Fundamentals of Nursing Test Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Nursing introduces students to the essential principles, concepts, and skills required for safe and effective patient care in various healthcare settings. This course emphasizes the nursing process, critical thinking, and evidence-based practice, while covering foundational topics such as infection control, patient safety, communication, basic human needs, and documentation. Students will develop hands-on competencies through laboratory and clinical experiences, preparing them to deliver holistic care and function as key members of the healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 9th Edition by Perry
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1281 Verified Questions
1281 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ is the extent to which a study's findings are valid,reliable,and relevant to your patient population of interest.
Answer: Scientific rigor
Q2) _________________ is a guide for making accurate,timely,and appropriate clinical decisions.
Answer: Evidence-based practice
Q3) Patient fall rates are an example of a ______________ type of study in the evidence hierarchy.
Answer: quality improvement data
Q4) A systematic review explains whether the evidence that you are searching for exists and whether there is good cause to change practice.In _____________,all entries include information on systematic reviews.Individual randomized controlled trials (RCTs)are the gold standard for research.
Answer: The Cochrane Database
Q5) While caring for patients,the professional nurse must question ________________.
Answer: what does not make sense
Q6) __________________ are the gold standard for research.
Answer: Randomized controlled trials
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Chapter 2: Admitting, transfer, and Discharge
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) While preparing for the patient's discharge,the nurse uses a discharge planning checklist and notes that the patient is concerned about going home because she has to depend on her family for care.The nurse realizes that successful recovery at home is often based on:
A)the patient's willingness to go home.
B)the family's perceived ability to care for the patient.
C)the patient's ability to live alone.
D)allowing the patient to make her own arrangements.
Answer: B
Q2) The patient is admitted to the unit for a cardiac catheterization.Which of the following can be delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP)?
A)Obtaining admission vital signs
B)Preparing the patient's room
C)Gathering and securing personal care items
D)Orienting patient and family to the nursing unit
Answer: B,C,D
Q3) When transferring a patient,the nurse must ensure that the patient will receive
Answer: continuity of nursing care
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Communication and Collaboration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient who says that she is feeling fine.The patient,however,is wringing her hands and is teary eyed.The nurse should respond to the patient in which of the following ways?
A)"You seem anxious today.Is there anything on your mind?"
B)"I'm glad you're feeling better.I'll be back later to help you with your bath."
C)"I can see you're upset.Let me get you some tissue."
D)"It looks to me like you're in pain.I'll get you some medication."
Answer: A
Q2) Lack of verbal communication for a therapeutic reason is known as ___________________.
Answer: therapeutic silence
Q3) Anxiety that is the source of inattention,decreased perceptual field,and diaphoresis is classified as ____________________.
Answer: moderate anxiety
Q4) An active process of receiving information that nonverbally communicates to the patient the nurse's interest and acceptance is classified as _____________.
Answer: listening
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Chapter 4: Documentation and Informatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Standardized care plans are effective ways to plan care for the patient.To be most effective,however,the SCP must be _________________.
Q2) ___________________ provide a format for documenting a patient's health status and progress.
Q3) To limit liability,nursing documentation must clearly indicate that the nurse provided individualized,goal-directed nursing care to a patient based on the _____________________.
Q4) Which of the following is the best example of objective charting?
A)"The patient states that he has been having severe chest discomfort."
B)"The patient is lying in bed and seems to be in considerable pain."
C)"The patient appears to be pale and diaphoretic and complains of nausea."
D)"The patient's skin is ashen and respiratory rate is 32 and labored."
Q5) What is the goal of information management?
A)Support decision making.
B)Improve patient outcomes.
C)Ensure patient safety.
D)Improve health care documentation.
Q6) A patient's private health information is legally protected by the ________________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is about to teach the patient about risk factors for hypertension.Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension?
A)Obesity
B)Cigarette smoking
C)High blood cholesterol
D)Renal disease
Q2) The patient is brought to the emergency department complaining of severe shortness of breath.She is cyanotic and her extremities are cold.In an attempt to quickly assess the patient's respiratory status,the nurse should:
A)remove the patient's nail polish to get a pulse oximetry reading.
B)use a forehead probe to get a pulse oximetry reading.
C)use a finger probe to get a pulse oximetry reading.
D)check the color of the patient's nail polish before attempting a reading.
Q3) The patient has been sleeping and has been lying on his right side.The nurse is ready to take his temperature using a tympanic thermometer.She needs to insert the thermometer into his ___________ ear.
Q4) An inefficient contraction of the heart that fails to transmit a pulse wave to the peripheral pulse site creates a ____________.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) While performing a cardiovascular assessment on a patient with suspected left-sided congestive heart failure,the nurse is unable to palpate the PMI with the patient lying supine.What might her next step be?
A)Have the patient turn onto his left side.
B)Have the patient lean forward.
C)Have the patient move to a sitting position.
D)Palpate the PMI to the right of the midclavicular line.
Q2) Petechiae are noted on the patient as a result of the nurse finding:
A)bluish-black patches.
B)tenting.
C)pinpoint-sized red dots.
D)large areas of raised,irritated skin.
Q3) Measurement of the patient's ability to differentiate between sharp and dull sensations over the forehead tests which cranial nerve?
A)Abducens
B)Facial
C)Trigeminal
D)Oculomotor
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Chapter 7: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______________ organisms grow in superficial wounds exposed to the air.
Q2) What step should the nurse take to obtain a vaginal specimen for a culture?
A)Apply sterile gloves.
B)Assist the patient to a side-lying position.
C)Collect discharge from the perineum on the same swab.
D)Insert the swab to 1 inch into the orifice and rotate before removal.
Q3) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement when obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG)specimen is to:
A)insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
B)use a 19-gauge,1-inch needle.
C)leave 0.5 mL of heparin in the syringe.
D)aspirate blood after the puncture.
Q4) An appropriate technique for the nurse to use when culturing wound drainage that is suspected to contain anaerobic bacteria is to:
A)use older secretions for the specimen.
B)add exudate from the skin to the wound specimen.
C)aspirate 5 to 10 mL of exudate from a deep cavity wound.
D)swab carefully and slowly in a back-and-forth motion across the wound.
Q5) The least traumatic method of obtaining a blood specimen is known as
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Chapter 8: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The removal of a small amount of the liquid organic material in the medullary canals of selected bones,in particular the sternum and the posterior superior iliac crests in adults,is known as _______________.
Q2) When explaining about a lumbar puncture,the nurse informs the patient that during the procedure,he or she will be asked to:
A)remain very still.
B)cough during the fluid aspiration.
C)change position.
D)breathe deeply during the needle insertion.
Q3) For an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy,a nurse should:
A)remove the patient's dentures.
B)suction the patient every 5 minutes.
C)place the patient in high-Fowler's position.
D)provide fluids immediately after the test is finished.
Q4) An _______________ permits visualization of the vasculature of an organ and the organ's arterial system.
Q5) _____________________ apply manual compression to prevent bleeding at the arterial site.
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Chapter 9: Medical Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before entering the room of a patient on isolation where all protective barriers are required,the nurse first puts on the: A)gown.
B)gloves.
C)eyewear.
D)mask/respirator.
Q2) When caring for patients,the nurse understands that the single most important technique to prevent and control the transmission of infection is:
A)hand hygiene.
B)the use of disposable gloves.
C)the use of isolation precautions.
D)sterilization of equipment.
Q3) If hands are not visibly soiled,the nurse may use an alcohol-based hand rub in which of the following situations?
A)Before having direct contact with patients
B)After contact with a patient's intact skin
C)After contact with body fluids or excretions
D)After removing gloves
Q4) ________________ is the absence of pathogenic (disease-producing)microorganisms.
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Chapter 10: Sterile Technique
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an appropriate technique for the nurse to use when performing sterile gloving?
A)Put the glove on the nondominant hand first.
B)Interlock the hands after both gloves are applied.
C)Pull the cuffs down on both gloves after gloving.
D)Grasp the outside cuff of the other glove with the gloved hand.
Q2) The minimum standard for infection control as established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)is _______________.
Q3) Nurses commonly use surgical asepsis in which of the following situations?
A)In labor and delivery areas
B)When inserting an intravenous catheter
C)When treating patients with surgical incisions or burns
D)When inserting a urinary catheter
E)When dressing an MRSA-positive wound
Q4) _____________ is one practice designed to make and maintain objects and areas free from pathogenic microorganisms.
Q5) When performing sterile aseptic procedures,the nurse must create a _____________ in which objects can be handled with minimal risk for contamination.
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Chapter 11: Safe Patient Handling, transfer, and Positioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse realizes that her patient needs to improve his or her mobility as quickly as possible.This is because the nurse realizes that mobilization:
A)improves joint motion.
B)decreases circulation.
C)increases social activity.
D)enhances mental stimulation.
Q2) The patient is immobile and has been repositioned in bed using a drawsheet.When finished,the patient is in a supported Fowler's position with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.Also important for positioning this patient is to:
A)support his calves with pillows.
B)place a large pillow behind his head to prevent extension.
C)place a pillow behind his upper back.
D)avoid using pillows if the patient does not have use of the hands and arms.
Q3) Body balance is achieved when a wide _____________ exists.
Q4) The term _____________ refers to the conditions of the joints,tendons,ligaments,and muscles in various body positions.
Q5) Awareness of posture and changes in equilibrium is known as _______________.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Exercise Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with left hemiparesis is using a quad cane for ambulation.Which of the following is the correct technique for the nurse to use in teaching the patient?
A)Use the cane on the right side,with the cane moving forward first.
B)Use the cane on the left side,with the left leg moving forward with the cane.
C)Use the cane in either hand,with the right leg moving forward first.
D)Use the cane in either hand,with the left leg moving beyond the forward placement of the cane.
Q2) A drop in blood pressure that occurs when the patient changes position from a horizontal to a vertical position is known as _________________.
Q3) The patient has a leg injury and is being fitted for a cane.The patient should be taught to:
A)hold the cane on the uninvolved side.
B)hold the cane on the weaker side.
C)extend the cane 15 inches from the foot when used.
D)maintain approximately 60 degrees of elbow flexion.
Q4) The nurse is concerned that the patient may fall while he is ambulating.To help her maintain control while the patient walks,the nurse may apply a ______________ around the patient's waist.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________________ beds are for patients who are immobile or otherwise are confined to the bed; they support a patient's weight on air-filled cushions.
Q2) A full or double-wide _____________ can accommodate a patient up to 1000 pounds.
Q3) Factors that contribute to pressure ulcer formation include which of the following?
A)Friction
B)Shear
C)Turning every 2 hours
D)Malnutrition
E)Impaired mobility
Q4) Use of the low-air-loss bed is contraindicated in patients with ___________________.
Q5) Of the following problems that may occur with the use of an air-fluidized bed,which is of greatest concern to the nurse?
A)Nausea
B)Anxiety
C)Slight disorientation
D)Insensible fluid loss
Q6) A ______________ serves as an artificial layer of fat to protect bony surfaces.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Patient Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) As part of an attempt to implement a restraint-free environment,the nurse:
A)provides constant activity for the patient.
B)covers or camouflages tubes and drains.
C)changes caregivers as often as possible.
D)reduces visiting hours and times in therapy.
Q2) A thumb-less device used to restrain patients' hands to prevent them from dislodging invasive equipment,removing dressings,or scratching is known as a _____________.
Q3) __________ are the most common type of inpatient accident.
Q4) When caring for a patient who has an arm or leg restraint in place,how often will the nurse remove the restraint?
A)Every 15 minutes
B)Every 30 minutes
C)Every hour
D)Every 2 hours
Q5) A safe health care environment is one in which:
A)the patient's basic needs are met.
B)physical hazards are reduced.
C)transmission of microorganisms is reduced.
D)sanitary measures are carried out.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Disaster Preparedness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dispersal of biological agents is a real and psychological terrorist threat.Which of the following organisms has the potential to cause the greatest harm?
A)Anthrax
B)Ricin
C)Salmonella
D)Hantavirus
Q2) The patient is being treated for biological agent exposure and is resting in the emergency department bay.It is important that the nurse evaluate changes in airway,breathing,and circulation,as well as ____________________.
Q3) It is recommended that every household prepares a ____________.
Q4) Upon arriving at a mass causality scene,health care providers using the SALT approach will initiate triage by doing which of the following first?
A)Assess
B)Move
C)Sort
D)Send
Q5) An outbreak of influenza A in the same geographical location is known as an __________.
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Chapter 16: Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has morphine sulfate ordered for pain every 4 hours "prn." The patient complains of severe pain and usually requests more morphine an hour before it is due.The nurse should:
A)Request a "placebo order" from the physician.
B)Offer the patient medication "around the clock" instead of "prn."
C)Offer the patient massage between medication doses.
D)Offer the patient a nonopioid medication between morphine doses if ordered.
Q2) The patient is scheduled for surgery late in the afternoon.His postoperative orders include patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)therapy.Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate to perform?
A)Teach the patient about PCA after the patient comes out of recovery.
B)Teach the patient about PCA before surgery and before preoperative medication administration.
C)Tell the patient not to use PCA unless he can no longer tolerate the pain.
D)Inform the patient's family to watch him carefully and to depress the PCA administration button whenever they think he needs it.
Q3) ___________ has an identifiable cause and rapid onset and generally disappears with healing.
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Chapter 17: Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The World Health Organization (2002)defines ___________ as an "approach that improves the quality of life of individuals and their families facing life-threatening illness,through the prevention and relief of suffering by means of early identification and impeccable assessment and treatment of pain and other physical,psychological,and spiritual problems."
Q2) The nurse recognizes that anticipatory grieving can be most beneficial for a patient or family because it can:
A)be done in a private setting.
B)be discussed with other individuals.
C)promote separation of the ill patient from the family.
D)allow time for the process of grief.
Q3) After the death of a patient and before other nursing interventions are implemented,the nurse should:
A)place the patient in a supine position and elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
B)wait an hour to prepare the patient for viewing.
C)place the patient in a side-lying position to allow drainage.
D)exclude the family while the body is being prepared.
Q4) An _______________ is the surgical dissection of a body after death.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Personal Hygiene and Bed Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) When taking a shower in the home setting,the patient at risk for falls may benefit from:
A)installation of grab bars.
B)adhesive strips applied to the tub floor.
C)addition of a shower chair or stool.
D)a hydraulic lift.
Q2) The skin,the largest human body organ,protects us from heat,light,injury,and infection and does which of the following?
A)Helps regulate body temperature.
B)Stores water,vitamin D,and fat.
C)Helps to sense pain.
D)Prevents the entry of bacteria.
Q3) A nurse recognizes that a shampoo may be contraindicated for a bed-bound patient with:
A)heart disease.
B)diabetes mellitus.
C)a neck injury.
D)a bleeding disorder.
Q4) ________________ is defined as excessive growth of body and facial hair.
Q5) The ____________ is the largest human organ.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Care of the Eye and Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) When providing care to a patient who has splashed bleach into his eye,the nurse will:
A)remove the patient's contacts immediately.
B)flush the eye from the outer to the inner canthus.
C)reinsert contacts as soon as irrigation is done.
D)irrigate toward the lower conjunctival sac.
Q2) The patient is brought to the emergency department after receiving a chemical burn to his eyes.The doctor orders immediate eye irrigations.Of the following solutions,which would be the most beneficial for this patient?
A)Lactated Ringer's solution
B)Albumin
C)Tap water
D)Dextrose and water
Q3) When instructing a patient on correct technique for inserting a hearing aid into the ear,the nurse will include which of the following instructions?
A)Pull the outer ear up and out.
B)Hold the aid with the long portion upright.
C)Fit the aid snugly in the midline of the canal.
D)Turn the aid to the desired sound level before insertion.
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21
Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving vancomycin IV every 8 hours at 0800,1600,and 2400.A serum peak and trough level is ordered after the third dose,which will be given at 1600.When should the nurse order the trough level?
A)1630
B)1800
C)2330
D)2400
Q2) Medication safety is always one of the ______________ set by The Joint Commission.
Q3) The nurse enters the patient's room to give medications.Which action is most appropriate to identify the "right patient"?
A)Ask the patient to state his name.
B)Ask the patient to state his name and birth date.
C)Ask the primary nurse to identify the patient.
D)Say the patient's name and date of birth and request patient validation.
Q4) A drug interaction in which the combined effect of drugs is greater than the sum of the effects of each individual agent acting independently is known as a
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Chapter 21: Administration of Nonparenteral Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has eyedrops ordered daily to both eyes.Which action by the nurse is appropriate when administering the medication?
A)Carefully place the drop on the cornea.
B)Wipe the eye with a tissue after placing the eyedrop.
C)Hold the eyedropper about 1 to 2 cm above the eye.
D)Instruct the patient to squeeze the eye shut after instillation.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to a patient.The patient should be assisted to which position for insertion of the rectal suppository?
A)Prone
B)Supine
C)Dorsal recumbent
D)Left Sims' position
Q3) The nurse is administering a buccal medication.Which instruction should be given to the patient?
A)Hold the medication under the tongue.
B)Swallow the medication after 30 seconds.
C)Chew the medication before swallowing.
D)Hold the medication against the cheek membranes.
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Chapter 22: Administration of Parenteral Medications
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Q1) The nurse injects the medication into the loose connective tissue just under the dermis when giving a _____________ injection.
Q2) A patient has medication ordered to be given by intravenous (IV)bolus.The nurse recognizes which advantage of this type of administration?
A)There is a slower onset of medication effects.
B)Medications are given over a longer time frame.
C)Medications given by IV bolus are less irritating to the veins.
D)Small volumes are used,so fluid overload can be avoided.
Q3) The nurse administers an injection of iron to a patient using the Z-track method.The nurse recognizes which of the following as advantages of this method?
A)Provides faster absorption of the medication.
B)Reduces discomfort from the needle.
C)Prevents leakage of the medication into subcutaneous tissue.
D)Prevents the drug from irritating sensitive tissue.
Q4) The patient is complaining of tenderness at his intravenous (IV)insertion site.The nurse examines the site and notices that the site is swollen,warm,and reddened.The nurse stops the intravenous infusion,realizing that the patient has
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Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in respiratory distress enters the emergency department.The patient denies a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).The nurse anticipates an order for oxygen delivered by which method to achieve the highest possible concentration of oxygen?
A)Simple face mask at 15 L/min
B)Nonrebreathing face mask at 15 L/min
C)Venturi mask at 15 L/min
D)Oxygen tent at 15 L/min
Q2) In noninvasive ventilation,________________ keeps the terminal airways (alveoli)partially inflated,reducing the risk for atelectasis.
Q3) The nurse is checking the oxygen flow rate on several patients.All flowmeters are set at 2 L/min.The nurse should question this flow rate for which delivery system(s)?
A)Nasal cannula
B)Simple face mask
C)Oxymizer
D)Venturi mask
Q4) A curved oxygen-delivery device with an adjustable strap that fits around the patient's neck is known as a _______________.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) To move secretions from small distal airways into larger central airways,the nurse would use ________________ and _______________.
Q2) Percussion and vibration is ordered on a patient with retained pulmonary secretions.Which action by the student nurse should the nursing instructor question?
A)Performs percussion for 3 to 5 minutes in each position as tolerated.
B)Uses the wrist and elbow to create movement when performing percussion.
C)While the patient inhales,gently pushes down and vibrates the chest wall with the flat part of the hand.
D)Repeats the vibration 3 times and then instructs the patient to take a deep breath and cough while exhaling.
Q3) ________________ is positioning the patient so that the position of the lung segment to be drained allows gravity to have its greatest effect.
Q4) The system that lines the internal lumen of the tracheobronchial tree and consists of a thin layer of mucus that constantly is propelled toward the larynx by cilia is called the
Q5) The _______________ provides positive expiratory pressure (PEP)with oral airway oscillations.
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Chapter 25: Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to suction a patient via the nasotracheal route.Which conditions should the nurse recognize as contraindications to nasotracheal suctioning?
A)Motor vehicle accident with acute head injuries
B)History of hemophilia
C)Epiglottitis or croup
D)Environmental allergies with sinus drainage
Q2) The student nurse is preparing to perform nasotracheal suctioning on an adult patient wearing a face mask.Which action by the student should the nursing instructor question?
A)Increasing the oxygen flow rate for the face mask and asking the patient to deep-breathe slowly before suctioning
B)Inserting the catheter into the nares slanting slightly downward
C)Asking the patient to swallow while the catheter is being inserted
D)Inserting the catheter about 8 inches without applying suction
Q3) A patient has extremely copious and thick oral secretions.The nurse provides oropharyngeal suctioning using a _________________ suction device.
Q4) A _______________ is inserted directly into the trachea through a small incision made in the patient's neck.
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Chapter 26: Cardiac Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is observing a nursing assistive personnel (NAP)perform a 12-lead ECG tracing on a newly admitted patient.The nurse recognizes that the NAP requires additional training on this skill when she observes which of the following erroneous lead placements?
A)V1-Fourth intercostal space at the right sternal angle
B)V2-Fourth intercostal space at the right sternal border
C)V4-Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
D)V6-Left midaxillary line at the level of V4 horizontally
Q2) Identify the first step toward establishing appropriate alarms and response expectations.
A)Instructing the patient and immediate family members about the necessity of the alarms
B)Obtaining a physician's order for ECG monitoring
C)Adjusting the volume of the alarms so the primary nurse can hear them
D)Determining which patients require ECG monitoring
Q3) When preparing the skin before ECG electrode placement,clipping the hair in the electrode area is preferred over shaving due to risk of _________________.
Q4) ECG tracings that cannot be interpreted are known as _________________.
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Chapter 27: Closed Chest Drainage Systems
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with a chest tube that was inserted 4 days earlier.She notices that the drainage contains a large amount of pus.What does the presence of the pus indicate?
A)Malignancy
B)Pulmonary infarction
C)Empyema
D)Hemothorax
Q2) A pneumothorax can be caused by which of the following?
A)Trauma
B)Rupture of a blister
C)Emphysema
D)Dyspnea
Q3) Which of the following is an expected outcome of chest tube insertion?
A)Mild chest pain is maintained.
B)Breath sounds are auscultated in all lobes.
C)Drainage from the pleural cavity increases over time.
D)Lung expansion is increased beyond the unaffected side.
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Chapter 28: Emergency Measure for Life Support
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse walks into her patient's room to find him unresponsive.She begins cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR),knowing that during a "code" situation,chest compressions should be interrupted for which of the following situations?
A)Ventilation
B)Pulse checks
C)Intubation
D)Defibrillation
Q2) The nurse is providing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)to an unresponsive patient according to the 2010 American Heart Association (AHA)resuscitation guidelines.The nurse is performing chest compressions correctly when she performs them at which rate?
A)60 to 80 per minute
B)120 per minute
C)100 per minute
D)40 to 60 per minute
Q3) The most common cause of airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient is the
Q4) Many cardiac arrests are caused by irregular heart rhythms known as
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Chapter 29: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The order is for the patient to receive 500 mL over 4 hours.The nurse has an electronic infusion device (EID)in place that provides for the regulation of hourly infusion.The intravenous (IV)tubing available is 10 gtt/mL.What is the setting for the infusion device?
A)125 mL/hr
B)500 mL/hr
C)21 gtt/min
D)32 gtt/min
Q2) ___________________ is manifested by decreased urine output,dry mucous membranes,decreased capillary refill,a disparity in central and peripheral pulses,tachycardia,hypotension,and shock.
Q3) An intravenous catheter that is inserted through a large arm vein and is advanced until the tip enters the central venous system is known as a __________________.
Q4) While assessing the patient's intravenous (IV)catheter site,the nurse notes that the site is reddened and warm.The patient states that it is "sore." The nurse recognizes these as signs of ____________.
Q5) Fluids that have the same osmolality as body fluids are used most often to replace extracellular volume and are known as _______________ fluids.
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Chapter 30: Blood Therapy
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has been home from the hospital for 10 days.On the last day of his hospitalization,he received 2 units of packed red blood cells (RBCs).This morning,he noticed that his skin had a yellow tint to it and his temperature was elevated.Which reaction might this patient be experiencing?
A)Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
B)Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
C)Nonhemolytic febrile reaction
D)Severe allergic transfusion reaction
Q2) The patient is receiving blood when he suddenly complains of low back pain and develops diaphoresis and chills.The nurse should:
A)stop the transfusion.
B)start normal saline connected to the Y tubing.
C)notify the physician.
D)start normal saline using new intravenous (IV)tubing.
Q3) Antibodies that react against the A and B antigens are naturally present in the plasma of people whose red blood cells do not carry the antigen.These antibodies react against the foreign antigens.Incompatible red blood cells clump together or _____________,which results in a life-threatening hemolytic transfusion reaction.
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32
Chapter 31: Oral Nutrition
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is 6 feet 2 inches tall and weighs 250 pounds.What is the patient's body mass index (BMI)?
A)18.5 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
B)30.2 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
C)32.13 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
D)40.11 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
Q2) The patient is admitted with a diagnosis of stroke.The nurse attempts to feed the patient,but the patient coughs and gags when food is placed in his mouth.What should the nurse do to assist this patient?
A)Feed the patient more slowly.
B)Feed the patient more quickly.
C)Contact the speech pathology department.
D)Ignore the cough and try again later.
Q3) The nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of ______________ when she notices that he has difficulty holding food and fluid in his mouth and experiences difficulty moving it to his esophagus.
Q4) The nurse will collaborate with a ___________ to develop a nutritional plan for a patient identified as being at nutritional risk.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Enteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has inserted a nasogastric (NG)feeding tube.The feeding tube has a stylet in place to aid insertion.What should the nurse do once the tube is in place?
A)Remove the stylet immediately.
B)Reinsert the stylet if the radiograph determines incorrect placement.
C)Fasten the end of the NG tube to the patient's gown using tape and a safety pin.
D)Leave the stylet in place and obtain a chest/abdomen radiograph.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric tube in place.What interventions would the nurse perform to reduce the risk of clogging the feeding tube?
a.Use the smallest barrel syringe possible to reduce the pressure in the tube.
b.Mix medication with feedings to thoroughly dilute the medication.
c.Flush the tube liberally with water before,between,and after each medication instillation.
d.Use the largest barrel syringe possible to reduce the pressure in the tube.
e.Crush solid medications thoroughly and mix them in water before administration.
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Chapter 33: Parenteral Nutrition
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient receiving parenteral nutrition (PN).In planning the patient's care for the day,which nursing assessment is most essential?
A)Electrolyte levels
B)Weight
C)Temperature
D)Condition of catheter insertion site
Q2) If parenteral nutrition (PN)must be discontinued suddenly,hang __________ in water at the same infusion rate to prevent hypoglycemia.
Q3) The nurse has been caring for a patient who has had a central venous access device (CVAD)in place.The patient complains of sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing.These assessment findings are symptoms of which severe complication?
A)Exit site infection
B)Catheter-related sepsis
C)Pneumothorax
D)Hyperglycemia
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Chapter 34: Urinary Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has an indwelling urinary catheter.Which intervention is most important to include in this patient's plan of care?
A)Maintaining tension on the tubing
B)Emptying the urinary collection bag every 24 hours
C)Cleaning in a circular motion from the meatus down the catheter
D)Keeping the drainage bag on the bed or attached to the side rails
Q2) When providing care for a patient with a suprapubic catheter who has acquired a urinary tract infection (UTI),which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
A)Using clean technique
B)Securing the tube to the inner thigh
C)Cleansing the insertion site in a direction toward the drain
D)Promoting intake of 2200 mL of fluid per day
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient whose 24-hour output is 2400 mL.Which finding reflects the nurse's understanding of urine output?
A)Increased output
B)Decreased output
C)Normal output
D)Balanced output
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Bowel Elimination and Gastric Intubation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer an enema to an adult patient who has normal sphincter control.For administration of the enema,the patient is placed in which position?
A)Right side-lying
B)Dorsal recumbent
C)Sims'
D)Prone
Q2) Infrequent bowel movements (less often than every 3 days),difficulty in evacuating feces,inability to defecate,and hard feces are signs of ________________.
Q3) What should the nurse do to verify nasogastric (NG)tube placement?
A)Ask the patient to speak.
B)Inspect the posterior pharynx.
C)Aspirate back on the syringe.
D)Obtain an x-ray of the placement.
E)Auscultate the lung fields.
Q4) __________________ is strongest during the hour after the first meal of the day.
Q5) The inability to pass a hard collection of stool is known as ______________.
Q6) An ___________ is the instillation of a solution into the rectum and sigmoid colon to promote defecation by stimulating peristalsis.
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Chapter 36: Ostomy Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ______________ is an opening in the large intestine or colon for elimination of fecal material.
Q2) When assessing the patient with a noncontinent urinary diversion,the nurse finds that the urine has mucus shreds.Which action should the nurse take?
A)Culture any drainage.
B)Instruct the patient to consume less water.
C)Document the characteristics of the urine.
D)Cleanse the stoma with soap and water.
Q3) An opening that is in the ileal portion of the small-intestine is an ____________.
Q4) The opening created into the abdominal wall for fecal or urinary elimination is known as a _______________.
Q5) In caring for a patient who has a pouch for a noncontinent urinary diversion,which nursing intervention is essential?
A)Empty the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full.
B)Remove the ureteral stents after 2 days.
C)Pouch the stoma with the patient sitting up.
D)Dispose of used pouches in the toilet.
Q6) The output from a urinary or fecal stoma is called the _______________.
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Chapter 37: Preoperative and Postoperative Care
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25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70406
Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical site infections (SSIs)are the most prevalent hospital associated infection.Which of the following evidence-based practice guidelines is effective at reducing surgical site infections?
A)Remove all hair at the surgical site so it does not interfere with the surgical incision.
B)Maintain the patient's core temperature slightly hypothermic to reduce the risk of fever post-operatively.
C)Insert urinary catheter devices only when necessary and leave in only as long as necessary.
D)Administer prophylactic antibiotics 24 to 48 hours prior to the time of the incision.
Q2) When providing care for an ambulatory surgical patient,the nurse recognizes that which assessment indicates that the patient meets discharge criteria?
A)The patient is able to drive home alone.
B)Some respiratory depression is evident.
C)The oxygen saturation level is at 85%.
D)No intravenous (IV)narcotics have been given in the past 30 minutes.
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Chapter 38: Intraoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surgeon is about to finish surgery and requests a sponge count.Who would normally perform this task?
A)Scrub nurse
B)Registered nurse first assistant
C)Circulating nurse
D)Certified registered nurse anesthetist
E)Surgical technician
Q2) The ________________ is a "sterile" team member who provides the surgeon with instruments and supplies,disposes of soiled sponges,and accounts for sponges,sharps,and instruments in the surgical field.
Q3) When evaluating a health care team member's ability to put on a sterile gown and perform closed gloving,it is most important for the nurse to assess for which outcome?
A)Opening the sterile gown pack on a sterile surface
B)Holding the gown close to the body before applying
C)Having the circulating nurse tie the gown at the hip
D)Keeping the hands inside the sleeves of the gown until the gloves are applied
Q4) The _______________ phase begins when the patient enters the operating room suite and ends with admission to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU).
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Pressure Injury Prevention and Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse classifies a pressure ulcer according to the type of tissue in the wound bed.What does it indicate if the wound bed has granulation in it?
A)Wound needs debridement
B)The presence of significant infection
C)Colonization by bacteria
D)Movement toward healing
Q2) The nurse is planning care for her patient who has a stage II pressure ulcer.Care should include which of the following?
A)A heat lamp to dry the wound
B)Application of topical antibiotics
C)Nutritional assessment
D)Maintaining moisture in the wound
Q3) Patients are at risk for developing pressure ulcers on which areas of the body?
A)Coccyx
B)Nares
C)Ears
D)Genitalia
Q4) When skin layers adhere to the linens and deeper tissue layer move downward,________ damage occurs.
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Chapter 40: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should consider culturing a wound when which one of the following situations occurs?
A)The tissue is clean and dry.
B)Exudate is not present.
C)The patient is afebrile.
D)The surrounding area shows inflammation.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has had major abdominal surgery and is concerned about the possibility of dehiscence.During the assessment,the nurse assesses for which of the following contributing factors?
A)Age
B)Malnutrition/obesity
C)Gender
D)Use of steroids
Q3) How does the skin defend the body?
A)Skin serves as a sensory organ for pain.
B)Skin serves as a sensory organ for touch.
C)Skin serves as a sensory organ for temperature.
D)Skin has an acid pH.
Q4) ___________ are threads of wire or other materials used to sew body tissues together.
42
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Chapter 41: Dressings,bandages,and Binders
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the nurse proceed when applying a pressure bandage?
A)Elevate the extremity or area of bleeding.
B)Wrap pressure-bandage gauze in a proximal-to-distal direction.
C)Apply pressure to diminish the pulse to the distal body part.
D)Wrap tape around the circumference of the site to secure the gauze padding.
Q2) In caring for a patient who has an abdominal binder,it is expected that the nurse will do which of the following?
A)Remove the binder and assess the skin and wound every 8 hours.
B)Evaluate the patient's ability to breathe deeply and cough effectively every 4 hours.
C)Evaluate the patient's pulmonary function every 8 hours.
D)Remove the binder at least daily.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who is bleeding.To control bleeding,apply a _____ dressing.
A)pressure
B)alginate
C)foam
D)hydrocolloid
Q4) ___________ healing takes place when tissue is cleanly cut and the margins are reapproximated.
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Chapter 42: Therapeutic Use of Heat and Cold
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Sample Questions
Q1) Therapeutic interventions designed to correct hypothermia and progressively raise body temperature are essential to improve patient outcomes.The nurse understands that this is accomplished by correcting acid-base imbalances,body temperature,and which of the following additional clinical manifestations?
A)Coagulopathies
B)Reduction of shearing forces
C)Increase in nerve conduction
D)Reduction in muscle spasms
Q2) For which patient should the nurse consider an application of cold?
A)Menstrual cramping
B)Infected wound
C)Fractured ankle
D)Degenerative joint disease
Q3) When applying a hypothermia or hyperthermia blanket,the nurse should:
A)wrap the patient's hands and feet.
B)monitor the patient's axillary temperature every hour.
C)put the patient directly onto the heating or cooling blanket.
D)place the patient onto the blanket and then start the heating or cooling process.
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Chapter 43: Home Care Safety
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70412
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a cognitive deficit becomes agitated and upset about not being able to remember daily activities.How should the nurse respond to this agitation?
A)Tell the patient not to worry about it.
B)Provide an easy-to-follow calendar and reinforce the information.
C)Explain that becoming upset is not going to help the situation.
D)Remind the patient that now is the time to rest and relax.
Q2) Activities of daily living (ADLs)include the patient's ability to bathe,dress,go to the toilet,transfer,maintain continence,and feed himself; _______ include the ability to use a telephone,prepare meals,travel,do housework,take medication,and shop.
Q3) ___________ is a generalized impairment of intellectual functioning,with the most common form being Alzheimer's disease.
Q4) The nurse is assessing the home of an elderly patient for safety issues.Which of the following actions would reassure the nurse?
A)Cleaning the stove top
B)Putting a shower chair in the bathroom
C)Installing adequate lighting in all living areas
D)Placing emergency numbers close to the telephone
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Chapter 44: Home Care Teaching
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following types of thermometers available,which is not recommended for home use?
A)Digital
B)Tympanic
C)Mercury
D)Disposable single-use
Q2) What is the principal difference in tracheostomy care between care given in the acute care setting and care given in the home care environment?
A)In the acute care setting,the inner cannula is cleaned.
B)In the home care setting,dressings are not necessary.
C)In the acute care setting,hydrogen peroxide is used for cleaning.
D)In the home care setting,the procedure may be done with clean technique.
Q3) Expected outcomes for patients who are being taught how to use a thermometer include which of the following outcomes?
A)Ability to correctly measure temperature
B)Ability to properly clean and store the thermometer
C)Knowledge of normal temperature ranges
D)Knowledge of signs and symptoms of fever
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