Fundamentals of Pharmacology Final
Exam
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Pharmacology introduces students to the essential principles governing the action, use, and effects of drugs in biological systems. This course covers the basic concepts of pharmacokinetics (absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs), pharmacodynamics (drug-receptor interactions and dose-response relationships), and the mechanisms of drug action. Students will explore the classification of drugs, factors influencing drug efficacy and safety, and the development of new therapeutic agents. Emphasis is placed on understanding the rationale behind drug therapy, side effects, drug interactions, and the ethical considerations in pharmacological research and clinical practice. This foundational knowledge prepares students for advanced study in pharmacology, pharmacy, medicine, and related health sciences fields.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology An Introduction 6th Edition by Henry Hitner
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Pharmacology: An Introduction
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Q1) What type of curve should be used for representing data when a proper dosing frequency is being determined?
A) Time-response curve
B) Scatter plot
C) Graded dose-response curve
D) Quantal dose-response curve
Answer: A
Q2) The phenomenon that occurs upon taking additional doses of acetaminophen for pain when a 100 percent response has been attained is called
A) Ceiling effect
B) Tolerance
C) First-pass effect
D) Purkinje effect
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics and Factors of Individual
Variation
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Q1) When differentiating between free drug molecules and drug molecules that have bound to plasma proteins,the main focus is:
A) Only unbound or free drug molecules can exert a pharmacological effect.
B) Only drug molecules that have bound to plasma can exert a pharmacological effect.
C) Free drug molecules exert the same level of pharmacological effect as drug molecules that are bound to plasma.
D) None of these are correct
Answer: A
Q2) Identify the term used for the process by which a drug enters the bloodstream from its site of administration.
A) Drug absorption
B) Drug excretion
C) Drug distribution
D) Drug metabolism
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Geriatric Pharmacology
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Q1) Pharmacologic compounds that are most affected by liver enzymes in elderly patients are:
A) Oxidizing
B) Reducing
C) Chelating
D) Alkylating
Answer: A
Q2) An elderly man has been given an adult-strength dose of the topical steroid hydrocortisone for the past four weeks.He has developed thin skin and stria along his back,suggesting toxicity.The cause of the toxicity would be:
A) Decreased absorption through interactions reducing the half-life
B) Increased distribution to adipose tissues, prolonging the half-life
C) Increased metabolism in liver, increasing the half-life
D) Increased excretion from the kidneys, increasing the half-life
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Math Review and Dosage Calculations
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Q1) Carry out the necessary calculations to determine the number of teaspoons that should be administered for a dosage of 50 mg if you have the drug available in a concentration of 10 mg/ml.
A) 0.5 teaspoon
B) 1 teaspoon
C) 1.5 teaspoons
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Recall the definition of an improper fraction,and identify the correct numerical equivalent.
A) 3/5
B) 2/4
C) 1/3
D) 5/5
Q3) Match the set of examples to the definition of a numerator.
A) 13.14, 33.58, 21.92
B) 2:5, 1:4, 5:8
C) The 1 in 1/4, 4 in 4/11, 5 in 5/25
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 5: Introduction to the Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) Activation of the parasympathetic division will not directly reduce:
A) GI motility
B) Blood pressure
C) Urinary motility
D) Skeletal muscle contraction
Q2) What is the main chemical released by the medulla in sympathetic stimulation?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Epinephrine
Q3) The function of the autonomic nervous system is to regulate the rate of:
A)Cardiac muscle contractions
B)Skeletal muscle contractions
C)Spinal reflexes
D)Sensory conduction
Q4) Blood pressure is lowered by:
A) Decreasing sympathetic activity
B) Increasing parasympathetic activity
C) Decreasing parasympathetic activity
D) Increasing sympathetic activity
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Chapter 6: Drugs Affecting the Sympathetic Nervous System
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Q1) The alpha and beta agonists are also known as sympathomimetics.You can conclude that these agonists:
A) Produce effects similar to the sympathetic nervous system
B) Produce effects similar to the parasympathetic nervous system
C) Produce effects similar to the cardiovascular system
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Select the group of beta-adrenergic drugs that can be inhaled via a nebulizer in order to open the respiratory airway.
A) Isoetharine and salmeterol
B) Salmeterol and terbutaline
C) Isoetharine and levalbuterol
D) Levalbuterol and terbutaline
Q3) Identify the symptom(s) associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia in males.
A) Enlargement of the prostate gland
B) Decreased urine flow
C) Increased constriction of the smooth muscle of the ureter
D) All of these are correct.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Drugs Affecting the Parasympathetic Nervous System
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Q1) What class of drugs is preferred for increasing urinary flow in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A) Beta-blockers
B) Alpha-blockers
C) Muscarinic blockers
D) Nicotinic blockers
Q2) What is a desirable property that would need to be enhanced in developing a new direct-acting cholinergic drug?
A) Longer duration of action
B) Shorter duration of action
C) Quicker absorption
D) Quicker elimination
Q3) What triggers the release of acetylcholine from a neuron?
A) Hormonal control
B) Enzyme activity
C) Nerve stimulation
D) Regulator proteins
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Ganglia
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Q1) What was the name used for the receptors at the autonomic ganglia prior to the discovery of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine?
A) Serotonin receptors
B) Nicotinic receptors
C) Epinephrine receptors
D) Dopamine receptors
Q2) Integrating a cholinergic drug into the existing treatment plan of a patient already taking a ganglionic blocking drug could result in a drug interaction characterized by:
A) Additive anticholinergic effects
B) Additive vasodilating effects, leading to hypotension and cardiovascular collapse
C) Antagonism of anticholinergic effects, especially on the GI and urinary tracts
D) Additive antiadrenergic effects leading to hypotension and cardiovascular collapse
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Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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Q1) What is the drug of choice for treating malignant hyperthermia?
A) Tizanidine
B) Dantrolene
C) Baclofen
D) Diazepam
Q2) Which of the following would be observed from a low dose of a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant used to promote a neuromuscular blockade?
A) Relaxation of facial muscles
B) Relaxation of arms and legs
C) Relaxation of trunk muscles
D) Relaxation of diaphragm
Q3) One way to overcome the effects of a rapidly metabolized skeletal muscle relaxant is to administer the medication by:
A) IV injection
B) IV infusion
C) IM injection
D) Subcutaneous injection
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Chapter 10: Local Anesthetics
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Q1) Explain why local anesthetics are valuable as a treatment for pain management.
A) Local anesthetics stimulate sensory nerves at low doses that increase the response of the motor nerves.
B) Local anesthetics block sensory nerves at low doses that do not inhibit motor nerve function.
C) Local anesthetics interact with nerve membranes to increase nerve conduction.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) When differentiating between local and general anesthetics,general anesthetics:
A) Cause total loss of consciousness
B) Stimulate the activity of the CNS
C) Can limit the response to one area of the body
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Identify the most commonly used local anesthetic technique.
A) Regional nerve block
B) Infiltration anesthesia
C) Intradermal anesthesia
D) Cryoanesthesia
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12
Chapter 11: Introduction to the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Inhibitory fibers of the _____ become more active during periods of _____.
A) Limbic system, sleep
B) Reticular formation, sleep
C) Limbic system, darkness
D) Reticular formation, darkness
Q2) Coordination and regulation of muscular activity is a major function of the
A) Temporal lobe
B) Occipital lobe
C) Basal ganglia
D) Thalamus
Q3) Which of the following is the only brain structure that is under conscious control?
A) Thalamus
B) Pons
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Cerebral cortex
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13
Chapter 12: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs and Alcohol
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Q1) Differentiate between the recommended therapies for insomnia and sedation,and select the therapy of choice for patients suffering from insomnia that is complicated with anxiety or stressful situations.
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Barbiturates
C) Miscellaneous hypnotic drugs
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Use critical thinking to determine the cause of the nausea, vomiting, and headache that an alcoholic patient is experiencing while taking disulfiram.
A) Acetaldehyde is accumulating in the blood, causing this reaction to occur.
B) The patient may be drinking alcoholic beverages again while taking disulfiram.
C) The patient may be using OTC products that contain alcohol while taking disulfiram.
D) All of these are correct.
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14
Chapter 13: Antipsychotic and Antianxiety Drugs
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Q1) One main characteristic of phenothiazine antipsychotics is their ability to:
A) Block dopamine D2 receptors to a greater degree than serotonin 5HT<sub>2A</sub> receptors
B) Block cholinergic receptors to a greater degree than serotonin 5HT<sub>2A</sub> receptors
C) Block serotonin 5HT<sub>2A</sub> receptors to a greater degree than dopamine D2 receptors
D) Block histamine receptors to a greater degree than serotonin 5HT<sub>2A</sub> receptors
Q2) The manic phase of manic depressive personality disorder can best be treated with which class of antipsychotic medication?
A) Butyrophenones
B) Phenothiazines
C) Thioxanthenes
D) Atypical antipsychotics
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15
Chapter 14: Antidepressants, psychomotor Stimulants, and
Lithium
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Q1) Select the statement that is not consistent with the mechanism of action or adverse effect profile of the SSRI mirtazapine (Remeron).
A) Mirtazapine decreases the release of norepinephrine and serotonin.
B) Mirtazapine has a potent histamine receptor blocking action.
C) Mirtazapine does not cause GI disturbances or sexual dysfunction.
D) Mirtazapine use has been associated with weight gain.
Q2) When summarizing the adverse effects of the atypical SSRIs,you identify the key adverse effects to be:
A) Sedation, hypertension, and renal insufficiency
B) Orthostatic hypotension, GI disturbances, and renal insufficiency
C) Sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and liver toxicity
D) Sedation, GI disturbances, and renal insufficiency
Q3) Using the Physicians' Desk Reference,you determine that due to their alpha-blocking,anticholinergic and antihistaminic effects,the TCAs are contraindicated in patients suffering from:
A) Glaucoma and benign prostatic hypertrophy
B) Glaucoma and hypertension
C) Benign prostatic hypertrophy and hypertension
D) Glaucoma and epilepsy
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Psychotomimetic Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) The consumption of larger doses of a drug to prevent onset of psychological and physical withdrawal symptoms.
A) Drug tolerance
B) Cross tolerance
C) Drug dependency
D) Drug addiction
Q2) What type of behavior would be expected from an amphetamine addict after discontinuing use of the drug?
A) Profound sleep followed by drug seeking behavior upon awakening
B) Profound binge eating followed by insomnia
C) Profound insomnia followed by withdrawal symptoms
D) Profound hypotension followed by sleep
Q3) Hallucinogenic effects of LSD are thought to result from:
A) Activation of serotonin receptors in the brain
B) Activation of dopamine receptors in the brain
C) Activation of alpha receptors in the brain
D) Activation of beta receptors in the brain
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Chapter 16: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Q1) Use critical thinking to determine the recommended effective treatment for a patient with absence seizures.
A) Clonazepam (Klonopin)
B) Phenobarbital (Luminal)
C)Topiramate (Topamax )
D) Diazepam (Valium)
Q2) Identify the type of seizure that does not involve any type of motor convulsion.
A) Atonic seizure
B) Myoclonic seizure
C) Absence seizure
D) Partial seizure
Q3) Select the correct FDA pregnancy category for carbamazepine (Tegretol) based on the association of carbamazepine use with fetal development of spina bifida,craniofacial defects,and developmental delay.
A) Pregnancy Category B
B) Pregnancy Category C
C) Pregnancy Category D
D) Pregnancy Category X
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18
Chapter 17: Antiparkinson Drugs
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Q1) For best results,levodopa should be administered on an empty stomach
A) To maximize drug receptor binding to achieve a therapeutic effect
B) To minimize plasma protein binding interferences
C) To enhance absorption in the small intestines
D) To decrease interference with amino acid transporters in the brain
Q2) The addition of carbidopa to levodopa is beneficial because it _____ the amount of dopamine being produced in the periphery and decreases the _____ seen with higher levels of levodopa.
A) Decreases, side effects
B) Increases, side effects
C) Maintains, toxic effects
D) Increases, toxic effects
Q3) _____ is an excitatory neurotransmitter released from the _____ area of the basal ganglia
A) Dopamine, corpus striatum
B) Acetylcholine, corpus striatum
C) Dopamine, substantia nigra
D) Acetylcholine, substantia nigra
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Chapter 18: General Anesthetics
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Q1) Using the do's and don'ts that the patient should be made aware of after surgical procedures using anesthesia,select the true statement.
A) Don't rely on memory for spoken instructions; follow written instructions.
B) Don't leave the health care facility unless accompanied by a responsible adult.
C) Don't operate complex equipment for at least 24 hours.
D) All of these are correct
Q2) Identify the part of the brain that influences mood,motivation,and the ability to perceive pain.
A) Hypothalamus
B) Thalamus
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Cerebral cortex
Q3) Describe the therapeutic objective of the use of anesthesia during surgical procedures.
A) Rapid, smooth induction and maintenance of the patient in Stage IV
B) Rapid, smooth induction and maintenance of the patient in Stage III
C) Rapid, smooth induction and maintenance of the patient in Stage II
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 19: Opioid Analgesics
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Q1) A common sign of opioid toxicity would be:
A) Mydriasis
B) Pinpoint pupils
C) Dry eyes
D) Red eyes
Q2) Two naturally occurring opiates derived from the poppy plant are:
A) Morphine and heroin
B) Morphine and codeine
C) Codeine and heroin
D) Codeine and marijuana
Q3) In _____,more drug is needed to produce _____ therapeutic effect.
A) Physical dependence, a decreased
B) Physical dependence, the same
C) Tolerance, an increased
D) Tolerance, the same
Q4) Nonopioid analgesics consist of all of the following except:
A) Meperidine
B) NSAIDs
C) Acetaminophen
D) COX-2 inhibitors
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Nonopioid Analgesic, nonsteroidal
Antiinflammatory, and Antigout DR
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Q1) Use the side-effects profile of the salicylates to select the false statement related to their use.
A) Salicylates directly irritate the stomach mucosal lining.
B) Salicylates stimulate prostaglandin synthesis.
C) Salicylates stimulate the medullary center known as the chemoreceptor trigger zone.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Using your knowledge of the pediatric dosing guidelines for acetaminophen,select the correct dose for an 11-month-old child.
A) 40 mg every 4 to 6 hours
B) 160 mg every 4 to 6 hours
C) 80 mg every 4 to 6 hours
D) 240 mg every 4 to 6 hours
Q3) Using your knowledge of the pediatric dosing guidelines for aspirin,select the correct dose for a 4-year-old child.
A) 243 mg every 4 to 6 hours
B) 162 mg every 4 to 6 hours
C) 324 mg every 4 to 6 hours
D) 650 mg every 4 to 6 hours
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Chapter 21: Review of Cardiac Physiology and Pathology
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Q1) An increase in heart rate primarily begins with stimulation of which part of the conduction system?
A) Purkinje fibers
B) Bundle of HIS
C) AV node
D) SA node
Q2) Blood exits the heart from the _____,which then passes through the _____ before circulating throughout the body.
A) Left atrium, lungs
B) Left ventricle, lungs
C) Left ventricle, aorta
D) Right ventricle, aorta
Q3) A disease in which the aging process leads to fibrosis and narrowing of the arteries is:
A) Atherosclerosis
B) Arteriosclerosis
C) Ischemia
D) Angina pectoris
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23
Chapter 22: Treatment of Heart Failure
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Q1) Use the mode of action of the beta-blockers to determine the therapeutic action of the beta-blockers in the treatment of CHF.
A) Beta-blockers inhibit the release of renin, which in turn prevents the formation of angiotensin II, which causes vasoconstriction.
B) Beta-blockers decrease the rate at which the heart beats and reduce the force of the contractions of the heart.
C) Beta-blockers reduce the conduction rate of the electrical currents of the heart.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Differentiate between the thiazides,loop diuretics,and aldosterone antagonists,and select the diuretic agent that has the longest duration of action.
A) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
D) Amiloride (Midamor)
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Chapter 23: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Q1) Disopyramide produces a _____ in conduction and _____ of the refractory period.
A) Increase, contraction
B) Increase, prolongation
C) Decrease, contraction
D) Decrease, prolongation
Q2) Antiarrhythmic drugs primarily affect the activity of the following ion channels except
A) Cl
B) Na
C) K
D) Ca
Q3) Of the Class IA antiarrhythmics,procainamide is favored over quinidine because procainamide
A) Has less anticholinergic and antihistaminic actions
B) Has less antiadrenergic and antihistaminic actions
C) Has less anticholinergic and alpha blocking actions
D) Has less antiadrenergic and muscarinic blocking actions
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Chapter 24: Antianginal Drugs
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Q1) Alice is experiencing periods of angina,and she places a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet under her tongue as directed by her physician.After 5 minutes have passed,she is not feeling any relief.What step should be implemented next?
A) Seek medical assistance immediately.
B) Place another sublingual nitroglycerin tablet under her tongue.
C) Swallow the nitroglycerin tablet in order to get better absorption.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Differentiate between the commercially available nitrate products,and determine the nitrate drug most commonly used to treat angina and coronary artery disease.
A) Isosorbide dinitrate
B) Isosorbide monohydrate
C) Nitroglycerin
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) Identify the term used for the reduction in blood flow caused by atherosclerosis.
A) Stable angina
B) Variant angina
C) Ischemia
D) Exertional angina
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Chapter 25: Diuretics
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Q1) Where does the secretion of weak acids and weak bases occur in the nephron?
A) Proximal convoluted tubule
B) Distal convoluted tubule
C) Nephron loop
D) Collecting ducts
Q2) The process of filtration in a nephron occurs in the:
A) Glomerulus
B) Proximal convoluted tubule
C) Nephron loop
D) Collecting duct
Q3) Which diuretic has a greater diuretic action than the thiazides and is often prescribed for patients who have become resistant to a thiazide diuretic?
A) Potassium-sparing diuretic
B) Organic acid diuretic
C) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
D) Osmotic diuretic
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Chapter 26: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Q1) Implementing a patient education session for a patient suffering from essential hypertension requires:
A) Instructing the patient to maintain a schedule when taking the medications ordered for the hypertension.
B) Scheduling routine medical checkups to ensure that the patient's blood pressure is under control.
C) Instructing the patient that he or she may not have symptoms but will require lifelong treatment.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Use mechanism of antihypertensive action to determine the treatment options when the desired effect is blocking of the beta-1 receptors in the heart to decrease cardiac output and blood pressure;
A) Clonidine (Catapres), guanabenz (Wytensin), and guanfacine (Tenex)
B) Doxazosin (Cardura), prazosin (Minipress), and terazosin (Hytrin)
C) Atenolol (Tenormin), metoprolol (Lopressor), and nadolol (Corgard)
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 27: Anticoagulants and Coagulants
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Q1) The irreversible process by which aspirin inactivates cyclooxygenase production is:
A) Thromboxane levels are elevated by aspirin.
B) Prostacyclin levels are elevated by aspirin.
C) Platelets lack a nucleus and can't produce more cyclooxygenase.
D) Platelet enzymes are inhibited by aspirin.
Q2) The formation of _____ practically guarantees the clotting cascade to proceed.
A) Clotting factor VIII
B) Vitamin K
C) Stuart factor
D) Thromboplastin
Q3) Why would a patient currently experiencing thromboembolisms be given warfarin?
A) To prevent future platelet aggregation
B) To prevent primary thromboembolic complications
C) To prevent secondary thromboembolic complications
D) To prevent hemorrhaging
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Chapter 28: Nutrition and Therapy
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Q1) Select the statement that best explains the potential effect of the presence of hyperchloremia in the body.
A) The presence of high levels of chloride causes more chloride to be reabsorbed from the renal tubules, leaving less chloride in the extracellular fluid, causing the development of acidosis.
B) The presence of high levels of chloride causes more hydrogen to be retained in the blood to help balance the excess chloride, causing hyperchloremic alkalosis.
C) The presence of high levels of chloride causes more hydrogen to be retained in the blood to help balance the excess chloride, causing the development of hyperchloremic acidosis.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Describe the type of patient who would benefit from the administration of a TPN.
A) Cancer patient having difficulty with excessive weight loss
B) Diabetic patient having difficulty keeping his or her blood sugar level down
C) Pregnant patient who has been vomiting excessively and is dehydrated
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 29: Hypolipidemic Drugs
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Q1) Cholesterol can best be tested by what type of sample?
A) Whole blood sample
B) Plasma sample
C) Serum sample
D) Urine sample
Q2) Which lipoprotein is produced in the intestines for the transport of exogenous cholesterol and triglycerides?
A) VLDL
B) Chylomicrons
C) HDL
D) LDL
Q3) The combination of which two diseases would increase the risk for limb amputation?
A) Hypercholesterolemia and hypertension
B) Hypercholesterolemia and hemophilia
C) Hypercholesterolemia and anemia
D) Hypercholesterolemia and diabetes
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Chapter 30: Antianemics
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Q1) Use your knowledge of the precautions and contraindications in the treatment of deficiency anemias to select the antidote for acute iron toxicity.
A) Gastric lavage with 5 to 10 grams of deferoxamine mesylate
B) Taking 200 mg of vitamin C orally within 10 minutes of the toxic dose
C) Eating a meal to help bind the iron, preventing it from being absorbed into the bloodstream
D) None of these are correct
Q2) Identify the main function of hemoglobin in the prevention of anemia.
A) The main function of hemoglobin is to stimulate the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow.
B) The main function of hemoglobin is to stimulate the intestinal absorption of cyanocobalamin.
C) The main function of hemoglobin is to transport oxygen to all of the tissues of the body.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 31: Antihistaminic Drugs and Mast Cell Release
Inhibitors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of antibody is produced the first time a person is sensitized by tree pollen?
A) IgA
B) IgB
C) IgE
D) IgF
Q2) Antihistaminics can be used in cold remedies because of the anticholinergic properties responsible for:
A) Inhibiting the degranulation process in mast cells
B) Promoting sedation
C) Slowing the breathing process
D) Drying nasal secretions
Q3) Which type of histamine receptor is located on blood vessels,bronchiolar smooth muscle,and intestinal smooth muscle and is used to mediate allergic reactions?
A) H<sub>1</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>3</sub>
D) H<sub>4</sub>
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Respiratory Pharmacology, treatment of
Asthma, and Copd
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the symptoms associated with chronic bronchitis.
A) Dry cough, difficulty breathing, and increased respiratory infections
B) Productive cough, difficulty breathing, and increased respiratory infections
C) Dry cough, increased respiratory infections, and restriction of physical activity
D) Productive cough, increased respiratory infections, and restriction of physical activity
Q2) Select the correct statement related to the bronchodilators,salmeterol,and formoterol when differentiating between salmeterol,formoterol,albuterol,and pirbuterol.
A) Salmeterol and formoterol are administered as oral tablets, have an immediate onset of action, and have a duration of action of 12 hours.
B) Salmeterol and formoterol are administered by nebulization, have an immediate onset of action, and have a duration of action of 4 to 6 hours.
C) Salmeterol and formoterol are administered by inhalation, have an onset of action of 10 to 20 minutes, and have a duration of action of 12 hours.
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 33: Therapy of Gastrointestinal Disorders: Peptic Ulcers, gerd,
and Vom
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which H2 inhibitor should not be prescribed for a patient already taking calcium channel blockers,metoprolol,and phenytoin?
A) Cimetidine
B) Famotidine
C) Nizatidine
D) Ranitidine
Q2) One way to directly block the secretion of acid and pepsin in the stomach would be to
A) Administer an H1 blocker
B) Administer a proton pump inhibitor
C) Administer an H2 blocker
D) Administer an anticholinergic
Q3) In treating an H.pylori peptic ulcer,triple therapy refers to using
A) Two antibiotics and a bismuth compound
B) Two antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor
C) An antibiotic, a bismuth compound, and a proton pump inhibitor
D) An antibiotic, an antifungal, and a bismuth compound
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Agents That Affect Intestinal Motility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the patient population in which chronic diarrhea develops more readily.
A) Children
B) Individuals in poor health or with poor nutrition
C) Elderly
D) All of these are correct
Q2) Identify the definition of peristalsis.
A) Peristalsis is the process of discharging the contents of the intestines.
B) Peristalsis is the process in which water moves across membranes following the movement of sodium ions.
C) Peristalsis is a movement characterized by circular contraction and relaxation that propels or moves contents of the GI tract.
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Using onset of action as the basis,select the group of laxatives listed in the order of increasing onset-of-action times.
A) Bowel evacuants, emollients, stool softeners
B) Emollients, bowel evacuants, swelling agents
C) Osmotic laxatives, emollients, bowel evacuants
D) Stimulants, stool softeners, emollients
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36
Chapter 35: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Octreotide is a synthetic protein used for
A) Stimulating growth hormone production
B) Inhibiting somatostatin production
C) Treating patients with acromegaly who are unresponsive to surgery
D) Treating patients with gigantism who are unresponsive to surgery
Q2) Somatostatin is
A) A releasing hormone that promotes the release of growth hormone
B) An inhibitory hormone released from the target organ
C) An inhibitory hormone released from the pituitary gland
D) An inhibitory hormone released from the hypothalamus
Q3) The portal system allows for communication between
A) The hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland
B) The hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary gland
C) The hypothalamus and both lobes of the pituitary gland
D) The hypothalamus and the target organ
Q4) Negative feedback in hormone regulation involves the _____ turning off _____.
A) Target organ hormone; hypothalamic secretion of releasing hormones
B) Target organ hormone; the specific pituitary hormone
C) Specific pituitary hormone; hypothalamic secretion of releasing hormones
D) Hypothalamic secretion of releasing hormones; target organ hormone
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Chapter 36: Adrenal Steroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the mechanism of action of aldosterone,select the statement that best explains the sodium-potassium exchange.
A) Aldosterone increases the reabsorption of sodium ions and water. In exchange, potassium ions are transported into the urine. This process is usually referred to as sodium-potassium exchange. Consequently, normal sodium and water levels are maintained in the blood and other body tissues.
B) Aldosterone increases the release of potassium ions and water. In exchange, sodium ions are transported into the urine. This process is usually referred to as sodium-potassium exchange. Consequently, normal sodium and water levels are maintained in the blood and other body tissues.
C) Aldosterone decreases the reabsorption of potassium ions and water. In exchange, sodium ions are transported into the urine. This process is usually referred to as sodium-potassium exchange. Consequently, normal potassium and water levels are maintained in the blood and other body tissues.
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 37: Gonadal Hormones, oral Contraceptives, and Erectile Dysfunction Dru
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Sample Questions
Q1) A miscarriage can happen if:
A) The placenta degenerates before the corpus luteum can maintain hormone level.
B) Levels of LH and FSH decrease before the ova can maintain hormone level.
C) The corpus luteum degenerates before the placenta can maintain hormone level.
D) Levels of LH and FSH decrease before the placenta can maintain hormone level.
Q2) Estrogens released from the ovary will:
A) Increase secretion of GnRH through positive feedback
B) Decrease secretion of GnRH through negative feedback
C) Increase secretion of FSH and LH through positive feedback
D) Decrease secretion of FSH and LH through negative feedback
Q3) During oogenesis,the cells that are arrested in prophase of the first meiotic division are:
A) Primary oocytes
B) Secondary oocytes
C) Tertiary oocytes
D) Oogonia
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Chapter 38: Drugs Affecting the Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands
and Bone Degener
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using your knowledge of the mechanism of action of the bisphosphonates,select the true statement related to their use in the treatment of osteoporosis.
A) It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 2 hours of calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be increased.
B) It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 1 hour of calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be decreased.
C) It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 1 hour of calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be increased.
D) It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 2 hours of calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be decreased.
Q2) Describe the physical ramifications of the presence of hypothyroidism in infants and children.
A) Mental and physical retardation
B) Exophthalmos
C) Goiter development
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 39: Pancreatic Hormones and Antidiabetic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What will be the effect on urine output for patients with diabetes mellitus?
A) Urine output will increase due to a lack of antidiuretic hormone being produced.
B) Urine output will decrease due to osmotic pressure of excess glucose in blood.
C) Urine output will increase due to excess glucose being filtered into the renal tubule.
D) Urine output will decrease due to increased production of antidiuretic hormone.
Q2) The need for amputation for diabetics occurs because of:
A) An increase in levels of stored glucose in the extremities
B) A decrease in immune response with high levels of insulin
C) A decrease in immune response with high levels of glucagon
D) Inadequate circulation to the extremities
Q3) In gestational diabetes,hormones produced in the ??_____ will cause insulin resistance.
A) Placenta
B) Ovaries
C) Uterus
D) Pituitary gland
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Chapter 40: Posterior Pituitary Hormones: Antidiuretic Hormone
and Oxytocin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between central diabetes insipidus and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus,and select the true statemenet.
A) Central diabetes insipidus is caused by a decreased secretion of ADH, whereas B) nephrogenic DI is caused by a resistance to ADH in the kidney.
C) Central diabetes insipidus is caused by a resistance to ADH in the kidney, whereas D) nephrogenic DI is caused by a decreased secretion of ADH.
E) Central diabetes insipidus is caused by a resistance to glucose in the blood, whereas
F) nephrogenic DI is caused by a decreased secretion of insulin.
G) None of these are correct.
Q2) Describe the physical triggers associated with water conservation.
A) Thirst and reduction in blood volume
B) Thirst and sweating
C) Sweating and reduction in blood volume
D) Excessive vomiting, sweating, and thirst
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42
Chapter 41: Antibacterial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of antibiotic action inhibits the reproduction of bacteria?
A) Bactericidal
B) Bacteriostatic
C) Culture and sensitivity testing
D) Chemoprophylaxis
Q2) What must be done if a patient on vancomycin exhibits a flushing redness of the neck and upper body?
A) Slow the IV drip rate.
B) Increase the IV drip rate.
C) Immediately discontinue, and administer antidote for overdose.
D) Immediately discontinue, and change to another antibiotic.
Q3) An antibiotic will have no effect on an infection if:
A) The antibiotic is broad-spectrum.
B) The bacteria is not resistant to the antibiotic.
C) The bacteria does not lie within the drug's antibacterial spectrum.
D) Beta-lactamase activity is not present.
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43
Chapter 42: Antifungal and Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between primary and secondary microorganism resistance,and select the true statement related to this issue of resistance.
A) Primary resistance occurs when the organism does not respond to the drug because it doesn't recognize the drug or it has a protective mechanism to destroy the drug on contact. Secondary resistance occurs when the organism initially responds to the drug but then stops responding or requires greater doses to kill the organism.
B) Primary resistance occurs when the organism initially responds to the drug but then stops responding or requires greater doses to kill the organism. Secondary resistance occurs when the organism does not respond to the drug because it doesn't recognize the drug or it has a protective mechanism to destroy the drug on contact.
C) Using multiple drugs in combination at the same time speeds the development of resistance to a single drug primarily because of their antagonistic effect on each other.
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 43: Parasitic Infections: Antiprotozoal and Anthelmintic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What antimalarial agent can be used to produce a radical cure?
A) Primaquine
B) Chloroquine
C) Mefloquine
D) Quinine
Q2) A patient with a tapeworm infestation has been admitted to the hospital.The patient also has a low blood count.What should be suspected by the health care professional?
A) There is also a serious infection in addition to the tapeworm infestation.
B) The tapeworm is producing a toxin that is destroying red blood cells.
C) The tapeworm is robbing the body of cofactors needed to produce red blood cells.
D) The tapeworm may have perforated the intestines, causing hemorrhaging.
Q3) After returning from a trip to the tropics,Mr.Smith begins to experience flu-like symptoms.The chills and high fever he is experiencing are probably due to:
A) Bacteria colonizing the large intestines
B) Protozoa rapidly multiplying and causing red blood cells to rupture
C) A virus spreading in the central nervous system
D) A ringworm infection
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between the antiseptics and disinfectants,and select the appropriate information that must be given to a patient regarding their use.
A) Some antiseptics, like peroxide, can be used as oral rinses but must not be ingested.
B) Antiseptics and disinfectants may contain ethyl alcohol or isopropyl alcohol, which are poisonous if they are ingested.
C) The aldehydes are never used as antiseptics because of the potential damage to human tissue at any concentration.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Differentiate between the bactericidal and bacteriostatic properties of the antiseptics,and select the true statement.
A) Bacteriostatic antiseptics can eradicate bacteria only at high concentrations.
B) Bacteriostatic antiseptics inhibit the growth and reproduction process of the bacteria but do not kill the bacteria.
C) All bactericidal antiseptics have broad-spectrum activity.
D) All bacteriostatic antiseptics have narrow-spectrum activity.
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Agents
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Q1) Mr.Smith is not showing a positive response after receiving his chemotherapy.What would be the next step in his treatment?
A) Increase the dose of the current chemotherapy medication.
B) Change to a different chemotherapy medication in the same family.
C) Initiate combination therapy.
D) Change to a completely different chemotherapy medication.
Q2) What common approach is used to treat cancer?
A) Surgery
B) Radiation
C) Chemotherapy
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) Mr.Smith was temporarily taken off chemotherapy despite responding very well to treatment.The reason for this would be that:
A) Additional time allows medical staff to test for remission.
B) Additional time will allow for recovery of the normal cells.
C) Additional time prevents the development of myelosuppression.
D) Additional time allows the immune system to fight off the tumor.
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Chapter 46: Immunopharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the steps in the immune response,select the true statement about macrophages and their role in the immune response process.
A) Macrophages release interleukins that activate the T-cells.
B) Macrophages are classified as antigen-presenting cells.
C) Macrophages kill cells that are infected with foreign organisms.
D) Macrophages produce immunoglobulins or antibodies.
Q2) Select the true statement related to infliximab (Remicade) used in the treatment of Crohn's disease
A) Infliximab is a cytotoxic drug that inhibits the activity of the T-cells and B-cells.
B) Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to and inhibits the activity of tumor necrosis factor (TNF-alpha). TNF-alpha is a mediator of inflammation and immune activation.
C) Administration of infliximab is not associated with any adverse reactions.
D) None of these are correct.
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