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Fundamentals of Nursing introduces students to the essential concepts and skills foundational to the nursing profession. The course covers core topics such as basic patient care, health assessment, infection control, communication, ethical and legal principles, and the nursing process. Emphasizing patient-centered care, it prepares students to provide safe, effective, and compassionate care in a variety of healthcare settings. Through a combination of theoretical instruction, laboratory practice, and clinical experiences, students develop the competencies necessary for entry-level nursing practice and build a strong foundation for further study in advanced nursing courses.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Nursing 8th Edition by Taylor
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
45 Chapters
1562 Verified Questions
1562 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3964 Page 2
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35 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) While providing care to the diabetic patient the nurse determines that the patient has a knowledge deficit regarding insulin administration. This nursing action is described in which phase of the nursing process?
A) evaluation
B) implementation
C) planning
D) nursing diagnosis
Answer: D
Q2) A client reports to the emergency department with ankle pain from a minor road accident. The nurse asks the client to fully describe the circumstances of the accident. Which ANA standard of nursing practice is best demonstrated by the nurse's action?
A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Ethics
D) Caring
Answer: A
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Q1) A staff development nurse is asking a group of new staff nurses to read and be prepared to discuss a qualitative study that focuses on nursing events of the past. This is done in an attempt to increase understanding of the nursing profession today. What method of qualitative research is used in this article?
A) Historical
B) Phenomenology
C) Grounded theory
D) Ethnography
Answer: A
Q2) After reviewing several research articles, the clinical nurse specialist on a medical surgical unit rewrites the procedure on assessing placement of a nasogastric tube. What source of nursing knowledge did the nurse use in this situation?
A) Scientific knowledge
B) Traditional knowledge
C) Authoritative knowledge
D) Philosophical knowledge
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) A homeless client has been brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after being found unresponsive outside a mall. The client is known to the ED staff as having bipolar disorder, and assessment reveals likely cellulitis on his left ankle. He is febrile with a productive cough, and the care team suspects pneumonia. A sputum culture for tuberculosis has been obtained and sent to the laboratory. Which of the following aspects of the client's medical condition would be considered a chronic condition?
A) Bipolar disorder
B) Pneumonia
C) Cellulitis
D) Tuberculosis
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse is educating women on the need for calcium to prevent bone loss. What level of prevention does this represent?
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Residual prevention
Answer: A
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Q1) During the course of assessing the family structure and behaviors of a pediatric patient's family, the nurse has identified a number of highly significant risk factors. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize when addressing these risk factors?
A) Engage in appropriate health promotion activities.
B) Validate the family's unique way of being.
C) Enlist the help of community and social support.
D) Introduce the family to another family that possesses fewer risk factors.
Q2) The nurse who is caring for a child admitted after an automobile accident recognizes the importance of including the child's family in the plan of care. Inclusion of the family meets which of Maslow's basic human needs?
A) Love and belonging
B) Physiologic
C) Self-esteem
D) Self-actualization
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Q1) When the South Asian client arrives 25 minutes late to her appointment at the clinic, the nurse recognizes this as a sign of which of the following?
A) Disrespect
B) Laziness
C) Respect
D) Superiority
Q2) When providing nursing care to an African American individual, which of the following cultural factors should the nurse consider?
A) Values and beliefs are often present oriented.
B) Families are usually patriarchal.
C) They possess weak religious affiliations.
D) Families are highly competitive.
Q3) A father, mother, grandmother, and three school-aged children have immigrated to the United States from Thailand. Which member(s) of the family are likely to learn to speak English more rapidly?
A) Unemployed father
B) Stay-at-home mother
C) Grandmother
D) Children
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Q1) Two children need a kidney transplant. One is the child of a famous sports figure, whereas the other child comes from a low-income family. What ethically relevant consideration is important to the nurse as an advocate for these clients?
A) Balance between benefits and harms in patient care
B) Norms of family life
C) Considerations of power
D) Cost-effectiveness and allocation
Q2) A nurse is concerned about the practice of routinely ordering a battery of laboratory tests for clients who are admitted to the hospital from a long-term care facility. An appropriate source in handling this ethical dilemma would be which of the following?
A) The client's family
B) The admitting physician
C) The nurse in charge of the unit
D) The institutional ethics committee
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Q1) A nurse fails to administer a medication that prevents seizures, and the client has a seizure. The nurse is in violation of the Nurse Practice Act. What type of law is the nurse in violation of?
A) Criminal
B) Federal
C) Civil
D) Supreme
Q2) Which of the following accreditations is a legal requirement for a school of nursing to exist?
A) National League for Nursing Accrediting Commission
B) American Association of Colleges of Nursing accreditation
C) State Board of Nursing accreditation
D) Educational institution accreditation
Q3) A baccalaureate-prepared nurse is applying for a nurse practitioner position. The nurse is:
A) Well educated and can perform these duties
B) Able to practice as a nurse practitioner
C) Educated to practice only with pediatric patients
D) Practicing beyond his scope according to licensure
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Q1) What is one of the most significant trends in health care today?
A) Increased length of hospital stays
B) Shift from hospitals to community-based care
C) Emphasis on disease management
D) Narrowing of the areas for nursing practice
Q2) What is the primary focus of health care today?
A) Care of acute illnesses
B) Care of chronic illnesses
C) Health promotion
D) Health restoration
Q3) Nurses who assist clients to deal holistically with their health care needs at the end of their lives work primarily in which health care delivery system?
A) Acute care
B) Primary care
C) Hospice
D) Rehabilitation
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Q1) Which health care provider is responsible for ensuring the room is prepared for admission and that the client is welcomed?
A) Nursing assistant
B) Admitting room clerk
C) Social worker
D) Nurse
Q2) A nurse is admitting an older woman (Grace Staples) to a long-term care facility. How should the nurse address the woman?
A) "We will just call you Grace while you live here. Okay?"
B) "I know you have lots of grandchildren, Grandma."
C) "What name do you want us to use for you?"
D) "I think you will enjoy living here, Sweetie."
Q3) Which one of the following roles of the home health care nurse illustrates the role of coordinator of services?
A) Providing certification for home care
B) Providing direct physical care to the client
C) Providing information about community resources
D) Educating the client and caregiver about wound care
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Q1) A nurse has come on day shift and is assessing the client's intravenous setup. The nurse notes that there is a mini-bag of the client's antibiotic hanging as a piggyback, but that the bag is still full. The nurse examines the patient's medication administration record (MAR) and concludes that the night nurse likely hung the antibiotic but failed to start the infusion. As a result, the antibiotic is three hours late and the nurse has consequently filled out an incident report. In doing so, the nurse has exhibited which of the following?
A) Ethical/legal skills
B) Technical skills
C) Interpersonal skills
D) Cognitive skills
Q2) What nursing organization first legitimized the use of the nursing process?
A) National League for Nursing
B) American Nurses Association
C) International Council of Nursing
D) State Board of Nursing
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Q1) When documenting subjective data, the nurse should do which of the following?
A) Use the client's own words placed in quotation marks.
B) Paraphrase the information stated by the client.
C) Validate the information with the client's family prior to documentation.
D) Record the information using nonspecific words.
Q2) The nurse has entered a client's room to find the client diaphoretic (sweat-covered) and shivering, inferring that the client has a fever. How should the nurse best follow up this cue and inference?
A) Measure the client's oral temperature.
B) Ask a colleague for assistance.
C) Give the client a clean gown and warm blankets.
D) Obtain an order for blood cultures.
Q3) A client comes to her health care provider's office because she is having abdominal pain. She has been seen for this problem before. What type of assessment would the nurse do?
A) Initial assessment
B) Focused assessment
C) Emergency assessment
D) Time-lapsed assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student is reviewing a client's chart before giving care. She notes the following diagnoses in the contents of the chart: "appendicitis" and "acute pain." Which of the diagnoses is a medical diagnosis?
A) Neither appendicitis nor acute pain
B) Both appendicitis and acute pain
C) Appendicitis
D) Acute pain
Q2) A nurse completes a health history and physical assessment for an adolescent before he begins football practice. Based on findings, the nurse recommends reinforcing good health habits. What conclusion did the nurse reach after interpreting and analyzing the data?
A) No problem
B) Possible problem
C) Actual problem
D) Clinical problem
Q3) What is the nurse accountable for, according to the state nurse practice act?
A) Continuing education
B) Nursing diagnoses
C) Prescribing medications
D) Mentoring other nurses
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Q1) Nurses identifying outcomes and related nursing interventions must refer to the standards and agency policies for setting priorities, identifying and recording expected client outcomes, selecting evidence-based nursing interventions, and recording the plan of care. Which of the following are recognized standards? Select all that apply.
A) Professional physicians' organizations
B) State Nurse Practice Acts
C) The Joint Commission
D) The Agency for Health Care Research and Quality
E) The Patient Health Partnership
Q2) Critical thinking is an essential component in all phases of the nursing process. What question might be used to facilitate critical thinking during outcome identification and planning?
A) "How do I best cluster these data and cues to identify problems?"
B) "What problems require my immediate attention or that of the team?"
C) "What major defining characteristics are present for a nursing diagnosis?"
D) "How do I document care accurately and legally?"
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Q1) What is the unique focus of nursing implementation?
A) Client response to health and illness
B) Client response to nursing diagnosis
C) Client compliance with treatment regimen
D) Client interview and physical assessment
Q2) Which is a responsibility of the nurse in the nurse-client-family team relationship?
A) Provide creative leadership to make the nursing unit a satisfying and challenging place to work.
B) Support the nursing care given by other nursing and non-nursing personnel.
C) Educate the family to be informed and assertive consumers of health care.
D) Coordinate the inputs of the multidisciplinary team into a comprehensive plan of care.
Q3) A nurse delegates a specific intervention to a UAP. What implications does this have for the nurse?
A) The UAP is responsible and accountable for his or her own actions.
B) Nurses do not have authority to delegate interventions.
C) The nurse transfers responsibility but is accountable for the outcome.
D) The UAP can function in an independent role for all interventions.
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Q1) Which activity does the nurse perform during the evaluating stage? Select all that apply.
A) Validates with the client the problem of constipation.
B) Collects data to determine the number of catheter-associated infections on the nursing unit.
C) Increases the frequency of repositioning from every two hours to every one hour.
D) Sets a goal of ambulating from bed to room door and back to bed.
E) Identifies smoking and sedentary lifestyle as risk factors for hypertension.
Q2) Nursing care and client outcomes may be evaluated by use of a retrospective evaluation process. Which of the following is an example of a retrospective evaluation process?
A) Postdischarge questionnaire.
B) Direct observation of nursing care.
C) Client interview during hospitalization.
D) Review of client's chart during hospitalization.
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Q1) A nurse in a nursing home is writing a note that addresses the care a resident has received during the day and the resident's response to care. What type of note does this represent?
A) PIE note
B) Flow sheet
C) Narrative note
D) SOAP note
Q2) A nurse realizes that the dosage of the medication administered to the client has been entered incorrectly into the client records. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to do?
A) Completely erase or delete the erroneous entry if possible.
B) Use a highlighter to mark the incorrect entry and place initials next to it.
C) Strike out the entry with a single line, place initials next to it, and write the correct entry.
D) Black out the erroneous entry with a dark pen or marker.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides care in a women's health clinic that is located in an inner city neighborhood. Which of the following theorists' work applies most directly to this nurse's client population?
A) Gilligan
B) Kohlberg
C) Gould
D) Fowler
Q2) Many different factors affect growth and development. For example, why does one child have blonde hair and blue eyes while another child has brown hair and green eyes?
A) Childhood illnesses
B) Genetic inheritance
C) Prenatal influences
D) Maternal nutrition
Q3) A child gains weight and becomes taller each year. What is this process called?
A) Development
B) Orderly change
C) Progression
D) Growth
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Q1) A nurse is teaching a young couple about the normal changes during pregnancy. What should be included in the teaching sessions about the expectant father's role?
A) Nothing, the mother's preparation is more important.
B) In a traditional family, the mother is responsible for child care.
C) The importance of feeling pride as a future parent.
D) The provision of support in meeting maternal needs.
Q2) A nurse is educating the parents of an infant about possible health problems during infancy. Which of the following health problems during infancy is most serious?
A) Colic
B) Seborrheic dermatitis
C) Failure to thrive
D) SIDS
Q3) A student nurse reading a client's chart notes that the physician has documented an adolescent as prepubescent. What does the term prepubescent mean?
A) Adult secondary sex characteristics are present
B) Ova and sperm are produced by the reproductive organs
C) Reproductive organs do not yet produce ova and sperm
D) Active sexual behavior has been initiated
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Q1) A nurse is developing a plan of care for an older adult with chronic heart disease. Which of the following factors must be considered?
A) Family members do not need to be as involved in the care of the older adult.
B) Almost 100% of all older adults have limitations from multiple chronic illnesses.
C) Older adults do not want to maintain their health and independence.
D) Medications, hospitalizations, and medical supplies increase economic difficulties.
Q2) An older adult lives in a facility that provides, housing, group meals, personal care and support, social activities, and minimal health care services. What type of facility does this describe?
A) Nursing home
B) Assisted living
C) Accessory apartment
D) Home modification
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Q1) Which term describes a nurse who is sensitive to the client's feelings, but remains objective enough to help the client achieve positive outcomes?
A) Competent
B) Caring
C) Honest
D) Empathic
Q2) Why is communication important to the "assessing" step of the nursing process?
A) The major focus of assessing is to gather information.
B) Assessing is primarily focused on physical findings.
C) Assessing involves only nonverbal cues.
D) Written information is rarely used in assessment.
Q3) A nurse tells a client, "Aren't you going to get out of bed or are you just going to sleep all day and night?" This is an example of which of the following barriers to communication?
A) Using comments that give advice
B) Using judgmental or belittling language
C) Using leading questions
D) Using probing questions
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Q1) An older adult client is very stressed about who will care for his pets while he is hospitalized for a fall that caused a fractured hip. What type of counseling would the nurse conduct?
A) None
B) Long-term
C) Short-term
D) Motivational
Q2) Developing an education plan is comparable to what other nursing activity?
A) Documenting in the nurses notes
B) Formulating a nursing care plan
C) Performing a complex technical skill
D) Using a standardized form or format
Q3) What is the most critical element of documentation of education?
A) A summary of the education plan
B) The implementation of the education plan
C) the client's need for learning
D) Evidence that learning has occurred
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Q1) The ANA, which is committed to monitoring the regulation, education, and use of NAPs, recommends adherence to which one of the following principles?
A) It is the nursing profession that determines the scope of nursing practice.
B) It is the RN who defines and supervises the education, training, and use of any unlicensed assistant roles.
C) It is the assigned NAP who is responsible and accountable for his or her nursing practice.
D) It is the purpose of the RN to work in a supportive role to the assistive personnel.
Q2) A nurse manager has encountered resistance to a planned change. What is one way the nurse can overcome the resistance?
A) Tell the staff that if they don't like it, they can quit.
B) Implement change rapidly and all at once.
C) Encourage open communication and feedback.
D) Let the staff know that the change is mandated.
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Q1) A nurse is positioning a sterile drape to extend the working area when performing a urinary catheterization. Which of the following is an appropriate technique for this procedure?
A) Use sterile gloves to handle the entire drape surface.
B) Fold the lower edges of the drape over the sterile-gloved hands.
C) Touch only the outer two inches of the drape when not wearing sterile gloves.
D) When reaching over the drape do not allow clothing to touch the drape.
Q2) A nurse is caring for an adolescent who is diagnosed with mononucleosis, commonly called "the kissing disease." The nurse explains that the organisms causing this disease were transmitted by:
A) direct contact.
B) indirect contact.
C) airborne route.
D) vectors.
Q3) The latest CDC guidelines designate standard precautions for all substances except which of the following?
A) Urine
B) Blood
C) Sweat
D) Vomitus
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Q1) A hospital unit has a policy that rectal temperatures may not be taken on clients who have had cardiac surgery. What rationale supports this policy?
A) It is an embarrassing and painful assessment.
B) Thermometer insertion stimulates the vagus nerve.
C) It is less expensive to take oral temperatures.
D) It is to avoid perforating the wall of the rectum.
Q2) An male client 86 years of age with a diagnosis of vascular dementia and cardiomyopathy is exhibiting signs and symptoms of pneumonia. The nurse has attempted to assess his temperature using an oral thermometer, but the client is unable to follow directions to close his mouth and secure the thermometer sublingually. Additionally, he repeatedly withdraws his head when the nurse attempts to use a tympanic thermometer. How should the nurse proceed with this assessment?
A) Assess the client's temperature by axilla.
B) Assess the client's skin tone and the presence or absence of sweating to determine whether the client is febrile.
C) Use a disposable mercury thermometer to take the client's temperature.
D) Take the client's temperature rectally.
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Q1) Which framework is used during the focused assessment?
A) Functional health assessment
B) Head-to-toe framework
C) Conceptual framework
D) Body systems framework
Q2) When inspecting the skin of a client, the nurse notes a bluish tinge to the skin. What condition would the nurse document?
A) Jaundice
B) Cyanosis
C) Erythema
D) Pallor
Q3) When conducting a physical assessment, what should the nurse assess and document about size and shape of body parts?
A) Actual measurements in centimeters
B) Symmetry (comparison of bilateral body parts)
C) Indications of general health status
D) Vital signs of all extremities (arms and legs)
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Q1) A nurse specializes in caring for victims of domestic violence. Which of the following statements accurately describes domestic violence in the United States? (Select all that apply.)
A) Studies indicate that each year, more than 12 million adults in the United States are victims of intimate partner violence.
B) Intimate partner violence is domestic violence or battering between two people in a close relationship.
C) Many men who batter their spouses also batter their children.
D) There is no evidence linking childhood sexual abuse to adult physical symptoms or substance abuse.
E) Domestic violence is not seen in a cycle.
Q2) A client is very anxious and states, "I am so stressed." Why do these factors affect the client's safety?
A) Stress increases retention of information
B) Stress affects interpersonal relationships
C) Stress increases concern about hazards
D) Stress tends to narrow the attention span
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Q1) A client informs a nurse practitioner that she takes the herb St. John's wort for symptoms of depression. The nurse recognizes herbal therapy as belonging to which complementary and alternative therapy (CAT) domain?
A) Biologically based practices
B) Energy medicine
C) Mind-body medicine
D) Manipulative practices
Q2) Why is it important to obtain information from a client related to the use of herbal supplements during a nursing assessment?
A) Some herbs or supplements may interact with a client's prescribed medications.
B) Nurses have special knowledge related to the use of herbs and supplements.
C) Some herbs or supplements require a special diet.
D) The herb or supplement may need to be acquired from another country.
Q3) Which of the following is considered a holistic approach to food choices?
A) The carbonation in soft drinks is beneficial to health.
B) Vegetarian diets should be avoided because they limit options.
C) Avoid eating foods with preservatives.
D) Increase intake of natural sugar.
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a medication via a nasogastric tube. What guideline is appropriate for the nurse to follow when administering a drug via this route?
A) Flush the tube with water between each drug administered.
B) Position the client supine prior to administering the drug.
C) Administer the medication at a cold temperature.
D) If connected to suction, do not reconnect to suction for five minutes after drug administration.
Q2) What would a nurse instruct a client to do after administration of a sublingual medication?
A) "Take a big drink of water and swallow the pill."
B) "Try not to swallow while the pill dissolves."
C) "Swallow frequently to get the best benefit."
D) "Chew the pill so it will dissolve faster."
Q3) A nurse has administered an intramuscular injection. What will the nurse do with the syringe and needle?
A) Recap the needle; place it in a puncture-resistant container.
B) Do not recap the needle; place it in a puncture-resistant container.
C) Break off the needle, place it in the barrel, and throw it in the trash.
D) Take off the needle and throw the syringe in the client's trash can.
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Q1) A nurse is educating a client about regional anesthesia. Which of the following statements is accurate about this type of anesthesia?
A) "You will be asleep and won't be aware of the procedure."
B) "You will be asleep but may feel some pain during the procedure."
C) "You will be awake but will not be aware of the procedure."
D) "You will be awake and will not have sensation of the procedure."
Q2) A physician has ordered a nurse to administer conscious sedation to a client. Which of the following is possible after administering conscious sedation to a client?
A) Client can respond verbally despite physical immobility.
B) Client can tolerate long therapeutic surgical procedures.
C) Client is relaxed, emotionally comfortable, and conscious.
D) Client's consciousness level can be monitored by equipment.
Q3) A nurse is reviewing results of preoperative screening tests and notes the client's potassium level is dangerously low. What should the nurse do next?
A) Nothing; potassium levels have no influence on surgical outcome.
B) Include the information in the postoperative end of shift report.
C) Document the data and notify the physician who will do the surgery.
D) Ask the client and family members why the potassium is low.
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Q1) A nurse is preparing to provide foot care to a client who has decreased mobility. Which of the following techniques should the nurse employ when providing this care?
A) Use an antifungal powder on the client's feet if necessary.
B) Carefully remove any corns or calluses that are present.
C) Soak the client's feet for 15 to 20 minutes prior to cleansing.
D) Avoid using soaps or commercial cleansers whenever possible.
Q2) Which client is most likely to require hospitalization related to problems associated with the feet?
A) A client with peripheral vascular disease
B) A client with osteoporosis
C) A client with asthma
D) A client with diabetes insipidus
Q3) Which of the following factors does not affect personal hygiene practices?
A) Culture
B) Income level
C) Health state
D) Gender
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Q1) A home health nurse has a caseload of several postoperative clients. Which one would be most likely to require a longer period of care?
A) An infant
B) A young adult
C) A middle adult
D) An older adult
Q2) Upon responding to the client's call bell, the nurse discovers the client's wound has dehisced. Initial nursing management includes calling the physician and doing which of the following?
A) Covering the wound area with sterile towels moistened with sterile 0.9% saline
B) Closing the wound area with Steri-Strips
C) Pouring sterile hydrogen peroxide into the abdominal cavity and packing with gauze
D) Holding the wound together until the physician arrives
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Q1) When moving a client up in bed, the nurse asks the client to fold the arms across the chest and lift the head with the chin on the chest. What is the rationale for placing the client in this position?
A) To prevent hyperextension of the neck
B) To prevent pressure on the arms
C) To lower the client's center of gravity
D) To decrease the effort needed to move the client
Q2) A nurse is repositioning a client who has physical limitations due to recent back surgery. How often would the nurse turn the client in bed?
A) Every hour
B) Every two hours
C) Every four hours
D) Every shift
Q3) Which postural deformity might be assessed in a teenager?
A) Kyphosis
B) Rickets
C) Osteoporosis
D) Scoliosis
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Q1) The client is a male who states his wife complains that his snoring awakens her at night. The spouse is present. To obtain further data, the nurse asks the spouse what?
A) "How loud is his snoring?"
B) "Is there silence after snoring which then is followed with a snort?"
C) "How long does he snore each night?"
D) "How often are you awakened at night due to his loud snoring?"
Q2) What is the rationale for using CPAP to treat sleep apnea?
A) Positive air pressure holds the airway open.
B) Negative air pressure holds the airway closed.
C) Delivery of oxygen facilitates respiratory effort.
D) Alternating waves of air stimulate breathing.
Q3) A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with insomnia. What nursing intervention would help the nurse relieve the client's condition?
A) Maintain a calm and quiet environment free from noise.
B) Administer sedatives as prescribed by the physician.
C) Motivate the client to sleep because it may affect his health.
D) Engage the client in some diversional activities.
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Q1) A mother calls the nurse practitioner to say, "I don't know what is wrong with my baby. He cried all night and kept pulling at his ear." How would the nurse respond?
A) "Oh, he probably was just hungry and wet. Did you feed him?"
B) "Babies at that age cry at night. Think nothing of it."
C) "That means his ear hurt. Bring him in to be checked."
D) "That probably means he had a tummy ache. How is he now?"
Q2) Which misconception is common in clients in pain?
A) "I will get addicted to pain medications."
B) "I need to ask for pain medications."
C) "The nurses are here to help relieve the pain."
D) "I do not have to fight the pain without help."
Q3) A client has been taught relaxation exercises before beginning a painful procedure. What chemicals are believed to be released in the body during relaxation to relieve pain?
A) Narcotics
B) Sedatives
C) A-delta fibers
D) Endorphins
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Q1) A nurse is caring for a client with a history of cardiac and vascular disease. Which of the following fats should the nurse allow in the client's diet for his condition?
A) Unsaturated fats
B) Trans fats
C) Saturated fats
D) Hydrogenated fats
Q2) A nurse is caring for a young adult female client who has a folic acid defiency. When teaching the client about this condition, the nurse would include a discussion about the client's increased risk for which of the following?
A) Neural tube deficits in the fetus
B) Inadequate absorption of calcium and phosphorus
C) Hemolysis of red blood cells
D) Impaired neuromuscular functioning
Q3) Which of the following laboratory results indicates the presence of malnutrition?
A) Serum albumin 2.8 g/dL
B) Hemoglobin (Hgb) 11.3 g/dL
C) Creatinine 1.9 mg/dL
D) Hematocrit (Hct) 56%
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Q1) An older adult woman has constant dribbling of urine. The associated discomfort, odor, and embarrassment may support which of the following nursing diagnoses?
A) Social Isolation
B) Impaired Adjustment
C) Defensive Coping
D) Impaired Memory
Q2) A client with a urinary tract infection is to be discharged from the health care facility. After teaching the client about measures to prevent urinary tract infections, the nurse determines that the education was successful when the client states which of the following?
A) "I should take frequent bubble baths."
B) "I need to void after sexual intercourse."
C) "I should wipe from back to front after going to the bathroom."
D) "I need to wear pants that are snug fitting."
Q3) Which of the following describes the term micturition?
A) Emptying the bladder
B) Catheterizing the bladder
C) Collecting a urine specimen
D) Experiencing total incontinence
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Q1) A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative Day 1 for a temporary colostomy. The nurse assesses no feces in the collection bag. What should the nurse do next?
A) Notify the physician immediately.
B) Ask another nurse to check her findings.
C) Nothing; this is normal.
D) Recheck the bag in two hours.
Q2) A nurse is assessing the stools of a breastfed baby. What is the appearance of normal stools for this baby?
A) Yellow, loose, odorless
B) Brown, paste-like, some odor
C) Brown, formed, strong odor
D) Black, semiformed, no odor
Q3) A nurse is conducting an abdominal assessment. What is the rationale for palpating the abdomen last in the sequence when conducting an abdominal assessment?
A) It is the most painful assessment method
B) It is the most embarrassing assessment method
C) To allow time for the examiner's hands to warm
D) It disturbs normal peristalsis and bowel motility
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Q1) A nurse is educating a postoperative client on how to use an incentive spirometer. Which of the following is an accurate step that should be included in the teaching plan?
A) Instruct the client to inhale normally and then place the lips securely around the mouthpiece.
B) Instruct the client to inhale slowly and as deeply as possible through the mouthpiece, without using the nose.
C) When the client cannot inhale anymore, the patient should hold his or her breath and count to 10.
D) Encourage the client to perform incentive spirometry two to three times every one to two hours, if possible.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a toddler who is having an acute asthmatic attack with copious mucus and difficulty breathing. The child's skin is cyanotic, respirations are labored and rapid, and pulse is rapid. What nursing diagnosis would have priority for care of this child?
A) Anxiety
B) Ineffective Airway Clearance
C) Excess Fluid Volume
D) Disturbed Sensory Perception
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Q1) A client asks a nurse if it is possible to contract a disease by donating blood. How would the nurse respond?
A) "There is only a very small chance; I know you will be safe."
B) "Although hepatitis is possible, AIDS is not."
C) "If I were you, I would request special handling of my blood."
D) "There is no way you can contract a disease by giving blood."
Q2) A physician writes an order to "force fluids." What will be the first action the nurse will take in implementing this order?
A) Explain to the client why this is needed.
B) Tell the client and family to increase oral intake.
C) Decide how much fluid to increase each eight hours.
D) Divide the intake so the largest amount is at night.
Q3) A nurse measures a client's 24-hour fluid intake and documents the findings. To be an accurate indicator of fluid status, what must the nurse also do with the information?
A) Compare the client's intake with the normal range of adult fluid intake.
B) Report the exact milliliter of intake to the physician's office nurse.
C) Compare the total intake and output of fluids for the 24 hours.
D) Ensure that the information is included in the verbal end-of-shift report.
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Q1) Which term best describes an individual's self-concept?
A) Self-esteem
B) Self-actualization
C) Self-realization
D) Self-image
Q2) An infant learns that the physical self is different from the environment. What term is used to describe this stage of self-concept?
A) Self-awareness
B) Self-recognition
C) Self-definition
D) Self-concept
Q3) Who or what plays the most influential role in the internalization of self-concept in children?
A) Peers
B) Parents
C) School
D) Church
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Q1) The client is under immediate stress. The nurse assesses which sign as an effect of the sympathetic system?
A) Blood sugar of 65 mg/dL
B) Heart rate of 102 beats/minute
C) Increased bowel sounds
D) Cool, clammy skin
Q2) Which of the following statements, made by a senior citizen who has taken a class on stress reduction, would indicate to the nurse the need for further instruction?
A) Adults draw on coping skills learned throughout life.
B) Family members can be supportive during stress.
C) Stress may be positive or negative.
D) As one grows older, their stress decreases.
Q3) A client responds to bad news regarding test results by crying uncontrollably. What is the term for this response to a stressor?
A) Adaptation
B) Homeostasis
C) Coping mechanism
D) Defense mechanism
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Q1) Family members of a dying client are in the room with their loved one. As the client nears death, what should the nurse tell the family?
A) "Please leave the room now. It is time to let go."
B) "Only one family member at a time can stay in the room."
C) "Please stay with your loved one and talk to him."
D) "I will have to get an order for you to stay now."
Q2) Which one of the following statements accurately describes the process known as grief reaction?
A) Reactions to grief and dying are different.
B) Reactions to grief are similar for all people.
C) Reactions to grief follow all stages of the grieving process.
D) Reactions to grief may differ from client to family.
Q3) A middle-age woman is mentally preparing for the death of her mother. What is the term for this mental preparation?
A) Grieving
B) Anticipatory grieving
C) Bereavement
D) Loss
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Q1) The nurse is caring for client 82 years of age who is struggling to adapt to hearing loss as he ages. The nurse performs which of the following interventions to assist the client in adapting to this sensory deficit? Choose all that apply.
A) Make sure he wears his hearing aid.
B) Speak in a lower tone of voice.
C) Speak so he can observe your lip movement.
D) Keep his environment clear of clutter.
E) Orient to person, place, and time frequently
Q2) A nurse documents the following on a client chart: "client manifests difficulties with spatial orientation, memory language, and changes in personality." What state of arousal/awareness does this describe?
A) Delirium
B) Dementia
C) Confusion
D) Locked-in syndrome
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Q1) The nursing instructor is talking with the junior nursing class about male reproductive issues. The instructor tells the students that the causes of erectile dysfunction include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Alcoholism
B) Spinal cord trauma
C) Tadalafil
D) Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors
E) Diabetes
Q2) During a class for 5th- and 6th-grade girls about menstruation, one student comments that she has heard that girls smell bad during their menses. Other students chime in saying they have heard the same thing and ask how to prevent odors. The nurse correctly answers with which of the following solutions?
A) Stay at home during heaviest flow
B) Use deodorizing pads and tampons
C) Utilize good hygiene and regular bathing
D) Change pads or tampons at least daily
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Q1) While admitting a clilent who is having elective surgery tomorrow, the nurse asks if he has a preferred religion or faith. The client indicates that he does not believe in a higher power and therefore has no preferred religion. The nurse knows that which of the following terms describes the client's feelings about religion?
A) Atheist
B) Jehovah's Witness
C) Agnostic
D) Spiritualist
Q2) A client informs the nurse that her physician has planned a procedure that may be in conflict with the client's personal spiritual belief. The client asks the nurse for assistance. The nurse is aware that her role should include assisting the client to do which of the following?
A) Confront the physician and refuse to undergo the procedure.
B) Explore and research alternative medicine therapies.
C) Poll other physicians about alternate treatment options.
D) Obtain accurate information in order to make a good decision.
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