Fundamentals of Nursing Test Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Nursing introduces students to the foundational concepts, principles, and skills essential for professional nursing practice. The course covers topics such as the nursing process, health assessment, patient safety, infection control, and basic care techniques. Emphasis is placed on effective communication, ethical and legal considerations, critical thinking, and cultural sensitivity in delivering holistic patient-centered care. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and hands-on laboratory practice, students develop competence in essential nursing interventions and prepare for clinical placements in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 16th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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30 Chapters
749 Verified Questions
749 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hospital nursing excellence center for education developed standards for nursing advancement that would reflect high-level achievement of professional performance.They developed a clinical advancement ladder based on the leading skill and knowledge acquisition model and established worthy criteria for each level.Select the response that might best describe the highest level of achievement for a perioperative staff nurse.
A) Certified nurse, OR (CNOR) credential, BSN, and chair of the nursing research committee
B) Published article in the hospital newsletter and 15 years' service pin
C) BCLS instructor and weekend Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) transport
D) Patient safety champion and nurses' union representative
Answer: A
Q2) Ensuring a rapid recovery from anesthesia and discharging the patient when it is safe to so is one goal of ambulatory surgery.Factors that may contribute to a delayed discharge include:
A) prompt administration of opiates for pain relief.
B) early postoperative oral intake.
C) use of a forced air-warming blanket.
D) administration of a preoperative fluid bolus.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical patients are at risk for development of pressure injuries due to extrinsic factors such as length of surgery and intrinsic factors such as co-morbidities and age.The most important factor in prevention of such pressure injuries is:
A) use of a transfer sheet to decrease friction.
B) use of sheets or blankets to position patients.
C) completion of a preoperative risk assessment and skin assessment.
D) reviewing the guidelines for patient positioning in surgery.
Answer: C
Q2) A patient was positioned,prepped,and draped following general endotracheal anesthesia induction.The team assembled to perform the time-out as described in the WHO surgical checklist.Successful employment of the time-out can only be ensured when:
A) the time-out is initiated by the surgeon.
B) each member of the team has an equal role and voice.
C) perioperative services have a physician champion and surgeon buy-in.
D) the checklist is committed to memory by all team members.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elevated noise levels and distractions in the OR can make communication difficult and may impact patient safety.Behavioral noise reduction strategies may include:
A) implementing a No Interruption Zone (NIZ) during the preprocedure time-out.
B) counting instruments quietly after the patient enters the room.
C) playing music softly.
D) turning off alarms.
Answer: A
Q2) Waste anesthetic gases are small amounts of gases that may leak either from the patient's anesthetic breathing circuit into the OR air while anesthesia is being administered or from exhalation of the patient during recovery.Both mechanisms of exposure create risks for OR personnel.What is an effect of short-term exposure for the healthcare worker?
A) Spontaneous abortion
B) Infertility
C) Cancer
D) Lethargy and fatigue
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Infection Prevention and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) An integrator is a multiparameter indicator designed to measure:
A) time and pressure.
B) pressure, steam, and temperature.
C) temperature, time, and presence of steam.
D) sterility and pressure.
Q2) Sterile surgical drapes are used to create the sterile field,protecting the patient from endogenous and exogenous sources of contamination.Which action is essential to maintaining the sterile field?
A) Providing barrier protection from microorganisms, fluid, and particulate matter
B) Limiting environmental impact and flammability
C) Ensuring a fiscally responsible cost/benefit ratio and reducing glare
D) Selecting drapes that do not exhibit "memory" folds
Q3) The surgical hand scrub is designed to:
A) remove transient microorganisms and suppress resident microorganisms.
B) target a narrow range of microorganisms.
C) work slowly and depend on cumulative action.
D) fully sterilize the skin on the hands and arms.
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Chapter 5: Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient and family education are crucial for successful preanesthesia preparation.Which of the following information about regular medications should be provided as part of the preoperative preparation?
A) Oral hyperglycemic medications should be discontinued 3 days before surgery
B) Aspirin and aspirin-containing products can be taken until the evening before the surgery.
C) NSAIDs should be discontinued 4 days before surgery.
D) Warfarin should be discontinued 1 week before surgery.
Q2) The pulse oximeter is used during perioperative anesthesia monitoring.The "pulse ox" reading can be adversely affected by a number of events.Pulsatile blood flow to the distal extremities may be inadequate because of:
A) hyperthermia.
B) increased cardiac output.
C) hypervolemia.
D) malpositioning.
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Chapter 6: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lateral,lateral chest,and lateral kidney positions all place pressure on structures of the dependent side: ears,shoulder,ribs,hips,greater femoral head,knees,and ankles.The potential for injury to the patient is significant,based on these pressure areas.Which resultant injury or harm could be related to these lateral positions?
A) Diminished lung capacity of nondependent lung
B) Celiac plexus injury
C) Decreased blood return to the right side of the heart
D) Scalene node rupture
Q2) Recent studies on the relevance of the Braden pressure ulcer risk scale in the perioperative and critical care setting are inconclusive.In which perioperative setting would the Braden scale be most predictive as a baseline metric?
A) Postoperative
B) Intraoperative
C) Preoperative
D) Ambulatory
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8
Chapter 7: Sutures, sharps, and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are many different types of suturing techniques (stitches)in wound closure and tissue approximation.Which type of stitches are used to reinforce the primary suture line with heavy,strong suture material in an obese patient with high tension on the wound closure?
A) Interrupted stitches
B) Retention stitches
C) Purse-string stitches
D) Subcuticular stitches
Q2) A surgeon was teaching the new residents as he closed the muscle and fascia layer following an open cholecystectomy.He stated that he liked the tensile strength of this monofilamented synthetic suture,but it was hard to manage with its memory and slipperiness and normally needed six surgeon's knots to hold.He was using:
A) surgical polyester fiber.
B) polypropylene.
C) multifilament nylon.
D) surgical gut.
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Chapter 8: Surgical Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Direct coupling during the use of monopolar electrosurgery is caused by __________ and is usually within the control of the ______.
A) metal-to-metal sparking; the scrub person
B) metal to tissue; the scrub person
C) active burns; the surgeon
D) metal-to-metal sparking; the surgeon
Q2) A female patient arrived at the endoscopy center 2 days before her scheduled interventional bronchoscopy to receive an injection of a photosensitive intravenous dye that the pulmonologist explained would highlight the dysplastic tissues of her bronchi that were precancerous.He scheduled her for an ablative procedure called photodynamic therapy (PDT),where the highlighted tissues would be affected by the laser light that is color-specific for uptake of the dye.Select the laser tissue interaction that describes the patient's treatment.
A) Reflection
B) Absorption
C) Transmission
D) Scattering
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Chapter 9: Wound Healing, dressings, and Drains
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hydrotherapy for wound care was traditionally accomplished in an immersion bath whirlpool system.Because immersion in a tank is not practical from an intraoperative perspective,the hydrotherapy method most frequently used in the OR is:
A) hyperosmosis.
B) hydroirrigation.
C) pulsatile lavage.
D) water pik pressure-washout.
Q2) Identify the primary substance that composes a layer of the epidermis,is responsible for hardening nails and hair,and protects the body from fluid loss and invasion by pathogens.
A) Lipids
B) Keratin
C) Dermis
D) Collagen
Q3) Which statement best reflects the appropriate purpose of a surgical drain?
A) Drains can prevent the development of deep wound infections.
B) Drains allow optimal observation of the incisional site.
C) Drains provide a portal for antibiotic irrigation.
D) Drains can provide opportunities for wound aeration.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are many therapeutic management strategies that have been successful in treating PONV.What evidence-based practice best improves patient comfort,readiness for discharge,and satisfaction with care?
A) Administration of promethazine as soon as the patient complains of nausea
B) Pharmacologic prophylaxis
C) Prophylaxis paralleled with anesthesia induction
D) Administration of postoperative opioids
Q2) Select three appropriate components of the hand-off report from the perioperative nurse to the perianesthesia nurse as the patient is received in the PACU.
A) Allergies, incisions, dressings, and drains
B) Use of radiologic shielding of the patient in the OR
C) For pediatric patients, mother's perinatal history
D) Prognosis and presumed discharge date or time
E) Patient's identity and procedure performed
F) Opportunity for clarification and questions
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12
Chapter 11: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the McBurney incision is most correct?
A) It is an oblique inguinal incision in the left lower quadrant.
B) It is the incision of choice to repair a direct inguinal hernia.
C) It is an oblique inguinal incision in the right lower quadrant.
D) The direction is more transverse than oblique.
Q2) A 42-year-old woman has been diagnosed with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)without the dysplastic changes of Barrett's esophagus.Her GERD is unresponsive to proton pump inhibitors and histamine blockers.She also has a history of endometriosis with multiple surgeries for ablation of endometrial implants on her small bowel and adhesiolysis.Her surgeon is hesitant to pursue an open or a laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication surgical approach.Which procedure might her surgeon consider in lieu of a Nissen?
A) Thoracoabdominal partial esophagectomy
B) Endoscopic mucosal resection
C) Intraluminal plication of the lower esophageal segment
D) Heller's myotomy
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13
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Q1) The Whipple procedure is the removal of the head of the pancreas,the entire duodenum,a portion of the jejunum,the distal third of the stomach,and the ____________ as a surgical treatment for____________.
A) left lobe of the liver; metastatic hepatocytoma
B) distal segment of the spleen; pancreatic metastasis
C) inferior margin of the ligament of Treitz; pancreatic cancer
D) lower half of the common bile duct; pancreatic cancer
Q2) The donor liver OR is prepared for an open laparotomy procedure with basic laparotomy and vascular instruments and accessories.A second sterile,draped medium-sized instrument table is set up to receive and prepare the procured liver away from the main sterile field.Select the additional instruments and accessories needed on the donor organ preparation table.
A) Flushing solution, sterile plastic containers, and in situ flush tubing
B) Flushing solution, ice chest, sterile ice, powered sternal saw, and long Kocher clamps
C) Culture tubes, Wisconsin University forceps, Deaver retractors, and slush machine
D) Toothed forceps, vessel loops, two sterile plastic draw-string bags, and flushing solution
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Chapter 13: Hernia Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 86-year-old retired plumber states that he has suffered from a groin hernia all of his adult life; he states,"as far back as I can remember." Sometimes he has to push the bulge back into his abdominal wall and then he is fine until he has a coughing spell.This morning the bulge was large and tender when he woke up,and he could not reduce it.As the pain increased,he felt weak and nauseated.His daughter took him to the emergency department (ED).The patient was diagnosed with a strangulated incarcerated hernia and scheduled for emergency surgery.If the contents of the patient's hernia sac become compromised,with strangulation of the bowel,the probable label on his surgical specimen will be:
A) compromised bowel.
B) strangulated bowel.
C) necrotic bowel.
D) intestinal obstruction.
Q2) What is the anatomical component of the lining of the herniated abdominal weakness and the hernia sac?
A) Fascia
B) Peritoneum
C) Muscularis
D) Rectus abdominis muscle
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 67-year-old former competitive track athlete with debilitating osteoarthritis is scheduled for a laparoscopic-assisted vaginal hysterectomy (LAVH).During the preoperative assessment,she tells the perioperative nurse that,while she is in excellent health for her age,her hip and leg joints are tender,and her movement is limited.The nurse explains that during the procedure she will be "up in stirrups" but will be handled gently and protected from further discomfort.An appropriate nursing action,after the patient is transferred to the OR bed and before anesthesia induction,is to:
A) place her in the preferred lithotomy position and adjust to her position of comfort.
B) discuss muscle relaxation and analgesic medication options with the anesthesia provider.
C) discuss nonlithotomy positioning options with the surgeon.
D) use a heel suspension device.
Q2) An example of perineal glands that secrete mucus is:
A) Skene's glands.
B) Bartholin's glands.
C) perineal glands.
D) labial glands.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) An orthotopic neobladder is surgically created as a bladder substitute after a cystectomy,prostatectomy,or hysterectomy is performed for bladder cancer.Bladder substitution relies on meticulous dissection with preservation of the urinary sphincter and neurovascular bundles,as well as a watertight urethral anastomosis.Also termed the Le Bag continent diversion,which segments of the bowel and/or small intestine are used in this technique to create the neobladder?
A) Segment of sigmoid colon
B) Right colon and ileum
C) Proximal right colon segment with cecum
D) Transverse colon
Q2) TURP syndrome is a state of severe hyponatremia,caused by systemic absorption of irrigating fluid during the procedure.Select the sign/symptom that the anesthesia provider would report in a patient experiencing TURP syndrome.
A) Hypertension
B) Hyperthermia
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hypokalemia
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of antithyroid drugs that would be administered during a thyroid storm crisis would be:
A) sodium iodide solution and Lugol's solution.
B) propylthiouracil and methimazole.
C) guanethidine and ipodate sodium.
D) propranolol and lithium.
Q2) Thyroid storm can occur in patients whose hyperthyroidism is partially controlled or untreated.Thyrotoxic crisis can be precipitated by a stressful event,such as surgery.An example of nursing action(s)to reduce the risk of thyroid storm is to:
A) administer potassium iodide before transfer to the OR.
B) provide a quiet, calm atmosphere and help the patient relax.
C) provide comfort measures, including a cooling blanket.
D) provide a quiet, calm atmosphere and help the patient relax, and provide comfort measures, including a cooling blanket.
Q3) The primary function of the three thyroid hormones is to regulate:
A) energy metabolism.
B) body growth and development.
C) calcium storage in the bones.
D) blood calcium levels.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Breast Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 46-year-old woman is in the phase II postanesthesia care unit (PACU)after an excisional biopsy with sentinel lymph node (SLN)dissection.She is receiving her patient education as she prepares for discharge.The perioperative nurse has asked her to teach back the complications and side effects that could be observed after sentinel lymph node dissection.What information does the nurse expect to hear?
A) "The dye will make my urine blue for a few hours."
B) "I could have an allergic reaction to the dye, tingling, weakness, numbness, or pain in my arm."
C) "I could set off the security door alarms at the mall from the radioactive dye left in my veins."
D) "I will possibly be nauseous and could vomit from riding in the car on the way home."
Q2) Identify the marginal boundaries of the breasts.
A) Second to fifth rib horizontally, lateral edge of sternum to midclavicular line
B) Second to sixth rib horizontally, midsternum to midclavicular line
C) Second to sixth rib horizontally, lateral edge of sternum to anterior axillary line
D) Second to fifth rib horizontally, lateral edge of sternum to midaxillary line
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Chapter 18: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing for pars plana vitrectomy in the posterior segment,the perioperative nurse must be aware that a combined scleral buckling procedure may be necessary.Other important information the perioperative nurse should know before preparing the OR for the procedure includes the location of the ocular problem,the surgeon's plan to address the problem,and the instrumentation and biomedical equipment and devices to be used.Technologic advances in ophthalmic surgery require that perioperative nurses be familiar with complex biomedical equipment.A best practice,stated below,relevant to the safe use of complex equipment would be to:
A) determine the presence and appropriate date (not expired) of the biomedical monitoring label.
B) confirm competence through inservice education and training specific to new equipment.
C) schedule the manufacturer's representative to be present to provide technical support.
D) schedule the biomedical clinical engineer to check all equipment before each procedure.
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Chapter 19: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microlaryngoscopy facilitates improved diagnosis and allows the laryngologist to view,with relative ease,areas that previously were inaccessible or difficult to visualize.What are the two most common indications for microlaryngoscopy?
A) Chronic hoarseness and cough
B) Laryngeal polyps and nodules
C) Epiglottitis and frequent choking
D) Laryngeal injury and cancer
Q2) Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP)is performed primarily to relieve obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)and snoring.Select two common indications for UPPP surgery.
A) O saturation below 92%, and snoring
B) Cardiac dysrhythmia during sleep and awake, and snoring
C) O saturation below 80%, and apnea index worse than 20
D) O saturation below 85% on continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP), and apnea index below 20
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Chapter 20: Orthopedic Surgery
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Q1) Bone healing follows a logical sequence beginning with the formation of a hematoma.Select the action that typically occurs after formation of a hematoma.
A) Remodeling
B) Invasion of osteoblasts
C) Fibrin network formation
D) Callus formation
Q2) While not as prevalent as arthroplasty of the shoulder,knee,or hip,total elbow replacement is indicated for patients with traumatic lesions or excessive bone loss from rheumatic or degenerative arthritis,resulting in elbow instability and pain or bilateral elbow ankylosis.The prosthesis may be used with or without PMMA,depending on the quality of the diseased bone and the design of the implant.If PMMA is not used,what replacement product,element,or substance is used?
A) Synthetic bone putty
B) Autologous local bone graft
C) Hemostatic gel sponge with thrombin
D) Side plates, screws, and circumferential wires
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Chapter 21: Neurosurgery
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Q1) Achieving hemostasis in delicate areas can be a challenge for the neurosurgeon.In addition to using meticulous technique to prevent bleeding,topical agents are routinely used as an adjunct to hemostasis.Some hemostatic products form a composite clot that seals a bleeding site by using a thrombin component that converts fibrinogen in the patient's blood to fibrin.Select the two hemostatic products that provide hemostasis by topical application,essentially acting as a patch rather than a clotting factor.
A) Oxidized cellulose and topical thrombin
B) Bone wax and topical thrombin
C) Bone wax and oxidized cellulose
D) Gelatin matrix and collagen hemostat
Q2) What is the term for the bloodless plane that contains loose areolar tissue and permits mobility of the scalp?
A) Pericranial plane
B) Galea
C) Subgaleal space
D) Outer skull periosteum
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Chapter 22: Reconstructive and Aesthetic Plastic Surgery
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Q1) A 28-year-old firefighter sustained significant full-thickness burns when he fell through the roof of a burning building while fighting an explosive fire.Which of the following best describes the surgical treatments he will most likely need before he is discharged from the burn center to home?
A) Debridement and monitoring of full-thickness skin regeneration
B) Debridement, allograft placement during initial healing
C) Allograft and xenograft placement as temporary dressings until secondary granulation begins
D) Tangential excision of the burn wound with antibiotic-soaked dressings
Q2) Replantation is an attempt to reattach a completely amputated digit or other body part.Revascularization is the procedure performed on incomplete amputations,when the part remains attached to the body by skin,artery,vein,or nerve.Good candidates for replantation are those with which of the following amputations?
A) Almost any body part of a child
B) Proximal portion of the hand at palm level
C) Distal to middle foot
D) Distal to middle thigh
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Chapter 23: Thoracic Surgery
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Q1) During an endoscopic thoracic sympathectomy for hyperhidrosis,what action by the anesthesia provider ensures exposure and minimizes damage to the lung?
A) Positions the patient in the anterolateral position with an expandable axillary roll.
B) Decreases ventilatory pressure to decrease lung expansion during dissection.
C) Deflates the lung on recommendation of the surgeon during dissection and resection.
D) Decreases positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) until resection is complete.
Q2) Video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS)is a minimally invasive operative technique that has evolved over the past decade.It uses an endoscopic approach to visualize the thoracic cavity for diagnosis of pleural disease or treatment of pleural and lung conditions.In the adult,the surgeon creates a 2- to 3-cm incision between the ________ intercostal spaces for insertion of the 10- or 12-mm trocar.The trocar sites can also be used for insertion of a ____________.
A) fourth and sixth; robotic grasper
B) sixth and eighth; chest tube
C) fifth and seventh; zero-degree scope
D) sixth and eighth; video camera
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Chapter 24: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Doppler transducer is the most widely used instrument for vascular study.What statement regarding a Doppler is true?
A) Doppler probes are expensive but can be steam sterilized.
B) The Doppler probe can provide five different types of information.
C) Water-soluble gel is needed when the Doppler is used on intact skin.
D) The Doppler is valuable in detecting accurate findings in the presence of stenosis.
Q2) The perioperative nurse with the vascular surgery service is preparing to discharge a 51-year-old man who recently had endovascular surgery.The patient will be taking anticoagulation therapy for the next 12 weeks.Which statement regarding anticoagulation therapy is true and relevant to the patient?
A) Eat foods high in vitamin K, such as tomatoes, dark leafy vegetables, bananas, and fish.
B) Wear padding when engaging in contact sports.
C) Use only hair removal cream; do not use an electric razor.
D) Do not use tools such as saws or hammers, which could lead to an accident.
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Chapter 25: Cardiac Surgery
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Q1) Which statements regarding vascular clamps are true?
A) Vascular clamps are designed to partially occlude blood flow.
B) Vascular clamps are designed to totally occlude blood flow.
C) Vascular clamps are designed to hold vessels securely without trauma.
D) Vascular clamps have similar angles, box locks, ring handles, and ratchets.
Q2) An aneurysm of the LV can develop after a severe myocardial infarction.The affected area of the myocardium is replaced by thin scar tissue that can rupture.The LV undergoes remodeling when the scar stretches because of the left ventricular pressure and forms an aneurysm.Left ventricular aneurysmectomy (LVA)is the excision of an aneurysmal portion of the LV.LVA is a form of left ventricular reconstruction undertaken to optimize cardiac function.Select the appropriate nursing action in preparation for LVA surgery.
A) Place the patient in left lateral position.
B) Prepare for the procedure in the same manner as typical lung transplant surgery.
C) Have synthetic patch material and Teflon felt pledgets available.
D) Add 1, 2-0, and 4-0 cardiovascular sutures to set up.
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Chapter 26: Pediatric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The toddler uses symbols and engages in creative play.Toddlers are beginning to develop free will and control over their bodies.Which of the interventions below is age-appropriate for toddlers?
A) Sing songs from your own childhood that the child may be able to learn.
B) Give only simple choices and involve them in actions when possible.
C) Make up a story about their personal comfort item as you give it to their parent to keep.
D) Ask them about their concerns and offer information to decrease their fears.
Q2) During the planning process,the perioperative nurse determines nursing interventions that will assist in meeting the appropriate goal statement of the desired nursing outcome.What nursing interventions are appropriate,when implemented,in protecting the pediatric patient from hypothermia?
A) Keep the child covered as much as possible.
B) Adjust room temperature approximately 1 hour before arrival of the child.
C) Provide a radiant heat lamp during anesthesia induction.
D) Administer antibiotic prophylaxis.
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Chapter 27: Geriatric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Age-related changes cause decreased blood flow to the kidneys with a resultant decrease in nephron function.Which condition is created from the cumulative effect of the multiple drugs that the elderly patient will receive during the perioperative phase?
A) Adverse drug reaction
B) Polypharmacy psychosis
C) Weakened bladder muscle tone with urinary incontinence
D) Liver toxicity
Q2) Minimally invasive surgeries continue to increase in popularity.It seems logical that older patients would benefit from smaller incisions that produce less postoperative pain,atelectasis,and ileus.However,regardless of age,every surgical procedure possesses a certain amount of risk.Which minimally invasive surgical component can present hemodynamic and pulmonary consequences in patients with severe cardiac or pulmonary disease?
A) Robotic-assisted pelvic approach
B) CO pneumoperitoneum
C) Ultrasonic dissection
D) Radiofrequency ablation
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Chapter 28: Trauma Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blunt force to the larynx can result in a fracture and impose immediate airway obstruction.These patients are at risk for a lost airway and may require immediate tracheotomy followed by repair of the fracture when the fracture is unstable or displaced.It is also important to consider that a trauma patient is assumed to have a full stomach; thus,these patients are at high risk for aspiration and resultant pneumonia.What is an appropriate nursing action in the event of a lost airway after anesthesia induction and before intubation?
A) Assist the anesthesia provider with securing the airway while applying cricoid pressure.
B) Assist the anesthesia provider by inserting a nasogastric tube and connecting to suction.
C) Obtain emergency tracheostomy tray and trach tubes.
D) Increase the oxygen delivery and perform a head tilt-chin lift.
Q2) Focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST)may assist with diagnosis in difficult situations.Which group of scans is performed,and what do they identify?
A) Chest, pelvic, and four abdominal scans; collections of fluid and free air
B) Chest, abdominal, and cervical spine scans; hemorrhage
C) A full body scan; midline shifts
D) Upper and lower extremity scans; compartment syndrome
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Chapter 29: Interventional and Image-Guided Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The IR procedure that is used to correct a blocked or narrowed blood vessel and restore flow is called:
A) angioplasty.
B) venoplasty.
C) venogram.
D) Seldinger technique.
Q2) Angiography uses fluoroscopy and contrast to image anatomic and pathologic changes in vascular anatomy.What is an example of coronary angiography?
A) Ventriculography
B) Peripherally inserted central catheter insertion
C) Balloon-occluded retrograde obliteration
D) Peripheral vascular stent placement
Q3) What are the indications for using a power injector during an IR vascular procedure?
A) To propel contrast agents and emergency drugs into the arterial system
B) To bolus contrast media at a rapid preset flow rate
C) To provide torque to guide the catheter through stenosed vessels
D) To decrease the procedure and radiation exposure time for the patient
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Chapter 30: Integrative Health Practices: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) In many cultures,a naturalistic or holistic approach often assumes that there are external factors (some good,some bad)that must be kept in balance if we are to remain well.Select the balance system that is common across several cultural belief systems.
A) "open" and "closed"
B) "hot" and "cold"
C) "dawn" and dusk"
D) "fire" and "water"
Q2) A dietary supplement,as defined by the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA),is a product that contains several ingredients that are intended to supplement the individual's diet.Which ingredient is considered an appropriate additive to classify a product as a dietary supplement?
A) Water
B) Amino acid
C) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved coloring
D) Nonorganic fiber
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