Fundamentals of Nursing Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Nursing introduces students to the essential concepts, skills, and responsibilities required for effective nursing practice. This course covers the principles of patient-centered care, safe and ethical practice, communication techniques, basic health assessments, infection control, and vital signs monitoring. Students will engage in both theoretical learning and hands-on laboratory experiences to develop critical thinking, clinical judgment, and foundational nursing skills necessary for delivering compassionate and competent care to diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 8th Edition by Anne Griffin Perry
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44 Chapters
1316 Verified Questions
1316 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2003
2
Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Nursing Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39771
Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ is the extent to which a study's findings are valid, reliable, and relevant to your patient population of interest.
Answer: Scientific rigor
Scientific rigor is the extent to which a study's findings are valid, reliable, and relevant to your patient population of interest.
Q2) When evidence-based practice is used, patient care will be:
A)standardized for all.
B)unhampered by patient culture.
C)variable according to the situation.
D)safe from the hazards of critical thinking.
Answer: C
Q3) A well-developed PICOT question helps the nurse:
A)search for evidence.
B)include all five elements of the sequence.
C)find as many articles as possible in a literature search.
D)accept standard clinical routines.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Admitting, Transfer, and Discharge
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is scheduled to go home after having coronary angioplasty.What would be the most effective way to provide discharge teaching to this patient?
A)Provide him with information on health care websites.
B)Provide him with written information on what he has to do.
C)Sit and carefully explain what is required before his follow-up.
D)Use a combination of verbal and written information.
Answer: D
Q2) When does the plan for patient discharge from a health care facility begin?
A)At admission
B)After a medical diagnosis has been determined
C)When the patient's physical needs are identified
D)After a home environment assessment is completed
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following are considered "advance directives"? (Select all that apply.)
A)Living will
B)Power of attorney for health care
C)Notarized handwritten document
D)Nursing progress note
Answer: A, B, C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Communication
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39773
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is sitting at the bedside.He has not been eating and is just staring out of the window.The nurse approaches the patient and asks, "What are you thinking about?" What type of communication technique is this?
A)Restating
B)Clarification
C)Broad openings
D)Reflection
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is attempting to teach the patient and his family about his care after discharge.The patient and the family demonstrate signs of anxiety during the teaching session.The nurse should consider doing what?
A)Using more gestures or pictures
B)Focusing on the physical complaints
C)Getting another staff member to speak to the patient
D)Repeating information to the patient and the family at a later time
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Documentation and Informatics
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________________ documentation should include your observations of patient behavior.
Q2) Standardized care plans are effective ways to plan care for the patient.To be most effective, however, the SCP must be _________________.
Q3) A patient's private health information is legally protected by the ________________.
Q4) Multidisciplinary care plans that include key interventions and expected outcomes within an established time frame are known as _______________.
Q5) The patient is a 24-year-old man who is diagnosed with possible HIV infection while being treated for active pneumonia.He has stated that the nurse may share test result information with his significant other but nothing else at this time.With whom may the nurse communicate regarding this information?
A)The patient's parents
B)The patient's significant other only
C)No one in the hospital until the patient says so
D)The patient's physician, significant other, and laboratory personnel
Q6) ___________________ provide a format for documenting a patient's health status and progress.
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Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ___________, a subjective symptom, is also referred to as a vital sign, along with the physiological signs.
Q2) When evaluating the radial pulse measurement technique of the nursing assistant, the nurse identifies appropriate technique when the assistant:
A)has the patient's arm elevated.
B)positions the patient supine or sitting.
C)applies significant pressure to the pulse site.
D)counts the pulse for 15 seconds and multiplies by 4.
Q3) What is a disadvantage of using the disposable sensor pad for pulse oximetry?
A)It is less restrictive.
B)It contains latex.
C)It is less expensive to use.
D)It is available in different sizes.
Q4) During the normal cardiac cycle, blood pressure reaches a peak, followed by a trough, in the cycle.What is the peak known as?
A)Pulse pressure
B)Systole
C)Diastole
D)Korotkoff phase
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Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What technique should the nurse implement for assessment of the carotid artery?
A)Massaging the arteries briskly
B)Using the diaphragm of the stethoscope
C)Palpating each carotid artery separately
D)Placing the patient in a supine position
Q2) ________________ is a major cause of lung cancer, cerebrovascular disease, heart disease, and chronic lung disease.
Q3) When performing an assessment of the cardiovascular system, the nurse evaluates the skin and nails of the patient.Inadequate tissue perfusion is known as
Q4) Which of the following is an unexpected finding after a cardiac assessment?
A)A pulse rate of 72 beats per minute
B)Jugular vein pulsation with the patient supine
C)PMI found at the midclavicular line
D)A sustained swishing sound during systole or diastole
Q5) Which skin condition would cause a nurse to suspect chickenpox?
A)Wheals
B)Nodules
C)Pustules
D)Vesicles
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Medical Asepsis
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39777
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has been hospitalized for several days and has received multiple intravenous antibiotic medications.This morning, the patient had three episodes of severe, foul-smelling diarrhea.The nurse should institute:
A)contact precautions.
B)standard precautions only.
C)airborne precautions.
D)droplet precautions.
Q2) Before entering the room of a patient on isolation where all protective barriers are required, the nurse first puts on the: A)gown.
B)gloves.
C)eyewear.
D)mask/respirator.
Q3) The nurse is applying for a position at a local hospital.As part of the employment criteria, she will be required to be assessed for TB exposure.She should be prepared for the ___________ blood test to be scheduled.
Q4) Infection control practices that reduce and eliminate sources and transmission of infection are known as _______________.
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9
Chapter 8: Sterile Technique
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the following concepts are compared, which is most important in maintaining a safe environment by following aseptic principles?
A)Performing a surgical hand scrub
B)Applying a sterile gown
C)Recognizing the importance of following aseptic principles
D)Applying a mask and protective eyewear
Q2) The nurse is applying for a job at a local hospital.She wants to look her best for the interview and decides to wear artificial nails.She does this knowing that artificial nails: A)are appropriate in the ICU setting as long as the nurse washes her hands frequently.
B)can lead to fungal growth under the nail.
C)can actually lower the bacterial count on the hands because they cover the natural nail.
D)are banned only in areas where patients are critically ill.
Q3) When performing sterile aseptic procedures, the nurse must create a _____________ in which objects can be handled with minimal risk for contamination.
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Chapter 9: Safe Patient Handling, Transfer, and Positioning
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Awareness of posture and changes in equilibrium is known as _______________.
Q2) To position a patient with hemiplegia in Fowler's position, the nurse should:
A)elevate the head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees.
B)place the patient in the prone position.
C)position a spastic hand with the fingers extended using hand rolls.
D)position the patient's head with slight hyperextension of the neck.
Q3) Patients at risk for complications and/or injury from improper positioning include patients with which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Poor nutrition
B)Loss of sensation
C)Impaired muscle development
D)Poor circulation
E)None of above
Q4) Plantar flexion contracture, otherwise known as _____________, is caused when the force of gravity pulls an unsupported, weakened foot into a plantar-flexed position.
Q5) The patient is immobile and is being placed in the supine position.To reduce extension of the fingers and abduction of the thumb, the nurse places _________________ in the patient's hands.
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Chapter 10: Exercise and Ambulation
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39780
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been treated for a broken leg.She needs to teach the patient how to use crutches.Which crutch gait is most appropriate for this patient?
A)Four-point gait
B)Three-point gait
C)Two-point gait
D)Swing-to gait
Q2) Virchow's triad (hypercoagulability of blood, venous wall damage, and stasis of blood flow) has been found to contribute to ________________.
Q3) The nurse is caring for an immobile patient.Which of the following may help reduce the hazards associated with immobility? (Select all that apply.)
A)A high-fiber diet
B)Frequent repositioning
C)Muscle and joint exercises
D)Increased fluid intake
E)None of above
Q4) ____________ refers to an ability to move about freely.
Q5) _________________ increase muscle tension but do not change the length of muscle fibers.
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Measures
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39781
Sample Questions
Q1) After applying a cast, the nurse should be able to insert _______ fingers between the cast and the limb.
Q2) For a patient who is to be placed in Russell's traction, the nurse prepares the:
A)occipital area.
B)arm and forearm.
C)back and abdomen.
D)lower extremities.
Q3) _____________________ applies a pull indirectly to the bone via straps attached to the skin around the structure.
Q4) While in Buck's extension traction, the patient may be positioned on the back:
A)with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.
B)turning to the unaffected side for 10- to 15-minute periods.
C)with the buttocks slightly elevated off of the bed.
D)with the bed tilted toward the side that is opposite the traction.
Q5) When applying a plaster of Paris cast, it is important to keep the cast exposed for at least _____________ minutes.
Q6) _________________ may occur when pressure within a casted extremity increases.
Q7) __________________ involves monitoring for the five Ps (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis).
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Chapter 12: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39782
Sample Questions
Q1) An air-suspension bed is contraindicated for the patient with:
A)burns.
B)traction.
C)osteoporosis.
D)respiratory insufficiency.
Q2) What is the most important factor in preventing and treating pressure ulcers?
A)Proper use of foam or air mattresses
B)Proper utilization of an air-fluidized bed
C)Frequent repositioning of the patient
D)Proper use of a low-air-loss bed
Q3) Which of the following is a limitation of the bariatric bed?
A)Lack of an in-bed scale
B)The narrowness of the bed
C)Lack of pressure reduction
D)Increased liability to the institution
Q4) What is the primary purpose for the use of a support surface?
A)To reduce pressure
B)To promote patient comfort
C)To increase circulation
D)To facilitate patient movement
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Chapter 13: Safety and Quality Improvement
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39783
Sample Questions
Q1) Effective fall prevention programs include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Risk assessment
B)Medication reviews
C)Use of assistive devices
D)Exercise and strength training
E)None of above
Q2) A patient is well known to the hospital staff from previous admissions and is prone to wandering at night.For patient safety, the physician writes an order for "belt restraint prn."
What should the nurse do upon reviewing this order?
A)Apply a belt restraint on the patient as needed.
B)Have the patient sign an "informed consent" form.
C)Inform the physician that "prn" restraint orders are unacceptable.
D)Obtain a signed "informed consent" from a family member.
Q3) __________ are the most common type of inpatient accident.
Q4) More than ____________ patients are injured in falls in inpatient settings annually in the United States.
Q5) Continuous seizure activity that lasts longer than 10 minutes is known as
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Chapter 14: Disaster Preparedness
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39784
Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to the Department of Homeland Security, which of the following agencies has a mission to ensure that the nation is well prepared to respond to an act of terrorism?
A)AMA
B)Red Cross
C)CDC
D)Salvation Army
Q2) Upon arriving at a mass causality scene, health care providers using the SALT approach will initiate triage by doing which of the following first?
A)Assess
B)Move
C)Sort
D)Send
Q3) The nurse has arrived at the scene of a natural disaster and is assigned to care for four patients.To which patient should the nurse provide care first?
A)Patient with a closed head injury with no changes in level of consciousness
B)Patient with a 3-cm laceration to the forearm
C)Patient who is breathing eight times per minute
D)Patient with a displaced wrist fracture
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Pain Assessment and Basic Comfort Measures
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39785
Sample Questions
Q1) _______________________ is a massage technique used on tense muscles to "knead" muscles, promote relaxation, and stimulate local circulation.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is a devout Orthodox Jew.The patient is on a patient-controlled analgesia ( PCA ) pump.What accommodations might the nurse have to make to conform to the patient's cultural needs?
A)Ask the patient whether he will need alternative forms of medication for the Sabbath.
B)Ask the patient specific questions because Jews tend to be stoic regarding pain.
C)Medicate the patient "around the clock" instead of as needed ( "prn" ).
D)Understand that Jews believe that suffering is a consequence of actions in a previous life.
Q3) Which of the following are characteristics of cancer pain? (Select all that apply.)
A)It may be acute.
B)It may be chronic.
C)It usually is related to tumor recurrence or treatment.
D)It often is of less intensity than the patient reports.
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17
Chapter 16: Palliative Care
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hospice benefits include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Respite for family caregivers
B)Hospitalization for acute symptom management
C)Emotional and psychological support
D)Financial assistance and funeral arrangement
Q2) The patient is on a ventilator and has a heartbeat but has been declared "brain dead." The family has agreed to organ donation.The nurse realizes that which of the following organ donations would require that the patient be left on life support?
A)Eyes
B)Bone
C)Kidney
D)Skin
Q3) Before allowing the family of a deceased patient to view the body, the nurse should:
A)insert the patient's dentures.
B)lower the head of the bed.
C)fold the arms and hands over the chest.
D)leave all of the old dressings and tape in place.
Q4) An _______________ is the surgical dissection of a body after death.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Personal Hygiene and Bed Making
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39787
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do before starting a patient's bed bath?
A)Lower the bed.
B)Offer the bedpan or urinal.
C)Partially undress the patient.
D)Place the head of the bed in high-Fowler's position.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a ventilated patient in the ICU who has just undergone coronary artery bypass.The nurse is concerned that the patient may be at risk for ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP).What step will she take to minimize this risk?
A)Not provide oral hygiene because this may cause bacterial contamination of the airway.
B)Be careful not to use chlorhexidine in oral care because it provides a medium for bacterial growth.
C)Not use chlorhexidine in oral care because it enhances the rate at which VAP develops.
D)Include the use of a chlorhexidine rinse as part of oral hygiene to delay the development of VAP.
Q3) ________________ removes sweat, oil, dirt and bacteria and helps maintain skin integrity.
Q4) The act of chewing is also known as ________________.
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Chapter 18: Pressure Ulcer Care
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39788
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that pressure ulcers can occur: (Select all that apply.)
A)from any position that causes soft tissue compression.
B)because of lack of blood flow ( ischemia ).
C)only in bedbound patients.
D)in as little as 90 minutes.
Q2) A nurse classifies a pressure ulcer according to the type of tissue in the wound bed.What does it indicate if the wound bed has granulation in it?
A)Wound needs debridement
B)The presence of significant infection
C)Colonization by bacteria
D)Movement toward healing
Q3) In a patient with a stage II pressure ulcer, the nurse describes the wound as:
A)superficial blistering.
B)nonblanchable redness.
C)loss of skin without bone exposure.
D)loss of skin with exposed muscle.
Q4) The removal of devitalized tissue in a wound is known as ______________.
Q5) When skin layers adhere to the linens and deeper tissue layer move downward, ________ damage occurs.
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Chapter 19: Care of the Eye and Ear
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39789
Sample Questions
Q1) When removing and cleansing a patient's eye prosthesis, the nurse:
A)places the patient in a prone position.
B)retracts the upper eyelid with her thumb and forefinger.
C)cleans the prosthesis using an alcohol solution.
D)cleans the prosthesis using mild soap and water.
Q2) The nurse is caring for an unconscious patient who has an artificial eye.To determine which eye is artificial, she shines a light into the patient's eyes.Why does the nurse do this?
A)The light will cause the eye to move differently than the natural eye.
B)An artificial eye pupil does not react to changes in light.
C)It is essential to remove the prosthesis for cleaning.
D)The implant can be seen only by shining a light.
Q3) How does the nurse assess that a hearing aid is operating correctly?
A)Speaking very softly behind the patient
B)Covering the patient's unaffected ear and speaking
C)Determining the patient's response to a normal tone of voice
D)Removing the hearing aid and sending it to be checked by an audiologist
Q4) ____________ is the complete surgical removal of the eyeball.
Q5) The substance found in the ear canal that has an antibacterial effect and maintains an acid pH is called ______________.
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Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39790
Sample Questions
Q1) The hospital has implemented a computerized physician order entry system ( CPOE ) to eliminate the need for written orders.The benefits of this system include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Automatic drug allergy checks
B)Automatic dosage indications
C)Identification of potential drug interactions
D)Reduced number of medical errors
E)None of above
Q2) The nurse is aware that a patient with liver disease and a decreased albumin level may develop which of the following effects?
A)Toxicity on normal doses of medication
B)Less active medication available in the body
C)Reduction in therapeutic effect
D)Accelerated biotransformation of the medication
Q3) The _________________ of a drug is the blood serum concentration reached and maintained after repeated, fixed doses.
Q4) The intended or desired physiological response to a medication is known as its
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Chapter 21: Oral and Topical Medications
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer eardrops to an adult patient.Which action should be taken by the nurse?
A)Warm the medication to room temperature using warm water.
B)Pull the pinna down and back to straighten the ear canal.
C)Apply gentle pressure or massage to the pinna of the ear.
D)Remove cerumen from the inner ear canal with a cotton-tipped applicator.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to give sublingual nitroglycerin to a patient complaining of chest pain.The nurse instructs the patient not to swallow the medication.Why is this instruction important?
A)The effects of the medication will be nullified if swallowed.
B)Sublingual drugs begin to dissolve when placed on the tongue.
C)The medication needs to be held against the cheek membranes until dissolved.
D)The patient may aspirate on the water used for these medications.
Q3) The nurse is to administer several medications to a patient via a nasogastric (NG) tube.What should the nurse do first?
A)Add the medications to the tube feeding being given.
B)Crush all tablets and capsules before administration.
C)Administer all of the medications mixed together.
D)Check for placement of the NG tube.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Parenteral Medications
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection via the Z-track method.Which action should be taken by the nurse?
A)Pinch the skin between the thumb and the first finger.
B)Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
C)Immediately remove the needle after injecting the medication.
D)Release the skin before removing the needle from the site.
Q2) The nurse follows practice guidelines when administering injections to a patient to avoid which possible complications? (Select all that apply.)
A)Drug response that is too rapid or too slow
B)Nerve injury with possible pain or paralysis
C)Death of tissue surrounding the injection site
D)Death of the patient
E)None of above
Q3) An experienced nurse recognizes that the dorsogluteal injection site is no longer used for intramuscular injections because of the risk of damaging the
Q4) The nurse injects the medication into the loose connective tissue just under the dermis when giving a _____________ injection.
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Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with COPD has carbon dioxide retention and is ordered oxygen therapy.The nurse anticipates the use of which oxygen delivery system?
A)Face tent
B)Face mask
C)Nasal cannula
D)Nonrebreathing mask
Q2) The nurse is reviewing lab results for a patient with hypoxemia.The nurse is aware that which of the following results may worsen the patient's hypoxemia? (Select all that apply.)
A)Low sodium levels
B)Low hemoglobin levels
C)Increased blood pH
D)Decreased blood pH
Q3) The patient is on mechanical ventilation.Which actions by the nurse are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
A)Keep the patient in a supine position.
B)Note and mark the level of the endotracheal (ET) tube at the lips or nares.
C)Have suction equipment available for immediate use.
D)Perform mouth care at least twice daily.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching the family of a patient with cystic fibrosis how to use a high-frequency chest wall oscillation (HFCWO) vest.The nurse informs the family that this device will do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Allow patient to perform other tasks while receiving therapy.
B)Improve patient adherence to chest physiotherapy.
C)Assist in the removal of secretions from the lungs.
D)Decrease the viscosity of mucus so coughing it up will be easier.
Q2) The health care provider orders percussion on a patient to help clear airway secretions.Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A)Performing percussion over the ribs, while avoiding the clavicles and sternum
B)Administering pain medication before performing the percussion because the vibrations will be painful
C)Performing percussion during exhalation only with the flat part of the palm
D)Creating a rocking motion by slightly leaning on the patient's chest
Q3) The nurse positions the patient flat on the back with a small pillow under the knees to drain the right and left _____________________.
Q4) The _______________ provides positive expiratory pressure (PEP) with oral airway oscillations.
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Chapter 25: Airway Management
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The student nurse is providing tracheostomy care to a patient who has intratracheal secretions and a damp tracheostomy dressing and ties.Which action by the student should the nursing instructor question?
A)Suctioning the tracheostomy tube before removing the soiled tracheostomy dressing
B)Assisting the patient to semi-Fowler's position
C)Placing new tracheostomy ties before cutting the old ties
D)Cutting gauze pads to place around the tracheostomy tube
Q2) The nurse is assessing the risk for aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs resulting in airway obstruction.The nurse identifies patients with which conditions as having increased risk? (Select all that apply.)
A)Presence of a gastrostomy feeding tube
B)History of smoking 2 packs per day for 30 years
C)Head injury with a decreased level of consciousness
D)Stroke with dysphagia
Q3) Too much oxygen reduces the drive to breathe in patients with chronic
Q4) A _______________ is inserted directly into the trachea through a small incision made in the patient's neck.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Closed Chest Drainage Systems
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the expected role of the nurse include during chest tube removal?
A)Prepares an occlusive dressing
B)Performs clipping of the sutures
C)Provides support and assessment of the patient
D)Removes the chest tube firmly and quickly
Q2) The nurse is providing care for a patient with a pneumothorax.She anticipated removal of the chest tube because of the absence of an air leak for the past _____ hours.
A)6 to 8
B)12 to 16
C)18 to 24
D)48 to 72
Q3) Which of the following is the correct positioning for a patient after a chest tube has been inserted for a hemothorax?
A)Supine
B)Side-lying
C)Semi-Fowler's
D)High-Fowler's
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Chapter 27: Emergency Measures for Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse finds a patient lying on the bathroom floor.The patient is unresponsive and has a pulse but is not breathing.What is the nurse's first action?
A)Give two breaths using mouth-to-mouth without a barrier device.
B)Give two breaths using mouth-to-mouth without a barrier device and watch for chest movement.
C)Give two breaths using a bag-mask device.
D)Start chest compressions until an AED is available.
Q2) Many cardiac arrests are caused by irregular heart rhythms known as ________________.
Q3) The nurse is preparing to insert an oral airway in a patient who is exhibiting signs of potential respiratory distress.The nurse knows that candidates for oral airway placement are those:
A)with oral trauma.
B)with loose teeth.
C)who are unconscious.
D)who have had recent oral surgery.
Q4) The most common cause of airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient is the
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Chapter 28: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pediatric patient has an IV with a microdrip.The order is for 40 mL/hr to infuse.At what rate does the nurse set the microdrip?
A)10 gtt/min
B)20 gtt/min
C)40 gtt/min
D)80 gtt/min
Q2) The patient is on daily weights and is receiving intravenous therapy.The nurse notices that the patient has gained 2 kg since the previous morning.What else would the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)
A)Dry skin and mucous membranes
B)Distended neck veins
C)Tenting of the skin
D)Crackles or rhonchi in the lungs
Q3) An intravenous catheter that is inserted through a large arm vein and is advanced until the tip enters the central venous system is known as a __________________.
Q4) ___________________ is manifested by decreased urine output, dry mucous membranes, decreased capillary refill, a disparity in central and peripheral pulses, tachycardia, hypotension, and shock.
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Chapter 29: Blood Transfusions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is scheduled to receive 1 unit of packed RBCs.She has small, fragile veins, and a 22-gauge intravenous (IV) patent catheter is in place.What should the nurse do?
A)Cancel the blood transfusion.
B)Insert a 16-gauge IV catheter into the antecubital fossa.
C)Use the IV catheter that is in place.
D)Transfuse the blood over 6 hours.
Q2) The specific blood product used for replacement of clotting factors and fibrinogen is:
A)whole blood.
B)packed RBCs.
C)cryoprecipitate.
D)albumin, 25% pooled.
Q3) A nurse is concerned about the type of blood that a patient is to receive.A patient with an O blood type may safely receive which type of blood?
A)Type A blood
B)Type B blood
C)Type AB blood
D)Type O blood
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31
Chapter 30: Oral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is on the dysphagia puree stage of the national dysphagia diet.Which of the following foods may the patient select?
A)Mashed potatoes
B)Dry cereals moistened with milk
C)Well-cooked noodles in gravy
D)Well-moistened cereals
Q2) Which of the following are signs of iron (Fe²?) deficiency? (Select all that apply.)
A)Pale eye membranes
B)Cheilosis (redness/swelling) of the lips
C)Spongy, bleeding gingiva
D)Glossitis
Q3) A patient is admitted to the hospital for evaluation for sleep apnea.The nurse calculates his body mass index (BMI) at 42 kg/m².What does this indicate about the patient's weight?
A)The patient is overweight.
B)The patient falls into the class 1 range of obesity.
C)The patient falls into the class 2 range of obesity.
D)The patient falls into the class 3 range of extreme obesity.
Q4) _______________ is useful for monitoring short-term changes in visceral protein.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Enteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tube passed through the nose or mouth with the end terminating in the stomach or the small bowel, and used in feeding the patient for short periods is known as a
Q2) The nurse would anticipate the need for an enteral access device in which of the following patients?
A)Patient whose bowel sounds have not yet returned after abdominal surgery
B)Patient who recently suffered a cerebrovascular accident ( CVA )
C)Patient who dislikes the taste of facility meals
D)Patient who suffers from severe acute dysphagia
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric tube in place.What interventions would the nurse perform to reduce the risk of clogging the feeding tube? (Select all that apply.)
A)Use the smallest barrel syringe possible to reduce the pressure in the tube.
B)Mix medication with feedings to thoroughly dilute the medication.
C)Flush the tube liberally with water before, between, and after each medication instillation.
D)Use the largest barrel syringe possible to reduce the pressure in the tube.
E)Crush solid medications thoroughly and mix them in water before administration.
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Chapter 32: Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) If PN must be discontinued suddenly, hang __________ in water at the same infusion rate to prevent hypoglycemia.
Q2) The patient has been ordered to receive parenteral nutrition but will require the nutritional therapy to continue for several months.Which route is most important for the nurse to consider?
A)Second intravenous line
B)Enteral feeding tube
C)Central venous access device
D)Parenteral feeding tube
Q3) The patient has been receiving PN but has not been given lipid emulsion therapy.The nurse notices that the patient is developing dry, scaly skin, his wound is healing more slowly than expected, and he is anemic.Which condition should the nurse anticipate as a potential problem?
A)Excess linoleic acid
B)Omega-6 fatty acid excess
C)Essential fatty acid deficiency
D)Electrolyte instability
Q4) For patients receiving PN, ___________ provide supplemental kilocalories and prevent essential fatty acid deficiencies.
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Chapter 33: Urinary Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the basis of the nurse's assessment of kidney function for an adult patient, which finding is normal?
A)10 mL/hr
B)20 mL/hr
C)30 mL/hr
D)100 mL/hr
Q2) In assisting a male patient in using a urinal, which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A)Assess for orthostatic hypotension.
B)Assess the patient's normal elimination habits.
C)Assess for periods of incontinence.
D)Prop the urinal in place if the patient is unable to hold it.
E)Always stay with the patient during urinal use.
Q3) When the balloon on an indwelling urinary catheter is inflated and the patient expresses discomfort, it is essential for the nurse to take which action?
A)Remove the catheter.
B)Continue to blow up the balloon because discomfort is expected.
C)Aspirate the fluid from the balloon and advance the catheter.
D)Pull back on the catheter slightly to determine tension.
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Chapter 34: Bowel Elimination and Gastric Intubation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has been on bed rest for several weeks.The nurse notes that the patient is continually seeping liquid stool rectally.The nurse should take which action?
A)Hold the patient's antibiotics.
B)Put the patient on a bran diet.
C)Perform a digital rectal examination.
D)Increase the dosage of the patient's antibiotics.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer an enema to an adult patient who has normal sphincter control.For administration of the enema, the patient is placed in which position?
A)Right side-lying
B)Dorsal recumbent
C)Sims'
D)Prone
Q3) A bedpan that is designed for patients with body or leg casts or for patients restricted from raising their hips (e.g., following total joint replacement) is known as a
Q4) An ___________ is the instillation of a solution into the rectum and sigmoid colon to promote defecation by stimulating peristalsis.
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Chapter 35: Ostomy Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has a urostomy is being discharged to home.Which instruction will the nurse to provide to the patient?
A)Restrict fluid intake to reduce urine output.
B)Report any mucus in his urine.
C)Keep unused pouches in the refrigerator.
D)Shower without covering the pouch.
Q2) When providing care for a patient with a colostomy or an ileostomy, the nurse recognizes that which is an expected assessment finding?
A)A moist, reddish-pink stoma
B)A dry, purplish stoma
C)Erythema on the skin around the stoma
D)No drainage noted from the stoma when washed
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with an ostomy.The nurse notes that the ostomy is putting out watery effluent.The nurse recognizes that this is indicative of which location?
A)Descending colon
B)Sigmoid colon
C)Ileal portion of the small intestine
D)transverse colon
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Chapter 36: Preoperative and Postoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) In planning care for a surgical patient, the patient asks the nurse what may be "left on" during the surgery.Understanding patient safety, the nurse tells the patient that which item may remain in place?
A)Hearing aid
B)Artificial limb
C)Pair of eyeglasses
D)Pair of contact lenses
Q2) The goal of prophylactic antibiotic therapy is to protect the patient from infection with as little risk as possible.To achieve this goal, the nurse recognizes that antibiotics should be administered when they will be most beneficial.When would that be?
A)Twenty-four hours before surgery
B)For 2 weeks after surgery
C)For no longer than 24 hours after surgery
D)When signs of infection first appear
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Chapter 37: Intraoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The charge nurse is assigning duties in the surgical arena.Which member of the surgical team should be assigned to the role of circulating nurse?
A)Registered nurse (RN)
B)Licensed practical nurse (LPN)
C)Certified surgical technologist (CST)
D)Licensed nursing assistant
Q2) The nurse recognizes that evidence-based care is appropriate when the nurse witnesses the surgeon take which step?
A)Washing hands for a minimum of 15 minutes with soap and water
B)Using alcohol hand scrub for 15 minutes
C)Using alcohol combined with chlorhexidine gluconate hand scrubs
D)Using a combination of soap and alcohol as a scrub
Q3) Which of the following is true about the circulating nurse's primary responsibility?
A)She is a "sterile" member of the surgical team.
B)She provides the surgeon with instruments.
C)She is a "nonsterile" member of the surgical team.
D)She performs delegated medical functions or skills.
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Chapter 38: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is changing a surgical dressing and is cleansing the wound.She knows that:
A)the incision line should be cleansed last.
B)she should start at one end of the incision line and swab the entire length.
C)she should start at the center of the incision line and swab toward one end.
D)she should work in a circular motion around the incision line.
Q2) What is an appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for drainage evacuation?
A)Replace the Hemovac drain fully expanded.
B)Attach the drainage tubing to the patient's gown.
C)Tilt the evacuator of the Hemovac away from the plug.
D)Complete the dressing change before the drainage evacuation.
Q3) What should the nurse do when performing suture or staple removal?
A)Snip both ends of the sutures.
B)Apply tension to the suture line to remove the sutures.
C)Pull the exposed surface of the suture through the tissue below the epidermis.
D)Apply Steri-Strips if any separation greater than the width of two stitches is present.
Q4) The Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain relies on the presence of a vacuum to withdraw drainage and is considered a __________ drainage system.
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Chapter 39: Dressings, Bandages, and Binders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has a large, deep wound on the sacral region.The nurse correctly packs the wound by:
A)filling two thirds of the wound cavity.
B)leaving saline-soaked folded gauze squares in place.
C)putting the dressing in very tightly.
D)extending only to the upper edge of the wound.
Q2) The patient is being sent home from the hospital after a cardiac catheterization.What should the nurse instruct the patient to do first if bleeding should occur at the femoral artery puncture site?
A)Call the physician.
B)Call 9-1-1.
C)Apply pressure to the site.
D)Apply a new bandage.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a wound healing by primary intention that has little to no drainage.Which dressing is most appropriate for this type of wound?
A)Moist-to-dry dressing
B)Hydrocolloid dressing
C)Dry dressing
D)Hydrogel dressing
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Therapeutic Use of Heat and Cold
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is applying an ice pack to the patient's knee.She notices moisture on the outside of the bag.How should the nurse respond?
A)Discard the ice pack because it is leaking.
B)Refill the ice pack to the top.
C)Continue to apply the ice pack.
D)Open the ice pack to allow air inside.
Q2) The nurse is using cryotherapy for a patient with a sprained ankle.She is explaining the benefits to her patient.Which of the following statements made about the benefits of cryotherapy is correct?
A)It causes vasodilatation.
B)It provides local anesthesia.
C)It increases nerve conduction velocity.
D)It increases blood flow.
Q3) When applying a hypothermia or hyperthermia blanket, the nurse should:
A)wrap the patient's hands and feet.
B)monitor the patient's axillary temperature every hour.
C)put the patient directly onto the heating or cooling blanket.
D)place the patient onto the blanket and then start the heating or cooling process.
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Chapter 41: Home Care Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is on neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin and regular insulin at home.How should the nurse teach the patient and the patient's caregiver to store the insulin?
A)In the refrigerator and removed only for administration
B)In a warm place such as in a cabinet above the stove
C)In the dairy bin of the refrigerator with the cheese and eggs
D)At room temperature for up to 30 days
Q2) A patient with a cognitive deficit becomes agitated and upset about not being able to remember daily activities.How should the nurse respond to this agitation?
A)Tell the patient not to worry about it.
B)Provide an easy-to-follow calendar and reinforce the information.
C)Explain that becoming upset is not going to help the situation.
D)Remind the patient that now is the time to rest and relax.
Q3) Activities of daily living (ADLs) include the patient's ability to bathe, dress, go to the toilet, transfer, maintain continence, and feed himself; _______ include the ability to use a telephone, prepare meals, travel, do housework, take medication, and shop.
Q4) ___________ is a generalized impairment of intellectual functioning, with the most common form being Alzheimer's disease.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Home Care Teaching
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Q1) What should the nurse first assess when preparing to teach a patient and/or family member how to read a thermometer?
A)Patient's actual temperature
B)Patient's ability to manipulate the thermometer
C)Family member's temperature
D)Patient's ability to take a pulse and respiratory rate as well
Q2) A ___________________ delivers oxygen through a catheter permanently inserted into the trachea, thus allowing the patient to speak and bypassing anatomical dead space.
Q3) When teaching the patient and family about CISC, why is it important for the nurse to teach about the signs and symptoms of complications?
A)Although rare, complications are always severe.
B)It is part of the process; complications almost never occur.
C)Urinary complications are common with CISC.
D)The only major complication is infection.
Q4) Oxygen-conserving devices (OCDs) reduce the amount of oxygen the patient uses, resulting in an overall cost reduction to the patient.The type of OCD that stores oxygen in a chamber during the expiratory phase of respirations is known as the
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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) When blood specimens are drawn, which of the following is true?
A)Draw cryoglobulin levels using test tubes placed on ice.
B)To test ammonia and ionized calcium levels, warm the test tubes.
C)To draw for lactic acid levels, do not use a tourniquet.
D)To draw for vitamin levels, use light to determine density.
Q2) What should the nurse do first if a patient is unable to void on demand for a clean-voided specimen?
A)Perform Credé's procedure for the suprapubic area.
B)Catheterize the patient to obtain the specimen.
C)Offer fluids, if allowed, and wait about 30 minutes.
D)Notify the physician that the test cannot be completed.
Q3) Localized inflammation, tenderness, warmth at the wound site, and purulent drainage usually signify _______________.
Q4) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement when obtaining an ABG specimen is to:
A)insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
B)use a 19-gauge, 1-inch needle.
C)leave 0.5 mL of heparin in the syringe.
D)aspirate blood after the puncture.
Q5) _______________ organisms grow in superficial wounds exposed to the air.
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Chapter 44: Diagnostic Procedures
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Q1) A _____________ involves the introduction of a needle into the subarachnoid space of the spinal column.The purpose of this test is to measure pressure in the subarachnoid space; obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for visualization and laboratory examination; and inject anesthetic, diagnostic, or therapeutic agents.
Q2) When explaining about a lumbar puncture, the nurse informs the patient that during the procedure, he or she will be asked to:
A)remain very still.
B)cough during the fluid aspiration.
C)change position.
D)breathe deeply during the needle insertion.
Q3) Which action should the nurse take after a procedure requiring intravenous moderate sedation?
A)Report to the physician a Ramsay sedation score that is less than 3.
B)Monitor airway patency and vital signs every 5 minutes for 30 minutes.
C)Take vital signs every 15 minutes for the next 2 hours.
D)Take vital signs every 30 minutes until stable.
Q4) An _______________ permits visualization of the vasculature of an organ and the organ's arterial system.
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