Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry introduces students to the essential concepts and principles underlying the structure, properties, and reactions of organic molecules. The course covers the basic bonding theories, molecular structures, functional groups, stereochemistry, and reaction mechanisms common in organic chemistry. Emphasis is placed on understanding how molecular structure influences chemical behavior and reactivity, as well as the interpretation of molecular representations and nomenclature. Through a combination of lectures, discussions, and problem-solving exercises, students will gain foundational knowledge necessary to analyze and predict the outcomes of organic reactions, laying the groundwork for further study in chemistry, biology, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Organic Chemistry 4th Edition by Janice Gorzynski
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Chapter 1: Structure and Bonding
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Q1) What 2 things will change between two resonance structures?
A) The position of multiple bonds and non-bonded electrons.
B) The position of multiple bonds and single bonds.
C) The placement of atoms and single bonds.
D) The placement of atoms and non-bonded electrons.
Answer: A
Q2) How many different isomers are there for a compound having the molecular formula C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following statements about constitutional isomers is true?
A) Constitutional isomers are different molecules having different molecular formula.
B) Constitutional isomers are different molecules having same molecular formula.
C) Constitutional isomers are same molecules having different molecular formula.
D) Constitutional isomers are same molecules having the same molecular formula.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Acids and Bases
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Q1) Which of the following statements about Lewis bases is true?
A) Lewis bases are electron pair acceptors.
B) Lewis bases are electron pair donors.
C) Lewis bases are proton donors.
D) Lewis bases are proton acceptors.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following species is the conjugate base of the hydronium ion, H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>?
A) H<sub>3</sub>O
B) H<sub>2</sub>O<sup>-</sup>
C) H<sub>2</sub>O
D) HO<sup>-</sup>
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following compounds is not a Lewis acid?
A) AlCl<sub>3</sub>
B) HCl
C) H<sub>2</sub>O
D) CBr<sub>4</sub>
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Organic Molecules and Functional Groups
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Q1) What intermolecular force is generally considered the weakest?
A) Hydrogen bonding
B) London dispersion forces
C) Dipole-dipole
D) Ion-ion
Answer: B
Q2) What molecular features are required for soap to properly dissolve grease and oil?
A) The molecule must be large.
B) The molecule must contain a polar head.
C) The molecule must contain a non-polar tail.
D) B and C are required.
Answer: D
Q3) Why do heteroatoms confer reactivity on a particular molecule?
A) Because they have lone pairs and create electron-rich sites on carbon.
B) Because they have lone pairs and create electron-deficient sites on carbon.
C) Because they are electronegative and act as electrophiles.
D) Because they are electropositive and act as nucleophiles.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Alkanes
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Q1) Which of the following compounds has primary, secondary and tertiary hydrogen atoms?
A) Pentane
B) Hexane
C) 2-Methylpentane
D) 2,2-Dimethylpentane
Q2) What is the molecular formula of an alkane that has twenty-three carbon atoms?
A) C<sub>23</sub>H<sub>46</sub>
B) C<sub>23</sub>H<sub>48</sub>
C) C<sub>23</sub>H<sub>50</sub>
D) C<sub>23</sub>H<sub>44</sub>
Q3) How many constitutional isomers are there with the molecular formula C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
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6
Chapter 5: Stereochemistry
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) A molecule that is superimposable on its mirror image is said to achiral.
B) A molecule that is not superimposable on its mirror image is said to be chiral.
C) A molecule that is superimposable on its mirror image is said to be chiral.
D) A carbon atom bonded to four different groups is a stereogenic center.
Q2) Rank the following groups in order of decreasing priority according to the Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system. \[\begin{array} { c c c c } - \mathrm { NH } _ { 2 } & - \mathrm { NHCH } _ { 3 } & - \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 }
\mathrm { NH } _ { 2 } & - \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { NHCH } _ { 3 } \\
\text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV }
\end{array}\]
A) I > II > III > IV
B) II > I > IV > III
C) II > I > III > IV
D) I > II > IV > III
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Chapter 6: Understanding Organic Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about a catalyst is true?
A) A catalyst accelerates a reaction by changing the amount of reactant and product at equilibrium.
B) A catalyst accelerates a reaction by lowering the energy of activation.
C) A catalyst accelerates a reaction by raising the energy of activation.
D) A catalyst accelerates a reaction by lowering the equilibrium constant.
Q2) Which of the following statements about bond breaking is not true?
A) Homolysis generates uncharged reactive intermediates with unpaired electrons.
B) Homolysis require energy but heterolysis does not require energy.
C) Heterolysis generates charged intermediates.
D) Heterolysis involves unequal sharing of bonding electrons by atoms.
Q3) Which of the K<sub>eq</sub> corresponds to the lowest value of \(\Delta\)G°?
A) "K<sub>eq </sub>= 10<sup>-3</sup>"
B) "K<sub>eq</sub> = 10<sup>-2</sup>"
C) "K<sub>eq</sub> = 10<sup>-1</sup>"
D) "\(\Delta\)G° cannot be determined"
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Chapter 7: Alkyl Halides and Nucleophilic Substitution
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Q1) Given the following substitution reaction, what would the effect be of changing the solvent from CH<sub>3</sub>OH to (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>S=O? CH<sub>3</sub>(CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>5</sub>Br + NaOH \(\to\) CH<sub>3</sub>(CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>5</sub>OH + Br<sup>-</sup>
A) The rate would decrease because S<sub>N</sub>1 reactions are favored by polar protic solvents.
B) The rate would increase because S<sub>N</sub>2 reactions are favored by polar aprotic solvents.
C) The rate would increase because S<sub>N</sub>1 reactions are favored by polar protic solvents.
D) The rate would decrease because S<sub>N</sub>2 reactions are favored by polar aprotic solvents.
Q2) The reaction of bromoethane with sodium acetate affords the substitution product methyl acetate. What is the effect of doubling the concentration of sodium acetate on the rate of the reaction?
A) The rate remains the same.
B) The rate decreases by a factor of 2.
C) The rate increases by a factor of 2.
D) The rate increases by a factor of 4.
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Chapter 8: Alkyl Halides and Elimination Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the mechanism of an E2 reaction is not true?
A) It is fastest with tertiary halides.
B) It exhibits first-order kinetics.
C) A better leaving group should make a faster reaction.
D) All bonds are broken and formed in a single step.
Q2) What is the major elimination product in the reaction of 1-bromobutane with potassium tert-butoxide in tert-butanol?
A) cis-2-Butene
B) 1-Butene
C) trans-2-Butene
D) Butanol
Q3) Which of the following statements about an E1 mechanism is not true?
A) It is a two-step process and has the same first step as an S<sub>N</sub>1 mechanism.
B) It involves the formation of a carbocation from eliminating a good leaving group.
C) A common competing reaction is rearrangement of a less stable carbocation to a more stable carbocation.
D) The loss of a proton by the carbocation is a slow step.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Alcohols, Ethers and Epoxides
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Q1) What are the major products obtained upon treatment of tert-butyl methyl ether with excess HI?
A) tert-Butyl alcohol and iodomethane
B) tert-Butyl iodide and iodomethane
C) tert-Butyl alcohol and methanol
D) tert-Butyl iodide and methanol
Q2) What are the major products obtained upon treatment of methyl phenyl ether with excess HBr?
A) Phenol and bromomethane
B) Phenol and methanol
C) Bromobenzene and bromomethane
D) Bromobenzene and methanol
Q3) Which of the following statements about the reaction of ethers with strong acids is true?
A) HCl, HBr and HI can all be used.
B) The mechanism of ether cleavage is S<sub>N</sub>1 only.
C) The mechanism of ether cleavage is S<sub>N</sub>2 only.
D) The mechanism of ether cleavage is S<sub>N</sub>1 and S<sub>N</sub>2.
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Chapter 10: Alkenes
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Q1) Calculate the degree of unsaturation for a molecule with molecular formula
C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>11</sub>Cl.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 0
Q2) Which of the following statements about alkenes is true?
A) Alkenes react with nucleophiles and bases.
B) Alkenes contain double bonds from two sp-hybridized carbon atoms.
C) In the reactions of alkenes, the \(\pi\) bond is not always broken.
D) Alkenes react with electrophiles.
Q3) Rearrangements can occur in which of the following reactions?
A) Addition of Cl<sub>2</sub> to an alkene.
B) Addition of HOBr to an alkene.
C) Addition of H<sub>2</sub>O/H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> to an alkene.
D) None of the above.
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Chapter 11: Alkynes
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Q1) In the addition of HBr to 1-butyne, the nucleophile in the first step of the mechanism is:
A) The Csp-H1s bond of 1-butyne.
B) The C-C triple bond of 1-butyne.
C) The H atom in HBr.
D) The Br ion.
Q2) Which of the following bases cannot deprotonate acetylene? You are given the pK<sub>a</sub> values of the conjugate acids in parentheses. \(\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { NH } ^ { - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 40 \right) \quad \mathrm { CO } _ { 3 } ^ { 2 - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 10.2 \right) \quad \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } = \mathrm { CH } ^ { - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 44 \right) \quad \left( \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \right) _ { 3 } \mathrm { CO } ^ { - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 18 \right)\)
I\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)II\(\quad \quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)III\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\q uad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)IV
A) Only I and II
B) Only I and III
C) Only II and III
D) Only II and IV
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Chapter 12: Oxidation and Reduction
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Q1) Which of the following classes of organic compounds cannot undergo reduction easily?
A) Alkanes
B) Alkenes
C) Alkynes
D) Carboxylic acids
Q2) What happens to the carbon atom in the transformation of chloromethane to methyllithium? CH<sub>3</sub>Cl + 2Li \(\to\) CH<sub>3</sub>Li + LiCl
A) Oxidized
B) Reduced
C) Oxidized and Reduced
D) Neither oxidized nor reduced
Q3) Which of the following statements about oxidation and reduction is not true?
A) The conversion of an alkyne to an alkene is reduction.
B) The conversion of an alkene to an alkane is reduction.
C) Oxidation results in a decrease in the number of C-H bonds.
D) Reduction results in an increase in the number of C-Z bonds.
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14
Chapter 13: Mass Spectrometry and Infrared Spectroscopy
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Q1) Which of the following statements is (are) true about a compound that has molecular ion peaks in its mass spectrum at mass 170 and 172, and shows prominent peaks in its IR spectrum at 3150-3000 and 1600 cm<sup>-1</sup>?
A) The compound is not pure.
B) The compound contains a halogen.
C) The compound contains an OH group and C<sub>sp</sub><sub>3</sub>-H hybridized bonds.
D) Both A (The compound is not pure) and B (The compound contains a halogen) are true statements.
E) Both A (The compound is not pure) and C (The compound contains an OH group and C<sub>sp</sub><sub>3</sub>-H hybridized bonds) are true statements.
Q2) Why does an alkyne carbon-carbon triple bond vibrate at a higher wavenumber than an alkene carbon-carbon double bond?
A) It is stronger.
B) It is weaker.
C) It has fewer hydrogens.
D) It makes a less stable cation.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy
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Q1) What region of the electromagnetic spectrum does nuclear magnet resonance spectroscopy use?
A) Radio frequency
B) Microwave frequency
C) Infrared frequency
D) Visible frequency
E) Ultraviolet frequency
Q2) Which of the following spectroscopy methods does not involve the interaction of organic molecules with electromagnetic radiation?
A) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
B) Infrared spectroscopy
C) Mass spectroscopy
D) Ultraviolet spectroscopy
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic radiation?
A) All molecules absorb electromagnetic radiation at some frequency.
B) Frequency is directly proportional to wavelength.
C) NMR uses the microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
D) The radio frequency region of the electromagnetic spectrum has the largest energy per photon.
E) Energy is inversely proportional to frequency.
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Chapter 15: Radical Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about chlorination and bromination is true?
A) Bromination is unselective, yielding a mixture of products.
B) Chlorination is often selective, yielding one major product.
C) Chlorination is faster than bromination.
D) Bromination is faster than chlorination.
Q2) How many monochlorination products can be formed (constitutional isomers only) from the reaction of CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH< sub>3</sub> with Cl<sub>2</sub> and hv?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Q3) Which of the following statements about chlorination is true?
A) The rate-determining step in chlorination is endothermic.
B) The transition state resembles the product.
C) The more stable radical is formed faster.
D) A mixture of products results.
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17
Chapter 16: Conjugation, Resonance, and Dienes
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Q1) Which of the following statements about resonance structures is true?
A) The placement of atoms is different.
B) The placement of \(\pi\) bonds is different.
C) The placement of \(\sigma\) bonds is different.
D) The placement of nonbonded electrons is the same.
Q2) What is the reactive intermediate in the reaction of 1,3-diene with HBr, resulting in 1,4-addition?
A) Allylic radical
B) Cyclic bromonium ion
C) Dienophile
D) Allylic carbocation
Q3) What is the definition of a resonance structure?
A) Compounds with the same molecular formula
B) Compounds with different carbon frameworks
C) Structures that differ only in the placement of pi and nonbonding electrons
D) Structures that differ only in the location of bonds
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Chapter 17: Benzene and Aromatic Compounds
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the structure of benzene is not true?
A) Benzene is planar.
B) Benzene has three short double bonds alternating with three longer single bonds.
C) The electrons in the pi bonds are delocalized around the ring.
D) Benzene has six pi electrons.
Q2) Which of the following is not a criterion for antiaromaticity?
A) The molecule must be cyclic.
B) The molecule must have (4n + 2) pi electrons.
C) The molecule must be planar.
D) The molecule must be completely conjugated.
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the Hückel's criteria for aromaticity?
A) The molecule must be cyclic.
B) The molecule must be planar.
C) The molecule must be completely conjugated.
D) The molecule must have 4n pi electrons.
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19
Chapter 18: Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution
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Q1) How can polyalkylation be minimized in Friedel-Crafts alkylation?
A) Use a large excess of alkyl halide relative to the aromatic compound.
B) Use a large excess of benzene relative to the alkyl halide.
C) Use an alkyl halide without a Lewis acid catalyst.
D) Use a large excess of the Lewis acid catalyst.
Q2) Rank the following deactivating groups in order of increasing deactivating strength, listing the least deactivating first. \[\begin{array} { c c c c }
- \mathrm { COOH } & - \mathrm { CHO } & - \mathrm { SO } _ { 3 } \mathrm { H } &\mathrm { NO } _ { 2 } \\
\text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV }
\end{array}\]
A) I < II < III < IV
B) II < III < IV < I
C) II < I < III < IV
D) IV < III < I < II
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Chapter 19: Carboxylic Acids and the Acidity of the O-H
Bond
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Q1) What would happen if a mixture of benzoic acid (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>5</sub>COOH) and NaCl is added to a separatory funnel containing H<sub>2</sub>O and CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>?
A) The benzoic acid would dissolve in the water layer and the NaCl would dissolve in the organic layer.
B) The benzoic acid would dissolve in the organic layer and the NaCl would dissolve in the water layer.
C) Both benzoic acid and NaCl would dissolve in the organic layer.
D) Both benzoic acid and NaCl would dissolve in the water layer.
Q2) As applied to the chemistry of amino acids, what is the definition for the isoelectric point?
A) The pH at which the amino acid exists primarily in its acidic form.
B) The pH at which the amino acid exists primarily in its basic form.
C) The pH at which the amino acid exists as a mixture of isomers.
D) The pH at which the amino acid exists primarily in its neutral form.
Q3) What is the overall charge of the amino acid, alanine, at pH = 7?
A) + 1
B) - 1
C) No overall charge
D) + 2
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Carbonyl Chemistry;
Organometallic Reagents; Oxidation and Reduction
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Q1) The behavior of acid chlorides is different from that of aldehydes in a reaction with a nucleophile because
A) The acid chloride contains a better leaving group.
B) The aldehyde is more easily oxidized.
C) The carbonyl of the aldehyde is more positive.
D) The carbonyl of the aldehyde is less hindered.
Q2) Which of the following terms explain why aldehydes are more reactive than ketones?
A) Electronegativity and resonance
B) Hybridization and resonance
C) Electronegativity and hybridization
D) Sterics and electronics
Q3) Which reagent can be used to reduce the alkene in cyclopentenone?
A) NaBH<sub>4</sub>
B) LiAlH<sub>4</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub> and Pd-C
D) DIBAL-H
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Chapter 21: Aldehydes and Ketones Nucleophilic Addition
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Q1) Why are strongly acidic conditions not used in the formation of enamines and imines?
A) The carbonyl will be protonated.
B) The amine will be completely protonated.
C) The product is not stable to strong acid.
D) An enol will be formed.
Q2) Why can't you use acidic conditions (such as aqueous hydrochloric acid) for the addition of a Grignard reagent to a ketone?
A) Because the Grignard reagent will react with the acid and be quenched.
B) Because the ketone will be protonated and thus unreactive.
C) Because the ketone will form an unreactive enol.
D) Because the Grignard reagent won't dissolve in aqueous solutions.
Q3) Butanal (MW= 72) has a boiling point of 76 °C while butanol (MW= 74) has a boiling point of 118 °C. What accounts for this difference in boiling points?
A) Butanol is polar while butanal is not polar.
B) Butanol can exhibit dipole-dipole interactions while butanal cannot.
C) Butanol can hydrogen bond and butanal cannot hydrogen bond.
D) Butanal is less sterically hindered than butanol.
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Chapter 22: Carboxylic Acids and Derivatives
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Q1) You see an absorption at 2250 cm<sup>-1</sup> in the IR spectrum of a compound. What kind of functional group is present?
A) A ketone
B) An aldehyde
C) An ester
D) A nitrile
Q2) Why is an amide less reactive to nucleophilic acyl substitution than an acid chloride?
A) Nitrogen is a better leaving group.
B) Chloride is a better leaving group.
C) Nitrogen donates more electron density into the carbonyl.
D) The amide anion is less basic.
Q3) All of the following contain sp<sup>2</sup> hybridized atoms in their functional group except
A) a carboxylic acid
B) a nitrile
C) an aldehyde
D) an anhydride
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24
Chapter 23: Substitution Reactions of Carbonyl
Compounds at the Alpha-Carbon
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Q1) Which of the following ketones will give a positive iodoform test?
A) 3-Heptanone
B) 2-Pentanone
C) 3-Hexanone
D) Cyclohexanone
Q2) A simple chemical test to distinguish between acetone and 3-pentanone would be the reaction of the compounds with
A) bromine with acetic acid.
B) bromine and aqueous hydroxide ion.
C) THF, LDA at -78 °C followed by reaction with bromine.
D) base and methyl bromide.
Q3) Which of the following compounds is the most acidic?
A) Ethyl acetoacetate
B) 2-Butanone
C) 1-Butanol
D) 3-Pentanone
Q4) Will acetophenone be completely deprotonated by lithium diisopropylamide (LDA)?
A) Yes
B) No
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Carbonyl Condensation Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about Aldol reactions with either aldehydes or ketones is true?
A) Equilibrium favors the products with aldehydes; equilibrium favors the starting materials with ketones.
B) Equilibrium favors the starting materials with aldehydes; equilibrium favors the products with ketones.
C) Equilibrium favors the products with both aldehydes and ketones.
D) Equilibrium favors the starting materials with both aldehydes and ketones.
Q2) What is the name given to an Aldol reaction between two different carbonyl compounds?
A) multiple Aldol reaction
B) crossed Aldol reaction
C) differential Aldol reaction
D) versatile Aldol reaction
Q3) What is the name given to the Claisen reaction between two different esters?
A) multiple Claisen reaction
B) differential Claisen reaction
C) crossed Claisen reaction
D) versatile Claisen reaction
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Amines
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Q1) The mass spectrum of an amine shows a parent peak with an odd mass for the molecular ion. What does this tell you about the amine?
A) The amine is a primary amine.
B) The amine is a secondary amine.
C) The amine contains an even number of N atoms.
D) The amine contains an odd number of N atoms.
Q2) Which of the following alkyl halides cannot be used to prepare primary amines by the Gabriel synthesis?
A) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
B) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
C) 2-bromo-3-methylbutane
D) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane
Q3) What is the approximate bond angle of the substituents around a nitrogen atom in amines?
A) 90°
B) 109.5°
C) 120°
D) 180°
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Chapter 26: Carbon-Carbon Bond Forming Reactions in Organic Synthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is not a step in the Suzuki reaction?
A) Oxidative addition of R-X to the palladium catalyst
B) Substitution of the R group to the palladium catalyst
C) Transfer of the alkyl group from the organoborane to palladium
D) Reductive elimination of R-R, forming the new C-C bond
Q2) Which of the following is true about the use of the Grubbs catalyst?
A) The Grubbs catalyst is used in carbon-carbon coupling reactions.
B) The Grubbs catalyst is used in alkene metathesis.
C) The Grubbs catalyst is used in carbene formation.
D) The Grubbs catalyst is used with palladium as a co-catalyst.
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true about a carbene?
A) A carbene is a neutral reactive intermediate.
B) A carbene contains a divalent carbon.
C) A carbene is sp<sup>3</sup> hybridized.
D) A carbene is surrounded by six electrons.
Q4) Which of the following correctly describes a reaction yielding a dichorocarbene?
A) The reaction of chloroform with KOC(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>.
B) The reaction of chloroform with Zn(Cu).
C) The reaction of chloroform with (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>CuLi.
D) The reaction of diazomethane with KOC(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>.
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Chapter 27: Pericyclic Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about pericyclic reactions is true?
A) Pericyclic reactions occur by way of ionic intermediates.
B) Pericyclic reactions occur by way of radical intermediates.
C) Pericyclic reactions involve multiple steps.
D) Reactive intermediates are not formed in pericyclic reactions.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the Cope rearrangement is not true?
A) The Cope rearrangement involves the rearrangement of a 1,5-diene to an isomeric 1,5-diene.
B) The Cope rearrangement takes place readily in a suprafacial pathway under photochemical conditions.
C) The Cope rearrangement involves three electron pairs; two in \(\pi\) bonds and one in a \(\sigma\) bond.
D) The Cope rearrangement takes place readily in a suprafacial pathway, when heated.
Q3) What are the two modes of bond formation in cycloaddition reactions?
A) suprafacial and antarafacial bond formations.
B) superfacial and antifacial bond formations.
C) suprafacial and synfacial bond formations.
D) synfacial and antifacial bond formations.
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Chapter 28: Carbohydrates
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Q1) What is the process called for the interconversion of one anomer to the other?
A) racemization
B) mutarotation
C) epimerization
D) enolization
Q2) The branching units in amylopectin, a polysaccharide, which enable this molecule to be water soluble are connected with __________________________ linkages.
A) "\(\beta\)-1,4'-glycosidic"
B) "\(\alpha\)-1,4'-glycosidic"
C) "\(\alpha\)-1,6'-glycosidic"
D) "\(\beta\)-1,6'-glycosidic"
Q3) Amylose is a polysaccharide with ________________________ linkages.
A) "\(\beta\)-1,4'-glycosidic"
B) "\(\alpha\)-1,4'-glycosidic"
C) "\(\beta\)-1,6'-glycosidic"
D) "\(\alpha\)-1,6'-glycosidic"
Q4) Does a monosaccharide prefer to exist in the open-chain or closed-ring form?
A) open
B) closed
C) Both forms exist in equal ratios.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Amino Acids and Proteins
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Q1) What are the only non-covalent bonds that stabilize the tertiary structure of a peptide?
A) hydrogen bonds
B) disulfide bonds
C) Van der Waal bonds
D) ionic bonds
Q2) Why is the s-trans form of an amide bond more stable?
A) There is no s-cis form in an amide bond.
B) The oxygen is hydrogen-bonded with the nitrogen atom.
C) The nitrogen is able to be sp<sup>2</sup>-hybridized.
D) The more sterically bulky groups are farther apart.
Q3) What reagents would you use to convert acetaldehyde into alanine?
A) NH<sub>3</sub>
B) HCN
C) NaCN, NH<sub>4</sub>Cl
D) NaNH<sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 30: Lipids
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Q1) What is the first key enzyme required for the synthesis of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid?
A) protein Kinase C
B) synthase
C) transferase
D) COX (cyclic oxygenase)
Q2) What is (are) the basic subunits of terpenes?
A) cyclohexane
B) triacyl glycerols
C) isoprene
D) carbonyls
Q3) How can an unsaturated fatty acid be converted into a saturated fatty acid?
A) hydrogenation
B) hydration
C) ozonolysis
D) hydrolysis
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32
Chapter 31: Synthetic Polymers
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Q1) Which of the following initiators can be used for anionic chain-growth polymerization?
A) benzoyl peroxide
B) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>Li
C) BF<sub>3</sub>
D) Al(CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>, TiCl<sub>4</sub>
Q2) What is the purpose of plasticizers?
A) to harden plastics
B) to soften plastics
C) to initiate polymerizations
D) to cross-link polymer chains
Q3) Which one of the following monomers undergoes anionic polymerization most readily?
A) H<sub>2</sub>C=CH<sub>2</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>C=CHCH<sub>3</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>C=C(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>C=CHCN
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