drugs are contraindicated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Drug interactions may influence the elimination of drugs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Treatment of Anxiety
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antidepressants is additionally indicated to treat social phobia,but at an increased dose?
A)Clomipramine
B)Fluoxetine
C)Doxepin
D)Sertraline
Q2) _____ is potentially fatal and produces symptoms of confusion,agitation,diarrhea,tremors,increased blood pressure,and seizures.
A)Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
B)Serotonin syndrome
C)GABA inhibition syndrome
D)NE overload
Q3) hydroxyzine HCl
A)Xanax
B)Valium
C)BuSpar
D)Atarax
E)Anafranil
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Chapter 6: Treatment of Depression
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Sample Questions
Q1) When heart disease is present,which of the following drugs should be prescribed to allow for less cardiotoxic effects?
A)Paroxetine
B)Amitriptyline
C)Nortriptyline
D)Imipramine
Q2) Most of the drugs currently indicated for the treatment of bipolar disorder are listed in which U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)pregnancy category?
A)Category A
B)Category B
C)Category C
D)Category D
Q3) Which statement is not true about lithium?
A)It has a narrow therapeutic index.
B)It absorbed in the gastrointestinal (GI)tract.
C)It has a slow onset of action.
D)It has a t 1/2 of 24 hours.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Treatment of Schizophrenia and Psychoses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be labeled with a black box warning because use in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis may increase risk of death?
A)Donepezil
B)Rivastigmine
C)Lurasidone
D)Galantamine
Q2) Which of the following is thought to influence the development of schizophrenia?
A)Parkinson's disease
B)Drug abuse
C)Dementia
D)Bipolar disorder
Q3) Loxapine
A)Risperdal
B)Seroquel
C)Geodon
D)Loxitane
E)Clozaril
Q4) Schizophrenia does not run in families.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Treatment of Parkinsons Disease and Huntingtons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exposure to _____ is an associated environmental cause in the development of Parkinson's disease.
A)syphilis
B)byproducts of illegally synthesized drugs
C)pesticides
D)chromosome 4 gene
Q2) After taking only the prescribed regimen of Sinemet (levodopa/carbidopa)for Parkinson's disease,Patient X has decided to discuss other drug treatment options with her physician to help lessen the excessive finger movements she has been experiencing.To help reduce the excessive finger movements,the physician may choose to _____.
A)add bromocriptine as an adjunct to the patient's current drug therapy
B)add trihexyphenidyl as an adjunct to the current drug therapy
C)add ropinirole as an adjunct to the current therapy
D)advise Patient X to avoid wine and other alcoholic beverages containing yeast
Q3) Which of the following would be used to treat Huntington's disease?
A)Benztropine
B)Selegiline
C)Haloperidol
D)Pramipexole
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common side effects for phenytoin and fosphenytoin include all of the following except _____.
A)sedation
B)slowed thinking
C)nausea and vomiting
D)improved memory
Q2) Which of the following auxiliary labels should be placed on a prescription for gabapentin because of decreased absorption of the drug when taken together?
A)Do not take with grapefruit juice.
B)Do not take with antacids.
C)Do not take with a fatty meal.
D)Do not take with food.
Q3) Explain why the auxiliary label "Protect from light and moisture" should be placed on a prescription for carbamazepine.
A)It is inactivated by moisture.
B)Light makes the drug ineffective.
C)Light causes increased photosensitivity.
D)Potency is decreased when the drug is exposed to moisture.
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Chapter 10: Treatment of Pain and Migraine Headache
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is a multimodal approach to pain management recommended?
A)Pain cannot always be pinpointed;therefore,it is better to treat neuropathic and nociceptive pain at the same time.
B)Pain medications cause many side effects,so other drug therapies are necessary to treat the side effects in order to treat the pain.
C)Untreated pain may affect other systems in the body,so other treatment may be necessary as a supportive measure.
D)Some pain may be exaggerated by patients,so counseling should be sought out to determine if the pain is as bad as they think it is.
Q2) Mixed agonists/antagonists
A)Buprenorphine
B)Naltrexone
C)Meperidine
D)Aspirin
E)Naproxen
Q3) A tension headache may last up to 7 days when left untreated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Treatment of Alzheimers Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What role do the CLU and CRI genes play in the development of Alzheimer's disease?
A)They allow for transmission through tangles in the brain.
B)They help clear plaques out of the brain.
C)They allow acetylcholine (Ach)to bind to receptors in the brain.
D)They prevent the onset of Alzheimer's disease.
Q2) Which drug may slow the progression of Alzheimer's disease if administered early enough?
A)Memantine
B)Donepezil
C)Galantamine
D)Rivastigmine
Q3) Aricept
A)Memantine
B)Donepezil
C)Rivastigmine
D)Galantamine
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Chapter 12: Treatment of Sleep Disorders and
Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vyvanse
A)Temazepam
B)Eszopiclone
C)Modafinil
D)Methylphenidate
E)Lisdexamfetamine
Q2) Why is sunlight an important factor to the sleep-wake cycle?
A)Our bodies have become accustomed to waking up when the sun rises.
B)The lack of sunlight causes our bodies to stop the production of melatonin,which allows us to become sleepy.
C)Our body sends signals to the brain that reduce our sleepiness when it registers sunlight.
D)Our circadian rhythm is preprogrammed to operate on a 24-hour clock so it doesn't matter when the sun is out;our body will sleep when it's used to sleeping.
Q3) Of the sleep disorders,narcolepsy is the most common.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Neuromuscular Blockade
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Sample Questions
Q1) Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs
A)Neostigmine
B)Rocuronium
C)Succinylcholine
Q2) What drugs should be administered with neuromuscular blocking drugs during surgery?
A)Antianxiety
B)Analgesics
C)Central nervous system depressants
D)Beta blockers
Q3) The process of neuromuscular transmission begins with the release of _____ from vesicles located in the motor neuron endplate.
A)acetylcholine (ACh)
B)dopamine (DA)
C)norepinephrine (NE)
D)g-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Q4) Nonpolarizing neuromuscular drugs
A)Neostigmine
B)Rocuronium
C)Succinylcholine
15
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Chapter 14: Treatment of Muscle Spasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) When carisoprodol is combined with codeine,the combination makes it a control Schedule _____ substance.
A)II
B)III
C)IV
D)V
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the four phases to the development of spasticity?
A)Decreased muscle contractility
B)Weak muscle tone and decreased reflex activity
C)Decreased reflex excitability
D)Contracted muscles
Q3) Drugs used in the treatment of spasticity are grouped according to _____.
A)when they were discovered
B)their generic name
C)their ability to block ACh
D)their site of action
Q4) Clonus is voluntary rhythmic contractions of muscles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Treatment of Autoimmune Diseases That Affect
the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In myasthenia gravis,the body attacks and destroys receptor sites in the neuromuscular junction that bind _____.
A)dopamine (DA)
B)norepinephrine (NE)
C)acetylcholine (ACh)
D)g-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Q2) Anakinra
A)Interleukin antagonist
B)NSAID
C)TNF inhibitor
D)Antimalarial
E)Immunosuppressive
F)Glucocorticoid
Q3) Celecoxib
A)Interleukin antagonist
B)NSAID
C)TNF inhibitor
D)Antimalarial
E)Immunosuppressive
F)Glucocorticoid
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Chapter 16: Treatment of Osteoporosis and Pagets Disease
of the Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reclast
A)Raloxifene
B)Etidronate
C)Alendronate
D)Zoledronic acid
E)Pamidronate
Q2) Fosamax
A)Raloxifene
B)Etidronate
C)Alendronate
D)Zoledronic acid
E)Pamidronate
Q3) Calcium _____ is most absorbable and easiest to tolerate.
A)carbonate
B)citrate
C)gluconate
D)chloride
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Treatment of Hyperuricemia and Gout
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can hyperuricemia cause?
A)Liver disease
B)Kidney disease
C)Muscle pain
D)Bladder infections
Q2) When would colchicine be used to treat gout?
A)When gout is obesity induced
B)When hypertension is the main cause of gout
C)To prevent symptoms of chronic gout
D)As a first line of treatment for gout
Q3) Which of the following can increase the risk of an acute gout attack?
A)Beer
B)Yogurt
C)Aged cheese
D)Low-fat milk
Q4) _____ can be used to treat drug-induced gout.
A)Colchicine
B)Prelone
C)Allopurinol
D)Probenecid
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Treatment of Glaucoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brimonidine
A)Azopt
B)Trusopt
C)Xalatan
D)Alphagan
E)Timoptic
Q2) Why would betaxolol be preferential for glaucoma treatment in patients who also have asthma?
A)It preferentially binds b -receptor sites and is less likely to cause bronchoconstriction.
B)It blocks only b -receptors and leaves asthma receptors unchanged.
C)It attaches to receptors that cause bronchodilation,increasing the effects asthma therapy.
D)It can be used as dual therapy because it will bind to the same receptors that asthma medication binds to.
Q3) Administration of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can decrease IOP.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Treatment of Disorders of the Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) What produces BPPV?
A)Otoliths that block the middle ear,causing fluid buildup
B)Shifting of dislodged calcium carbonate crystals in the inner ear
C)Formation of large calcium crystals,which block the inner ear
D)Buildup of fluid in the inner ear
Q2) What role does fluoride play in otosclerosis?
A)It allows for proper drainage of fluid in the ear.
B)It increases bone density by increasing bone mineralization.
C)It helps decrease inflammation in the ear,allowing fluids to drain.
D)It reduces the formation of otoliths,reducing the chances of vertigo.
Q3) Which drug can be used but is controversial for the treatment of Ménière's disease because of possible ototoxicity?
A)Acetic acid solution
B)Diphenhydramine
C)Scopolamine
D)Gentamicin
Q4) It is okay to use a Q-tip to remove earwax from the ear canal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Treatment of Ophthalmic and Otic Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Azasite
A)Ganciclovir
B)Albendazole
C)Gatifloxacin
D)Ofloxacin otic
E)Azithromycin ophthalmic
Q2) Why is a "watchful waiting" approach taken for otitis media in children younger than 2 years?
A)For a nonsevere case of otitis media,the problem may take care of itself so antibiotics will not be prescribed to help reduce the risk of bacterial resistance.
B)Not many antibiotics are available to help treat otitis media in children younger than 2 years,so they are reserved for severe cases.
C)The liver in children younger than 2 years is not fully developed to metabolize antibiotics,so antibiotics are reserved for treatment only if necessary.
D)Children younger than 2 years do not like to take antibiotics and may not receive the full dose necessary,thus increasing bacterial resistance;a "watchful wait" is used to make sure they really need an antibiotic.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Treatment of Angina
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nitrate
A)Nadolol
B)Isosorbide dinitrate
C)Verapamil
Q2) How should nitroglycerin not be dispensed to the patient?
A)Properly repackaged in a prescription vial
B)In its original container
C)With a nonsafety cap
D)In an amber glass bottle
Q3) Patients should be instructed to remove a transdermal nitroglycerin patch after _____ hours.
A)5 to 6
B)10 to 12
C)12 to 15
D)15 to 20
Q4) b-Adrenergic blockers are the oldest class of drugs used to treat angina.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lisinopril
A)Loop diuretic
B)ACE inhibitor
C)Thiazide diuretic
D)Angiotensin II receptor antagonist
E)Aldosterone receptor blocker
Q2) Chlorthalidone
A)Loop diuretic
B)ACE inhibitor
C)Thiazide diuretic
D)Angiotensin II receptor antagonist
E)Aldosterone receptor blocker
Q3) Which of the following could also be used to treat ischemic heart disease because of its ability to reduce LDL cholesterol levels?
A)Prazosin
B)Hydralazine
C)Nifedipine
D)Labetalol
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Chapter 23: Treatment of Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcium channel blockers (CCBs)may be used in the treatment of ______ heart failure because they lower blood pressure and treat ischemia.
A)systolic
B)left-sided
C)diastolic
D)atrial heart failure
Q2) Which of the following drugs can worsen edema and interfere with the effect of drugs used to treat heart failure?
A)Ibuprofen
B)Antibiotics
C)Carisoprodol
D)Oral contraceptives
Q3) The oldest class of drugs used for heart failure is _____.
A)b-adrenergic blockers
B)cardiac glycosides
C)diuretics
D)anticoagulants
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Myocardial Infarction and Stroke
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plavix
A)Fenofibrate
B)Enoxaparin
C)Simvastatin
D)Clopidogrel
E)Ezetimibe
Q2) Why would increasing high-density lipoproteins (HDL)levels be beneficial when treating atherosclerosis?
A)HDL acts as an antioxidant,reducing inflammation.
B)HDL carries unsaturated fats in the blood.
C)HDL increases low-density lipoprotein (LDL)oxidation.
D)HDL helps digest trans fats and carries them to the liver to be eliminated.
Q3) Tricor
A)Fenofibrate
B)Enoxaparin
C)Simvastatin
D)Clopidogrel
E)Ezetimibe
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Arrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) This arrhythmia occurs in areas of the heart that lie above the ventricles.
A)Ventricular fibrillation
B)Ventricular tachycardia
C)Atrial fibrillation
D)Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)
Q2) Class IA agent
A)Propranolol
B)Disopyramide
C)Amiodarone
D)Lidocaine
E)Verapamil
F)Propafenone
Q3) Class IB agent
A)Propranolol
B)Disopyramide
C)Amiodarone
D)Lidocaine
E)Verapamil
F)Propafenone
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Treatment of Gastroesophageal Reflux
Disease, Laryngopharyngeal Reflux, and Peptic Ulcer
Disease
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Q1) What is the main indication of misoprostol?
A)Prevention of NSAID-induced peptic ulcers
B)Maintenance of NSAID-induced peptic ulcers
C)Prevention of duodenal ulcers
D)Maintenance of duodenal ulcers
Q2) For which of the following GI disease states are antimicrobials prescribed?
A)GERD
B)LPR
C)PUD
D)PID
Q3) Why is it important to include the warning label "Avoid alcohol" on a prescription for GERD and PUD?
A)Alcohol stimulates stomach acid production,irritating an existing ulcer.
B)Alcohol is a gastric irritant.
C)Alcohol interferes with the elimination of drugs used for GERD and PUD.
D)Alcohol inhibits protective enzymes from forming,causing additional ulcers.
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Chapter 27: Treatment of Irritable Bowel Syndrome,
ulcerative Colitis, and Crohns Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an opioid antidiarrheal?
A)Difenoxin
B)Diphenoxylate
C)Loperamide
D)Dicyclomine
Q2) Which of the following anticholinergics is used to treat IBS?
A)Dyclonine
B)Diphenhydramine
C)Dicyclomine
D)Doxycycline
Q3) Which drug is a serotonin receptor antagonist used to control diarrhea caused by severe IBS?
A)Infliximab
B)Lomotil
C)Alosetron
D)Tegaserod
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29
Chapter 28: Treatment of Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following explains how smoking can affect the effectiveness of theophylline?
A)Smoking decreases the half-life of theophylline by up to 50%,decreasing its effectiveness.
B)Smoking increases the effectiveness of theophylline and should be dosed accordingly for smokers.
C)Smoking increases the chances for adverse reactions to occur when taking theophylline.
D)Smoking further aggravates the condition theophylline is treating,preventing the drug from working.
Q2) Which is the most prescribed rescue bronchodilator for asthma?
A)Terbutaline
B)Albuterol
C)Metaproterenol
D)Salmeterol
Q3) Which one of the following do people with COPD not exhibit?
A)Chronic persistent cough
B)Wheezing
C)Decreased sputum
D)Increased sputum
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Treatment of Allergies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a condition triggered by allergic rhinitis?
A)Nasal itching
B)Fever
C)Sneezing
D)Runny nose
Q2) Urticaria is treated by which of the following pharmacological agents?
A)Chlorpheniramine
B)Cimetidine
C)Allergy shot
D)Cromolyn sodium
Q3) Brompheniramine
A)Alkylamines
B)Piperidines
C)Piperazines
D)Ethanolamines
E)Phthalazinone
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Chapter 30: Treatment of Prostate Disease and Erectile Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proscar
A)Terazosin
B)Finasteride
C)Tamsulosin
D)Vardenafil
E)Alprostadil
Q2) Which of the following explains why alpha blockers would be useful for drug therapy of BPH?
A)Alpha blockers antagonize alpha receptors,causing smooth muscle of the prostate and bladder to relax,improving urine flow.
B)Administration of alpha blockers causes prostate muscle to constrict,allowing for easier control of the flow of urine.
C)Alpha blockers act as agonists on alpha receptors,causing smooth muscle relaxation,which improves urethral resistance.
D)Alpha blockers block the normal alpha response,constricting urethral resistance,which allows better control over the flow of urine.
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Chapter 31: Treatment of Fluid and Electrolyte Disorders
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be helpful in hypotensive patients?
A)Hypotonic fluids
B)Isotonic fluids
C)Hypertonic fluids
D)Serotonic fluids
Q2) Condition in which the serum potassium level is above 5.5 mEq/L
A)Hypocalcemia
B)Hypomagnesemia
C)Hyperchloremia
D)Hyponatremia
E)Hyperkalemia
Q3) Which of the following could be used to treat hypernatremia?
A)Administration of salt tablets
B)Administration of hypotonic solution such as 0.45% NaCl (or 1/2 NS)
C)Administration of IV saline solution 3% sodium
D)Water restriction
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Chapter 32: Treatment of Thyroid Disorders
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thyroid levels are tightly controlled by the _____ feedback loop.
A)negative
B)positive
C)neurotransmitter
D)quantitative
Q2) Which of the following is the desiccated strength of 30 mg?
A)gr 3/4
B)gr 1
C)gr 1/4
D)gr 1/2
Q3) Which of the following is a replacement for naturally occurring thyroxine when treating hypothyroidism?
A)Levothyroxine
B)Tetraiodothyronine
C)Liotrix
D)Triiodothyronine
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34
Chapter 33: Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Levemir
A)Repaglinide
B)Sitagliptin
C)Insulin glargine
D)Pioglitazone
E)Insulin detemir
Q2) When should Humalog be injected?
A)5 to 15 minutes before eating
B)In the morning
C)At bedtime
D)Mid-afternoon
Q3) A blood glucose level between 140 and 199 mg/dL after a 2-hour postprandial glucose tolerance test may indicate _____.
A)prediabetes
B)type 1 diabetes
C)type 2 diabetes
D)gestational diabetes
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35
Chapter 34: Drugs That Affect the Reproductive System
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral contraceptives (OCs)are commonly referred to as "the pill."
A)True
B)False
Q2) Oil-based products should not be used with latex diaphragms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bromocriptine
A)Treats infertility
B)Treats amenorrhea
C)EC
D)Treats prostate cancer,advanced breast cancer
E)Treats endometriosis and fibrocystic disease
F)Birth control patch
Q4) Which types of condoms are easier to break and more expensive?
A)Polyurethane
B)Latex
C)Lambskin
D)All of the above
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Bacterial Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ would be prescribed for the treatment of tuberculosis (TB).
A)Isoniazid
B)Metronidazole
C)Tetracycline
D)Ciprofloxacin
Q2) Infectious disease is no longer a leading cause of morbidity or mortality throughout the world.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient in the process of cleaning out her medicine cabinet found an old prescription vial of tetracycline antibiotic that expired 3 months earlier.She calls the pharmacy and asks if the medication is still good to use even though expired.What advice should she be given?
A)Outdated tetracycline becomes toxic;discard it.
B)Call your physician to find out what to do.
C)The drug is still good for 6 months after the expiration date.
D)Both B and C are correct.
Q4) Multidrug resistance is only a problem in the hospital setting.
A)True
B)False
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Treatment of Viral Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interferons are classified as antiviral agents.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ would be prescribed for the treatment of H1N1 and H3N3 strains of influenza,but some strains may be resistant.
A)Rimantadine
B)Oseltamivir
C)Penciclovir
D)Telbivudine
Q3) Antivirals are not virucidal;they are virustatic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antiretroviral therapy is a life-long commitment and requires strict adherence to treatment regimens.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Antiviral medications are effective against all viruses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Treatment of Cancers
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is associated with causing cancer of the cervix.
A)EBV
B)HPV
C)HIV
D)HBV
Q2) The most treatable form of skin cancer is _____.
A)melanoma
B)dermatome
C)Kaposi's sarcoma
D)nonmelanoma
Q3) _____ can be used to treat metastatic breast cancer in postmenopausal women.
A)Bleomycin
B)Toremifene
C)Carboplatin
D)Cisplatin
Q4) _____ is associated with causing stomach cancer.
A)H.pylori
B)Staphylococcus
C)E.coli
D)C.difficile
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Chapter 38: Vaccines, Immunomodulators, and
Immunosuppressants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Zenapax
A)Mycophenolate mofetil
B)Pimecrolimus
C)Tacrolimus
D)Daclizumab
E)Cyclosporine
Q2) The flu vaccine must be reformulated every _____.
A)6 months
B)year
C)24 months
D)5 years
Q3) Immunosuppressants are used for all of the following disease states except _____.
A)multiple sclerosis (MS)
B)muscular dystrophy (MD)
C)rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
D)systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
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Chapter 39: Treatment of Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tinea pedis is a common fungal infection that affects only athletes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which drug would be best to treat onychomycosis?
A)Clotrimazole vaginal tablet
B)Terbinafine oral tablet
C)Tolnaftate spray
D)Butenafine cream
Q3) How do the imidazole and triazole class of drugs work to fight off fungal infections?
A)Breaks down ergosterol,an essential part of the fungal cell membrane
B)Interferes with ergosterol,inhibiting the synthesis of the fungal cell membrane
C)Blocks the enzymes needed for the synthesis of fungal cellular contents
D)Destroys the alkaloid necessary for cell membrane synthesis
Q4) Which of the following drugs to treat fungal infections requires a prescription?
A)Terconazole
B)Butoconazole
C)Ketoconazole
D)Miconazole
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Chapter 40: Treatment of Decubitus Ulcers and Burns
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decubitus ulcers and burn wounds are completely different in their course of injury.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Decubitus ulcers and other wound types are classified according to the _____ of the wound.
A)severity
B)diameter
C)color
D)location
Q3) Why is papain useful for bulk débridement?
A)It acts as a bactericidal in any pH.
B)It has a broad pH,so it can help better break down dead skin.
C)It keeps the skin hydrated so it can heal itself.
D)It works effectively in a narrow pH,so it can better target débridement.
Q4) Which drug treatment for burns acts by destroying microbial protein and DNA?
A)Povidone-iodine
B)Bacitracin
C)Silver nitrate
D)Sulfur sulfadiazine
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Chapter 41: Treatment of Acne
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Sample Questions
Q1) A large,painful,solid lesion that is lodged deep within the skin is termed a _____.
A)papule
B)nodule
C)pustule
D)cyst
Q2) Which of the following topical antibiotics can help reduce inflammation caused by acne?
A)Tetracycline
B)Benzoyl peroxide
C)Clindamycin
D)Doxycycline
Q3) Which of the following agencies has announced the approval of a strengthened risk management program,called iPLEDGE,for generic isotretinoin?
A)USP
B)FDA
C)CDER
D)TJC
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Treatment of Eczema and Psoriasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Halobetasol propionate
A)Enbrel
B)Elocon
C)Elidel
D)Gengraf
E)Ultravate
Q2) All of the following are nonpharmacological treatments for eczema except _____.
A)allergy shots
B)skin care regimens
C)phototherapy
D)avoidance of irritants
Q3) Which of the following is classified as a Class VII corticosteroid and can be used on the face?
A)Desonide
B)Betamethasone
C)Diflorasone
D)Hydrocortisone
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Treatment of Lice and Scabies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scabies mite lives in all of the following places except _____.
A)the surface of the skin
B)webbing between the fingers and toes
C)skin folds of the breast
D)bend of the elbows,knees,and wrists
Q2) Which of the following is a prescription indicated for the topical treatment of head lice infestations in children 4 years and older?
A)Spinosad
B)Pyrethrins
C)Crotamiton
D)Permethrin
Q3) Head lice most commonly affects children aged _____ years and their families;however,anyone can become infested.
A)1 to 5
B)5 to 9
C)3 to 11
D)2 to 15
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