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Fundamentals of Nutrition introduces students to the basic principles of human nutrition, emphasizing the functions, sources, and requirements of nutrients essential for health and well-being. The course explores macronutrients and micronutrients, digestion and absorption processes, dietary guidelines, and the relationship between nutrition and chronic disease prevention. Students will gain an understanding of how nutritional needs vary across the lifespan and how cultural, social, and economic factors influence food choices and dietary patterns. This foundational knowledge equips students to make informed decisions about diet and health, both personally and professionally.
Recommended Textbook Wardlaws Perspectives in Nutrition 9th Edition by Carol Byrd Bredbenner
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Q1) Water-soluble vitamins are excreted more readily than fat-soluble vitamins.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which is a trace mineral?
A) sodium
B) calcium
C) iron
D) potassium
Answer: C
Q3) A vital component of the body,acting as a solvent,lubricant,temperature regulator,and transport medium for waste material,is
A) fat.
B) carbohydrate.
C) protein.
D) water.
Answer: D
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Q1) What eating behavior does MyPlate encourage?
A) Make half your plate vegetables.
B) Make half your plate grains.
C) Make at least half your grains whole grains.
D) Switch to fat-free or low-fat milk.
E) Both C and D.
Answer: E
Q2) When vitamins and/or minerals are added to a food product in amounts in excess of at least 10% above that originally present in the product,the food is designated as A) light or lite.
B) organic.
C) imitation.
D) fortified.
Answer: D
Q3) Those who frequently eat at fast foods restaurants have an increased risk for obesity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The U.S.government agency that administers most food and nutrition assistance programs is the
A) Food and Drug Administration.
B) United States Department of Agriculture.
C) Department of Health and Human Services.
D) Environmental Protection Agency.
Answer: B
Q2) The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)benefits
A) only low-income women, infants, and children.
B) poor households that meet eligibility guidelines.
C) food banks and pantries in communities across the country.
D) seniors in adult day-care settings.
Answer: B
Q3) Recombinant bovine somatotropin is used by some farmers to
A) prevent skin infections in cattle.
B) increase milk production in dairy cows.
C) prevent mastitis (inflammation of cow udders).
D) increase the amount of protein found in milk.
Answer: B
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Q1) Functions of the large intestine include
A) housing bacterial flora that keep the GI tract healthy.
B) absorption of water and electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium.
C) the defecation of feces.
D) All of these responses are correct.
Q2) Most of the water in the gastrointestinal tract is absorbed in the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A main cause of intestinal gas formation is
A) a lack of bacteria in the large intestine.
B) the breakdown of undigested carbohydrates by bacteria in the large intestine.
C) insufficient bile production for fat digestion and absorption.
D) All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Rotavirus infection causes
A) stomach blockage and severe pain.
B) inflammation of the pancreas and severe pain.
C) severe diarrhea and dehydration.
D) peptic ulcer formation.
Q5) Describe the functions of 4 major hormones specific to the digestive process.
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Q1) Glycogen is made of glucose units linked by beta bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the inflammatory phase of diverticulitis,treatment includes antibiotics and a diet that is
A) low in fiber.
B) high in fiber.
C) low in sugar.
D) high in sugar.
Q3) The human brain and other nerve tissues use mostly _________________ as fuel.
A) fructose
B) protein
C) ethanol
D) glucose
Q4) The enzyme sucrase breaks down sucrose into
A) glucose + glucose.
B) lactic acid.
C) glucose + fructose.
D) glucose + maltose.

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Q5) What foods do individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU)need to avoid?
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Q1) LDL clearance in the plasma is mediated via the ______ receptor.
A) B-48
B) B-100
C) CII
D) A
Q2) Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)is associated with
A) glucose metabolism.
B) omega-3 fatty acid metabolism.
C) omega-6 fatty acid metabolism.
D) cholesterol metabolism.
Q3) Monounsaturated fatty acids
A) are liquid at room temperature.
B) have one double bond in the fatty acid chain.
C) lower cholesterol.
D) All of these responses are correct.
Q4) All the following are good sources of omega 3 fatty acids EXCEPT.
A) walnuts
B) salmon
C) avocados
D) flax seed oil
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Q1) A vegan will eat
A) only fruits, nuts, honey, and vegetable oils.
B) dairy products, eggs, and fish.
C) dairy products and plant foods.
D) only foods from plant sources.
Q2) Which bodily function is not associated with protein?
A) blood clotting.
B) fluid balance.
C) cell growth and repair.
D) sparing glucose for energy use.
Q3) Nitrogen makes up approximately _____ of the weight of an amino acid.
A) 8%
B) 16%
C) 24%
D) 32%
Q4) Signs of protein deficiency may include A) edema.
B) mild to moderate weight loss.
C) poor resistance to infection.
D) All of these choices are accurate.
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Q1) Alcohol absorption occurs in the A) stomach.
B) small intestine.
C) esophagus.
D) stomach and small intestine.
Q2) Describe 3 of the factors that increase the risk of developing alcohol dependency or alcohol abuse.
Q3) Alcoholics often have trouble with night blindness.This results from
A) impaired absorption of several B-vitamins.
B) fluid accumulation in the eye.
C) damage to brain cells.
D) impaired absorption and transport of vitamin A.
Q4) A standard drink contains _____ grams of alcohol.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 25
Q5) List 3 of the leading causes of death in North America that are associated with excessive consumption of alcohol.
Q6) What are 4 symptoms that might indicate that someone has a problem with alcohol?
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Q1) In fatty acid synthesis,the "starting" molecule is
A) glycerol.
B) acetyl-CoA.
C) ATP.
D) pyruvate.
Q2) The major end products of the electron transport chain are
A) water, carbon dioxide and ATP.
B) glucose and amino acids.
C) dietary fiber and ammonia.
D) carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen.
Q3) Oxidative phosphorylation is the process by which
A) fatty acids break apart to form acetyl-CoA.
B) glucose breaks apart to form pyruvate.
C) amino groups move from a donor to an acceptor.
D) NADH + H<sup>+</sup> and FADH<sub>2</sub> are converted to NAD<sup>+</sup> and FAD, donating electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen.
E) energy derived from NADH + H<sup>+</sup> and FADH<sub>2</sub> is used to generate ATP.
Q4) Why can't typical fatty acids be used as substrates for gluconeogenesis?
Q5) Explain the meaning of the phrase: "fat burns in the flame of carbohydrates."
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Q1) The primary intent of gastroplasty is to A) speed transit time.
B) limit stomach volume.
C) prevent snacking.
D) All of these choices are correct.
Q2) The highest rate of weight-loss success and maintenance among people with morbid obesity is seen with
A) very-low-calorie diets (VLCDs).
B) jaw wiring.
C) gastroplasty.
D) commercial weight-loss programs.
Q3) The best predictor of your basal metabolic rate is
A) your exercise pattern.
B) what you had for breakfast.
C) your lean body mass.
D) environmental temperature.
Q4) As cholecystokinin secretion increases,appetite increases.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is quick weight loss usually a loss of fluid,protein,and glycogen?
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Q1) Females with athletic amenorrhea are best treated by a team that includes a physician,registered dietitian,psychologist,and certified athletic trainer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The suggested macronutrient intake for endurance athletes should be _____ from carbohydrates,______ from protein,and ______ from fat.
A) 46%; 16%; 38%
B) 50%; 25%; 25%
C) 60%; 15%; 25%
D) 40%; 30%; 30%
Q3) During muscle-building regimes,how much protein should athletes consume?
A) 0.8 g/kg
B) 1.0 - 1.2 g/kg
C) 1.5 - 1.7 g/kg
D) 2.0 - 2.4 g/kg
Q4) Design a diet for an endurance athlete who wants to carbohydrate load.
Q5) The best exercise is one you want to continue to do.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The yellow-orange coloring of carotenoid-rich dark green vegetables is masked by the pigment
A) lycopene.
B) chlorophyll.
C) beta-carotene.
D) alpha-carotene.
Q2) A deficiency of vitamin A can lead to development of a condition called A) xerophthalmia.
B) osteomalacia.
C) jaundice.
D) scurvy.
Q3) Excess amounts of most fat-soluble vitamins are
A) stored in the liver or adipose tissue.
B) excreted via the kidneys.
C) stored in the pancreas.
D) all of the above are correct.
Q4) What trace mineral aids in vitamin E function?
Q5) List 3 symptoms of vitamin A toxicity.
Q6) List 3 symptoms noted in persons with vitamin A deficiency.
Q7) What supplements might you recommend for a 23-year old,female vegan?
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Q1) A nutrient-dense source of thiamin is
A) citrus fruits.
B) milk and milk products.
C) pork and pork products.
D) leafy green vegetables.
Q2) Scurvy is due to a deficiency of
A) vitamin
B) thiamin.
C) folate.
D) vitamin B-12.
Q3) Vitamin B-12 is absorbed in the A) stomach.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) ileum.
Q4) An excess intake of riboflavin either from diet or supplements is mainly
A) excreted in the urine.
B) excreted in bile and feces.
C) stored in all body cells.
D) stored in the liver.
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Q1) In addition to its role in bone development and maintenance,calcium is also required for
A) blood clotting, transmitting nerve impulses, and muscle contraction.
B) regulating potassium excretion, normal kidney function, and regulating intracellular water content.
C) phospholipid synthesis, muscle contraction, and formation of DNA and RNA.
D) blood clotting, magnesium absorption, and insulin release from the pancreas.
Q2) Most of the world's water consumption is for __________.
A) personal consumption for drinking, cooking, and bathing.
B) industrial consumption.
C) agriculture and irrigation.
D) None of these responses are correct.
Q3) The organs that are most likely to be damaged because of hypertension are the A) liver, pancreas, gastrointestinal tract, and lungs.
B) heart, brain, kidney, and eye.
C) liver, heart, pancreas, and kidney.
D) brain, eye, heart, lungs.
Q4) Describe several actions an individual can take to prevent hypertension.
Q5) Compare and contrast the characteristics of a high-sodium diet to that of a high-potassium diet.
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Q1) Cancers can metastasize to distant parts of the body via the blood or lymph to form invasive tumors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When large doses of zinc are consumed,the excess is excreted primarily via A) the sweat.
B) the urine.
C) the feces.
D) expired air.
Q3) All community water systems in the United States are currently fluoridated. A)True
B)False
Q4) The role of hydroxyfluorapatite is to A) enhance insulin sensitivity and prevent diabetes.
B) prevent dental caries.
C) improve the rate of growth in children.
D) prevent the development of anemia.
Q5) Should fluoridation of water be mandatory for all municipal water supplies?
Q6) Describe the symptoms of iodine deficiency.
Q7) List 3 functions of iron in the body.
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Q1) For the pregnant woman,the RDA for protein increases by ___ over prepregnancy needs.
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 50%
Q2) Milk production in breastfeeding is determined by infant demand.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Low maternal calorie intakes are linked with low birth weights.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Edema during late pregnancy is a problem if A) hypertension is detected.
B) excess protein is found in the urine.
C) extreme fluid retention occurs.
D) All of these choices are correct.
E) None of these choices are correct.

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Q1) To get a child to try a new food,
A) offer food rewards, such as a favorite dessert.
B) add sugar or butter to the food.
C) employ the "one bite" rule.
D) All of these choices are accurate.
Q2) Infants and children who do not grow at the expected rate for several months are more than likely experiencing
A) Epiphyseal growth.
B) Failure to thrive.
C) Physical depression.
D) Poor socialization.
Q3) Infant formula should be prepared with cold water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) High-protein diets are not good for infants
A) unless they are highly digestible proteins.
B) because they are hypoallergenic.
C) because the infant's kidneys cannot clear large amounts of urea every day.
D) All of these choices are accurate.
Q5) Why should leftover formula always be discarded?
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Q1) Insufficient intakes of ___ by adults may contribute to loss of taste sensations and delayed wound healing.
A) magnesium
B) zinc
C) folate
D) vitamin B-12
Q2) Which is NOT a current hypothesis about the cause of aging?
A) Blood concentrations of hormones change.
B) Cells can divide about 50 times, and then they die.
C) The immune system becomes less able to recognize and destroy foreign substances.
D) Connective tissue stiffens and reduces flexibility.
E) All of these are current hypotheses about the cause of aging.
Q3) Which determines the rate of aging?
A) Genetics
B) Lifestyle
C) Environment
D) All of these choices are accurate.
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