Fundamentals of Nutrition
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Nutrition introduces students to the essential principles of human nutrition, exploring the role of nutrients in health, disease prevention, and overall wellbeing. The course covers the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of macronutrients (carbohydrates, proteins, and fats) and micronutrients (vitamins and minerals), as well as the importance of water and phytochemicals. Students will examine dietary guidelines, nutritional labeling, and the influences of lifestyle, culture, and environment on food choices. The course also addresses issues related to energy balance, weight management, and the impact of nutrition across the lifespan, providing a foundation for making informed dietary decisions.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 9th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The essential nutrients are those _____.
A) the body can make for itself
B) that are predominant in most foods
C) that must be obtained from foods
D) included in the main DRI table
E) that are most easily used as fuel by the body
Answer: C
Q2) Foods such as potato chips, candy, and colas are called empty-kcalorie foods because they _____.
A) are inexpensive
B) are lacking in calories
C) are low in nutrient density
D) should be eaten in moderation
E) are mostly vitamins and minerals
Answer: C
Q3) There is no nationally accepted definition for the term nutritionist.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Experts agree that moderate amounts of sugar in the diet may pose a number of major health risks.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Soluble fiber can help reduce blood cholesterol levels by _____
A) converting cholesterol into vitamin D
B) binding cholesterol and carrying it out of the body with the feces
C) blocking the absorption of bile
D) preventing the production of bile
E) blocking the production of insulin
Answer: B
Q3) Excessive sugar consumption contributes to the development of _____.
A) cancer
B) type 1 diabetes
C) dental caries
D) hyperactive behavior in children
E) hyperactive behavior in adults
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nuts may protect against heart disease because they ____.
A) are high in saturated fat
B) are low in vegetable protein, fiber, and vitamin E
C) contain phytochemicals
D) are high in monounsaturated fats
E) contain omega-6 fatty acids
Answer: C
Q2) Which type of nut seems to exert the most favorable effect on blood lipid levels?
A) peanuts
B) pecans
C) walnuts
D) macadamia
E) Brazil nuts
Answer: C
Q3) Not all fatty acids have the same cholesterol-raising effect.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of protein breakdown and synthesis is called ____.
A) protein recovery
B) the protein cycle
C) protein turnover
D) protein rotation
E) protein genesis
Q2) An important buffer that helps maintain the acid-base balance of the blood is ____.
A) hemoglobin
B) an electrolyte
C) albumin
D) structural
E) an antibody
Q3) What are the possible risks associated with overconsumption of protein?
Q4) Discuss potential problems with the use of amino acid supplements.
Q5) Under which conditions will dietary protein not be used efficiently by the body, regardless of the quality? Why does this occur?
Q6) Under special circumstances, a nonessential amino acid can become essential.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) A benefit of fiber is that it ____.
A) promotes mineral absorption
B) aids in keeping stools soft
C) inhibits peristalsis
D) keeps individual foods from getting mixed together
E) speeds excretion of toxins
Q2) After absorption, the larger fats and fat-soluble vitamins are first released into the ____ transport system.
A) excretory
B) mesentery
C) vascular
D) lymphatic
E) digestible
Q3) A component of pancreatic juice which functions to neutralize acidic chyme as it enters the small intestine is called ____.
A) bile
B) a bolus
C) an emulsifier
D) intestinal flora
E) bicarbonate
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Chapter 6: Metabolism Energy Balance and Body
Composition
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Q1) A person will typically expend _____% of their daily energy budget on basal metabolism.
A) 25-30
B) 30-35
C) 50-65
D) 10-15
E) 80-90
Q2) Identify and briefly describe five factors that affect a person's basal metabolic rate.
Q3) Describe the criteria that indicate if an individual's diet regimen was developing into a disorder like anorexia nervosa.
Q4) Explain why less fat may be lost during fasting than is lost when at least some food is supplied.
Q5) The thermic effect of food represents about _____% of the total food energy taken in.
A) 4
B) 10
C) 16
D) 25
E) 2
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Weight Management Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) Weight-loss surgeries _____.
A) reduce the capacity of the stomach
B) are dangerous and should be avoided
C) have no complications
D) worsen existing health conditions associated with obesity
E) are only rarely successful
Q2) Why are fad diets appealing to a lot of people?
Q3) Most obese people have leptin deficiency.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The psychological desire to eat is referred to as _____.
A) satiety
B) appetite
C) hunger
D) obesity
E) hypothalamism
Q5) Describe strategies for successful weight gain.
Q7) Discuss the role of environmental stimuli in the development of obesity. Page 9
Q6) Discuss the pros and cons of gastric bypass and gastric banding surgeries for weight loss.
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Page 10
Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Q1) Which vitamin can be used as a pharmacological agent for the treatment of high cholesterol?
A) thiamin
B) vitamin E
C) niacin
D) vitamin C
E) vitamin K
Q2) Ascorbic acid is another name for _____.
A) niacin
B) thiamin
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin B
E) vitamin D
Q3) Which condition is the major cause of preventable childhood blindness in the world?
A) vitamin C deficiency
B) riboflavin deficiency
C) pantothenic acid deficiency
D) vitamin A deficiency
E) macular degeneration
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Page 11
Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Q1) Pica is a behavior seen in some people who are deficient in _____.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) chromium
D) iron
E) selenium
Q2) Identify four groups of individuals in the U.S. who are at risk for developing zinc deficiency and briefly describe the rationale for including each group.
Q3) The percentage of dietary iron normally absorbed is about _____.
A) 10-15%
B) 20-25%
C) 25-40%
D) 45-65%
E) 70-80%
Q4) Fluoride seems to be helpful in preventing _____.
A) cancer
B) diabetes
C) dental decay
D) heart disease
E) goiter
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Chapter 10: Fitness and Nutrition
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Q1) VO max refers to maximal _____.
A) oxygen uptake
B) pulse rate
C) repetitions
D) resistance
E) flexibility
Q2) Iron-deficiency anemia hinders exercise performance by limiting the amount of _____ available to muscles.
A) oxygen
B) hydrogen
C) glycogen
D) hemoglobin
E) carbon dioxide
Q3) How does iron deficiency impair physical performance and how can this be remedied?
Q4) Areas of the body that have the most fat to spare donate the greatest amounts of fatty acids to the blood during exercise.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe some of the conditioning effects of cardiorespiratory training.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Academy of Pediatrics and the American Dietetic Association recommend that infants breastfeed with complementary foods for the first _____ months of life.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 6
D) 12
E) 15
Q2) Women who enter pregnancy with iron-deficiency anemia have a greater risk of _____.
A) preterm delivery
B) excessive weight gain
C) inadequate weight gain
D) gestational diabetes
E) macular degeneration
Q3) Increasing maternal fluid intake does not increase breast milk volume.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the nutrient needs of a breastfeeding woman.
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Q5) What can maternity facilities do to encourage women to breastfeed their infants?
Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span Infancy
Childhood and Adolescence
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Q1) The easiest and most practical way to control the amount of candy and carbonated drinks a child consumes is to _____.
A) prevent the child from knowing of their existence
B) never let the child visit his grandparents
C) limit the availability of these items
D) teach the child that such foods are highly noxious
E) let the child eat as much as they want until they don't want them anymore
Q2) Adolescents eat about _____ of their meals away from home, which can either enhance or hinder their nutritional well-being based on the choices they make.
A) one fourth
B) one third
C) half
D) two thirds
E) three fourths
Q3) Allergic reactions to multiple foods are common, while reactions to single foods are the exception.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the nutrients most often found lacking in the diets of teenagers.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Through the Life Span Later Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DRI for vitamin B for adults over 51 is _____.
A) 2.4 mg/day
B) 0.24 mg/day
C) 2.4 µg/day
D) 4.0 µg/day
E) 4.2 µg /day
Q2) The antioxidant nutrients and phytochemicals in fruits and vegetables may help slow the progression of _____.
A) Alzheimer's
B) type 1 diabetes
C) cataracts
D) senile dementia
E) urinary tract infections
Q3) A deficiency in _____ can depress the appetite and blunt the sense of taste.
A) selenium
B) copper
C) iron
D) calcium
E) zinc
Q4) Why are some elderly people at risk of developing vitamin D deficiency?
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Illness and Nutrition Care
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Q1) Diet manuals are least likely to contain information about ____.
A) foods that are allowed
B) foods that not allowed
C) the principles of nutrition education
D) rationale and indications for the use of diets
E) sample menus for each diet
Q2) Serum protein values can be affected by fluid imbalances, pregnancy, infections, and some medications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which measurement is used in infancy to assess brain development?
A) abdominal girth
B) fatfold
C) head circumference
D) height and weight
E) weight only
Q4) Nutrition care is described in the medical record in various ways, but one of the most popular is the SOAP note.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Medications - Diet Drug Interactions - and Herbal Supplements
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Q1) Which type of drug may cause unintentional weight gain?
A) antipsychotics
B) antiretrovirals
C) antinauseants
D) antibiotics
E) antihistamines
Q2) Which food has been shown to raise blood levels of a variety of medications?
A) bananas
B) grapefruit juice
C) tomato juice
D) oranges
E) apples
Q3) OTC drugs _____.
A) have no side effects
B) often were first prescription drugs
C) do not interact with other medications
D) are the same as generic drugs
E) usually cost more than prescription drugs
Q4) Could either of the dietary supplements Mr. Hare is taking interact with his prescription medications? If so, which ones and why?
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Chapter 16: Specialized Nutrition Support - Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Q1) If a patient tolerates a formula after it is initiated, the rate of a continuous feeding should be increased by 30 milliliters per hour every 8 hours.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lipid emulsions that contain excessive linoleic acid may _____.
A) hamper immune responses
B) minimize negative nitrogen balance
C) spare vital protein
D) contribute to hyperglycemia
E) cause diarrhea
Q3) Compared to enteral nutrition, parenteral nutrition _____.
A) carries a greater risk of complications
B) is less expensive initially
C) can be used for longer periods of time
D) requires hospitalization
E) is not usually associated with critically ill persons
Q4) Describe characteristics of patients who are candidates for PPN.
Q5) When a patient is being tube fed, he or she cannot eat food.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Foods and Food Consistency for Upper Gi Disorders
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Q1) Which criterion is not a factor for determining whether a particular food is allowed on a clear-liquid diet?
A) its transparency
B) the amount of digestion required
C) its nutrient density
D) the amount of residue left in the colon
E) that it is liquid at room temperature
Q2) In the dietary treatment of gastritis, irritating foods and beverages should be eliminated regardless of whether the patient is experiencing symptoms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient with oropharyngeal dysphagia has difficulty transferring food from the _____ to the _____.
A) esophagus; stomach
B) stomach; duodenum.
C) pharynx; larynx
D) mouth; glottis.
E) mouth; esophagus
Q4) Differentiate between clear-liquid and full-liquid diets.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Fiber-Modified Diets for Lower Gastrointestinal
Tract Disorders
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Q1) Should Mr. Fruge develop diverticulitis in the future, how would the dietary recommendations change?
Q2) Which foods will provide sufficient probiotic bacteria to influence the bacterial population in the large intestine?
A) two servings of margarine
B) one serving of yogurt
C) two servings of cottage cheese
D) one serving of honey
E) one serving of chicory
Q3) Ulceritive colitis always involves the _____.
A) esophagus
B) stomach
C) duodenum
D) ileum
E) rectum
Q4) A high-fiber diet increases stool weight and fecal water content.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
Q5) Describe important components of nutrition management for people with ostomies.
Q6) What dietary recommendations should the dietitian discuss with Mr. Fruge?
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Page 22
Chapter 19: Carbohydrate - and Fat Modified Diets for
Malabsorption Disorders
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Q1) What does Kati need to understand about the role of oats in her diet?
A) She should purchase only uncontaminated oats and consume limited quantities.
B) She should not consume oats in any form.
C) She should limit her consumption of oats to 1 cup of dry rolled oats per day.
D) She will need to learn how to prepare oats correctly for consumption.
E) She will need to always mix oats with proteins.
Q2) The target for the hormone erythropoietin is the _____.
A) lungs
B) kidney
C) bone marrow
D) heart
E) liver
Q3) Which laboratory test can diagnosis lactose intolerance?
A) stool fat test
B) biopsy
C) hydrogen breath test
D) xylose absorption
E) endoscopy
Q4) Describe dietary concerns for someone who is lactose intolerant.
Q5) What complications might Julia develop as she gets older?
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Chapter 20: Nutrition Therapy for Liver and Gallbladder Diseases
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Q1) paracentesis
A)itchy skin associated with bile obstruction
B)primary plasma protein synthesized by the liver
C)neurological condition associated with advanced liver disease
D)virus transmitted sexually or via contaminated blood; a vaccine is available
E)immunosuppressant drug given after a liver transplant
F)composed of mucus, cholesterol crystals and bilirubin granules
G)procedure that removes fluid associated with ascites
H)increased levels associated with liver disease impair neurotransmitter production
I)carries blood to the liver from the digestive tract
J)virus spread via infected blood and needles; no vaccine is available
Q2) The most common cause of hepatitis A virus infection is _____.
A) exposure to infected blood
B) jaundice
C) fecal-oral contamination
D) sexual contact
E) contaminated food
Q3) What symptoms did Marcia have that are consistent with a diagnosis of cholelithiasis?
Page 24
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Chapter 21: Carbohydrate Controlled Diets for Diabetes
Mellitus
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Q1) A patient with diabetes is allowed 60 grams of carbohydrate for lunch. This equals _____ portions of carbohydrate-containing foods.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Q2) The simplest and most flexible approach for Mr. Joiner to use for optimal management of his blood glucose level is _____.
A) carbohydrate counting
B) food lists
C) MyPyramid
D) a high-protein diet
E) the DASH diet
Q3) Describe hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome of type 2 diabetes.
Q4) Prediabetes is diagnosed when a person has a fasting blood glucose level that falls between 100 and 125 mg/dL.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Fat Controlled - Mineral Modified Diets for
Cardiovascular Diseases
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Q1) Fibrates and nicotinic acid _____.
A) lower blood triglycerides and raise HDL
B) lower HDL and increase LDL
C) lower blood triglycerides and HDL
D) raise both HDL and LDL
E) have no effect on blood lipid levels
Q2) Regular aerobic activity can reduce CHD risk by providing all of these benefits except _____.
A) strengthening the cardiovascular system
B) promoting weight loss
C) reducing blood pressure
D) improving blood glucose and lipid levels
E) lowering HDL levels
Q3) The primary dietary recommendation for heart failure is protein restriction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Adaptive utensils and adequate training enable some people with feeding disabilities to be independent.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Protein - Mineral - and Fluid Modified Diets for Kidney Diseases
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Q1) Supplements of _____ should be restricted in patients at risk for kidney stones.
A) fat-soluble vitamins
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin D
D) folic acid
E) vitamin C
Q2) Describe the two major consequences of kidney stones.
Q3) Individuals with impaired kidney function due to acute kidney injury may show accumulation of _____ in the blood.
A) ammonia
B) iron
C) potassium
D) urea
E) proteins
Q4) Adults with chronic kidney disease frequently develop wasting and PEM.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the likely cause of Mr. Forbes' second trip to the emergency room with back pain?
Q6) What are kidney stones and how do they develop? Page 27
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Chapter 24: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Q1) Mr. Morgan is an acutely stressed patient in intensive care who is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Monitoring Mr. Morgan's blood _____ levels can help to ensure that excessive amounts of nutrients are not given intravenously.
A) glucose
B) cholesterol
C) trace mineral
D) albumin
E) uric acid
Q2) Which symptom is not part of the systemic inflammatory response?
A) fever
B) elevated heart rate
C) increased respiratory rate
D) elevated white blood cell count
E) acidosis
Q3) When pulmonary edema is present, a patient requires _____.
A) tube feeding
B) fluid restriction
C) increased fluids
D) decreased protein
E) increased ventilation
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Chapter 25: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Cancer and HIV Infection
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Q1) Most often, cancer is caused by interactions between a person's genes and environmental agents.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Obese women have a higher risk of breast cancer than lean women because _____.
A) obese women have higher levels of estrogen
B) obese women eat high-fat diets
C) lean women exercise more
D) lean women have higher levels of estrogen in the body
E) obese woman have genetic factors that predispose them to cancer
Q3) Mrs. Dwyer is a 48-year-old patient who is undergoing chemotherapy for uterine cancer. She complains of sores, swelling, and redness in her mouth. Mrs. Dwyer has developed _____.
A) oral mucositis
B) radiation enteritis
C) steatorrhea
D) mental stress
E) anorexia
Page 30
Q4) What factors contribute to the development of cancer cachexia?
Q5) How might fruits and vegetables reduce the risks of some cancers?
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